|
Question 1.
You have installed the first NetWare 5 server for your company and accepted all default settings. What type of time server is this server?
A. Primary
B. Reference
C. Secondary
D. Single reference
E. Secondary reference
Answer: D
Question 2.
What needs to be done to allow servers to find any time server, regardless of the tree it's in?
A. Set Directory mode to off.
B. Set timesync restart flag to on.
C. Set Service Advertising Protocol to off.
D. Set the default time server type to reference.
Answer: A
Question 3.
You are the NDS expert for your company. You are getting ready to merge the EMA_2 tree into the EMA tree. You are using Serv1 from the EMA_2 tree and Serv4 from the EMA tree to perform the merge. The following is the partition and replica listing for each tree:
EMA_2[Root] EMA [Root]
Serv1 Master
Serv2 Read/write
Serv3 Read/write
Serv4 Read/write
Serv5 Read/write
Serv6 Read/write
Which servers will get a replica of the [Root] partition after the merge? (Choose four)
A. Serv1
B. Serv2
C. Serv3
D. Serv4
E. Serv5
F. Serv6
Answer: A, D, E, F
Question 4.
Your company has six NetWare 5 servers (Serv1, Serv2, Serv3, Serv4, Serv5, and Serv6) and one NetWare 3.12 (Serv7) server. This tree has only one existing partition, the [Root] partition. The servers were installed into the tree in the following order: Serv1, Serv2, Serv3, Serv4, Serv5, and Serv6. Serv5 has bindery service enabled. You have just finished upgrading Serv7 to NetWare 5. Which servers hold a replica of the [Root] partition? (Choose five)
A. Serv1
B. Serv2
C. Serv3
D. Serv4
E. Serv5
F. Serv6
G. Serv7
Answer: A, B, C, E, G
Question 5.
Seven servers were just installed into a new NDS tree. Each server was installed into the partition. Serv1, Serv2, and Serv3 exist in the Corp container. Serv4 and Serv5 were installed in the Prod container. Serv6 and Serv7 were installed in the Manuf container. The servers where installed in the following order:
Serv1, Serv2, Serv3, Serv4, Serv5, Serv6, Serv7. Bindery services has not been enabled on any of the servers.
Which servers receive replicas, either by default, or as a necessary requirement? (Choose three)
A. Serv1
B. Serv2
C. Serv3
D. Serv4
E. Serv5
F. Serv6
G. Serv7
Answer: A, B, C
|
Question 1.
Which protocol is used by multicast to prevent loops?
A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. RPF
D. BGP
E. EIGRP
Answer: C
Question 2.
What frame type is used to signal TSPEC reservation from a client?
A. RSVP
B. ADDTS
C. 802.11 association information elements
D. WMM capabilities exchange
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which two statements are correct if IGMP snooping is enabled on a Cisco WLC? (Choose two.)
A. The router IGMP table is updated with the IP address of the wireless clients as the last
reporter.
B. The IGMP packets from the wireless clients are forwarded to the router without modifications.
C. The IGMP packets from the wireless clients are received at the Cisco WLC, which in turn
generates a query for the client.
D. The IGMP packets from the wireless clients are received at the WLC and are used to update
the router via Cisco Group Management Protocol update from the Cisco WLC.
E. The router IGMP table is updated with the IP address of the Cisco WLC as the last reporter.
Answer: C, E
Question 4.
Which two messages can carry the TSPEC from client to the AP? (Choose two.)
A. Probe request
B. Association request
C. Authentication request
D. Reassociation request
Answer: B, D
Question 5.
Which two statements are correct regarding multicast implementation using a WLAN controller (v5.2) and AP? (Choose two.)
A. Multicast traffic is sent out on Cisco APs at the highest mandatory data rate.
B. Multicast traffic is sent out on Cisco APs at the highest supported data rate.
C. On Cisco APs, multicast traffic and beacons are sent out at the same data rates to maintain a
common cell size for normal data as well as multicast data.
D. If there is more than one mandatory data rate, multicast traffic will be sent at the highest
mandatory rate and beacons will be sent at the lowest mandatory rate.
E. On Cisco APs, multicast traffic will be sent out at the highest data rate that a client can
Maintain with the AP.
Answer: A, D
Question 6.
What must be true about the client before upstream traffic stream metrics can be displayed on the Cisco WLC?
A. Must be Cisco Compatible Extensions version 2
B. Must be Cisco Compatible Extensions version 3
C. Must be Cisco Compatible Extensions version 4
D. Must be associated to a PlatinumQoS WLAN
E. Must be associated to an access point on a Cisco WLC with code version 5.0 or newer
Answer: C
Question 7.
On the Cisco Aironet Access Points connected to a Cisco Unified Wireless LAN controller, which TCLAS queue transmits RTP packets with correct 802.11e QoS markings?
A. UP
B. VO
C. VI
D. BK
E. BE
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which statement describes the WLCv5.2 delivery of a multicast packet from a wired PC source on VLAN_X to a respective wireless client using SSID_X, using a WLAN controller enabled for multicast?
A. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded via multicast to all of its associated APs,
And finally to all wireless clients of that Cisco WLC, via wireless multicast.
B. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded viaunicast to all of its associated APs, and
finally to all wireless clients of that Cisco WLC, via wireless unicast.
C. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded via multicast to all of its associated APs,
discarded at APs without SSID_X joined wireless clients, and forwarded at APs with SSID_X
joined wireless clients via wireless multicast.
D. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded viaunicast to all of its associated APs,
discarded at APs without SSID_X joined wireless clients, and forwarded at APs with SSID_X
joined wireless clients via wireless multicast.
E. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded via multicast to all of its associated APs,
discarded at APs without SSID_X joined wireless clients, and forwarded at APs with SSID_X
joined wireless clients via wirelessunicast.
F. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded viaunicast to all of its associated APs,
discarded at APs without SSID_X joined wireless clients, and forwarded at APs with SSID_X
joined wireless clients via wireless unicast.
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which statement is correct for both the LWAPP and CAPWAP AP upstream 802.1Q tagged wired QoS priority for a non-WMM-associated client frame that is H-REAP locally switched running v5.2?
A. Wireless client WMM UP classification is translated to a wired DSCP priority.
B. Wireless client 802.11p classification is translated to a wired DSCP priority.
C. Wireless client WMM UP classification is translated to a wired 802.1pCoS priority.
D. Wireless client 802.11p classification is translated to a wired 802.1pCoS priority.
E. WLAN configuredQoS level is used to set the wired DSCP priority.
F. Wired 802.1pCoS priority is not set.
Answer: F
Question 10.
What two benefits result from Cisco WLC configuration of DCA for 5-GHz VoWLAN deployments? (Choose two.)
A. Avoid channels with microwave oven noise.
B. Manually remove channels not supported by theVoWLAN clients.
C. Avoid 802.11n 40-MHz wide channels.
D. Automatically avoid nearby radar.
Answer: B, D
|
Question 1.
Which of the following commands will display a list of installed AIX software on a server?
A. installp
B. lpstat
C. lppchk
D. lslpp
Answer: D
Question 2.
There is a database running in an AIX partition on a p570 server. The database administer wants a script run to cleanly shut down the database before the operating system is shut down.
As system administrator, which of the following would meet the database administrator requirement?
A. Use the chitab command to change the Action field of the appropriate /etc/inittab entry from
espawn to nce
B. Create a script to shut down the database in the /etc/rc.d/rc2.d directory
C. Create a DLPAR script on the HMC that issues an operating system command to run the
database shut down script whenever a hutdown LPAR command is run on the HMC
D. Create an /etc/rc.shutdown file containing instructions to shut down the database
Answer: D
Question 3.
A System p administrator is doing an AIX 5.3 New and Complete Overwrite installation on a system with a 64-bit processor using the default settings.
Which of the following options will be the resulting installed environment?
A. Both the 32-bit and 64-bit kernel will be installed and the 64-bit kernel will be enabled
B. Only the 32-bit kernel will be installed and enabled
C. Only the 64-bit kernel will be installed and enabled
D. Both the 32-bit and 64-bit kernel will be installed and the 32-bit kernel will be enabled
Answer: D
Question 4.
An administrator wants to copy the contents of /apps to tape.
Which of the following would accomplish this?
A. cpio -itv < /dev/rmt0
B. tar -xvf /dev/rmt0 /apps
C. find /apps -print | backup -i -v -f /dev/rmt0
D. find /apps -print | tar -tvf /dev/rmt0
Answer: C
Question 5.
How would an administrator reboot a system into maintenance mode?
A. init 0
B. reboot -m
C. bosboot -ad
D. shutdown -Fm
Answer: D
Question 6.
A user is having unrecognizable characters appear on their IBM 3153 terminal when using the ksh shell. The administrator examines the user's .profile in their home directory and it contains this related section of code.
A. 'TERM=ibm3151' should read 'TERM=ibm3153'
B. 'set TERM' should be changed to 'export TERM'
C. 'set TERM' should appear before the 'TERM=ibm3151'
D. 'set TERM' should read 'set $TERM'
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which of the following is an advantage of DLPAR?
A. Real mode address memory requirements have been increased for contiguous blocks of
physical memory for large-memory partitions therefore improving performance for large
applications.
B. Since at least 1 Gig of memory is required most applications will run better.
C. DLPAR provides the ability to add/remove processing capacity to an LPAR without disrupting
applications.
D. After reallocating resources DLPAR partitions reboot faster making the changes to those
partitions readily available.
Answer: C
Question 8.
During reboot, the system hangs with LED 0581 that indicates "Configuring TCP/IP."
Which of the following recovery procedures should be taken?
A. Boot in maintenance mode, access the rootvg and check the /etc/inittab for corruption.
B. Boot in maintenance mode after verifying the network connection, access the rootvg and check
the /etc/rc.net file.
C. Boot in maintenance mode, access the rootvg and rebuild the boot image using the bosboot
command.
D. Boot in maintenance mode, access the rootvg and run /etc/tcp.clean.
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which command is used to wait for a process to exit and display the status?
A. pwait
B. procwait
C. pstat
D. ps
Answer: B
Question 10.
A System p administrator needs to verify that the symbolic links associated with a fileset are correct as indicated in the Software Vital Product Data (SWVPD) database.
Which command will provide this information?
A. instfix -l
B. lslpp -h
C. installp -v
D. lppchk -l
Answer: D
Question 11.
The /home filesystem is 100% full and errors are generated trying to increase the size using chfs.
Which of the following is most likely causing the problem?
A. /home is still mounted
B. /var is 100% full
C. A user is editing a file residing in /home
D. /tmp is 100% full
Answer: D
|
Question 1.
ITCertKeys.com uses a centralized call processing model to connect their saw mills in Albany and Columbus. Each mill is configured as a separate Location in Cisco Unified CallManager at HQ. Each Location has been configured with 256 Kbps of voice bandwidth.
How many G.729 calls can be placed between Locations simultaneously?
A. 23
B. 5
C. 16
D. 10
E. 8
Answer: D
Question 2.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. A manager at HQ is holding a conference call with three of his staff members that are located at BR. The HQ region uses the G.711 codec, the BR region uses the G.711 codec, and the IP WAN region uses the G.729 codec. The MRGL associated with the manager has only the software conference bridge listed.
What will happen when the three staff members join the conference?
A. The staff members will not be able to join the conference until all the software conferencing
resources are consumed and the conference uses the hardware conferencing resources at BR.
B. The staff members will join only after the manager has set the conference call up using the
hardware conferencing resources.
C. The staff members will all join the conference normally.
D. The staff members will be prevented from joining because the software conference bridge only
supports the G.711 codec and the staff members will be using the G.729 codec.
Answer: D
Question 3.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com needs to have the receptionist at extension 5000 handle all callers who exit their auto attendant by pressing "0". After changing the Operator parameter from 5500 to 5000, callers are still sent to extension 5500 when they press "0" in the auto attendant.
What needs to be done to correct this issue?
A. Dial peer 1 needs to be restarted using the shutdown and no shutdown commands.
B. The application needs to be edited to point to the correct operator.
C. The aa application needs to be reloaded in order to recognize the parameter changes.
D. The gateway needs to be reloaded for application changes to take effect.
E. The Operator parameter should be configured under dial peer 1 using the param command.
Answer: C
Question 4.
DRAG DROP
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. A branch site with an H.323 gateway has lost connectivity to the main site. You want to initiate SRST and get back the operation to normal. Select the appropriate steps in the correct order. Use only steps that apply.
Answer:
Question 5.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. You have configured transcoder resources in both an IOS router and a Cisco Unified Communications Manager. When you review the configurations in both devices the IP addresses and transcoder names are correct, but the transcoder is failing to register with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Which command needs to be edited to allow the transcoder to register properly?
A. The associate ccm 2 priority 1 command needs to be changed so the ccm value matches
identifier 1 in the sccp ccm 10.1.1.1 command.
B. The maximum sessions command must match the number of codecs configured under the dsp
farm profile.
C. The sccp ccm group number must match the voice-card number.
D. The sccp ccm group number needs to match the associate ccm 2 command.
E. The associate profile and dsp farm profile numbers need to match associate ccm 2 command.
Answer: A
Question 6.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. A user in RTP calls a phone in San Jose during congestion with Call Forward No Bandwidth (CFNB) configured to reach cell phone 4085550150. The user in RTP sees the message "Not Enough Bandwidth" on their phone and hears a fast busy tone.
Which two conditions can correct this issue? (Choose two.)
A. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings.
B. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150 configured
under the AAR Settings.
C. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 914085550150
configured under the AAR Settings.
D. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings.
E. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150
configured under the AAR Settings.
F. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of
914085550150 configured under the AAR Settings.
Answer: D, E
Question 7.
How is recovery from SRST mode back to Cisco Unified Communications Manager call processing accomplished?
A. The SRST gateway receives Keepalives from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The
SRST gateway then rejects the IP phone registrations with instructions to register with Cisco
Unified Communications Manager.
B. The IP phones receive Keepalives from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. They then
register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager and cancel their registration with the
SRST gateway.
C. The IP phones receive a response to Keepalives sent to Cisco Unified Communications
Manager. They then register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager and cancel their
registration with the SRST gateway.
D. The SRST gateway receives a response to Keepalives sent to Cisco Unified Communications
Manager. The SRST gateway then rejects the IP phone registrations with instructions to
register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Answer: C
Question 8.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. When a Cisco IP Communicator Phone roams from the San Jose site to the RTP site, the Physical Location for the Cisco IP Communicator Phone changes and the Device Mobility Group remains the same. After roaming to RTP, the user called a colleague in RTP and conferenced in a phone in his home location (San Jose).
Which statement about the MRGL for the Cisco IP Communicator Phone is true?
A. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the Home MRGL (SJ_MRGL) since his Device
Mobility Group (DMG) remained the same.
B. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the RTP_MRGL since his Device Mobility Group
remained the same.
C. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the RTP_ MRGL regardless of Device Mobility
Group.
D. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the Home MRGL (SJ_MRGL) since he is
conferencing a user at his home location.
Answer: C
Question 9.
As the Administrator for an IT company that's using a Centralized Cisco Unified Communications Manager topology, you've been tasked to implement Device Mobility feature for users that roam between their home country (US) and Europe. Due to frequent travels to different countries, your goal is to implement Device Mobility without requiring users to learn each country's numbering plan.
Which scenario will accomplish your goal?
A. Place each roaming user in a country specific User Device Profile.
B. Place each site in a different device pool but use the same Device Mobility Group.
C. Place each site and user in the appropriate Device Calling Search Space so they always use
the local PSTN gateway for each country.
D. Implement Mobile Connect.
E. Place each site in a different Device Mobility Group.
Answer: E
Question 10.
A remote site MGCP gateway will be used to provide redundancy when connectivity to the central Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is lost.
Which three steps are required to enable IP phones to establish calls to the PSTN when they have registered with the gateway? (Choose three.)
A. POTS dial peers must be added to the gateway to route calls from the IP phones to the PSTN.
B. COR needs to be configured to allow outbound calls.
C. The default service must be enabled globally.
D. The command ccm-manager mgcp-fallback must be configured.
E. The default service must be configured on an inbound POTS dial peer.
F. VoIP dial peers must be added to the gateway to route calls from the PSTN to the IP phones.
Answer: A, C, D
|
Question 1.
Navisphere CLI is typically installed with what other software package?
A. Navisphere Manager
B. Host Agent
C. AccessLogix
D. PowerPath
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which two statements about Storage Area Networks (SANs) are true? (Choose two.)
A. SANs enable the sharing of storage resources via IP / Ethernet networking.
B. SANs enable the sharing of storage resources across a high speed, low latency, Fibre
Channel network.
C. SANs provide block level I/O access to storage resources.
D. SANs provide file level I/O access to storage resources.
Answer: B, C
Question 3.
Which three statements are correct about zoning with Brocade switches? (Choose three.)
A. Zoning configuration information is stored on the hosts.
B. Zone aliases are not required to define a zone.
C. A zone can be included in more than one zone configuration.
D. Each zone must be given a unique name.
E. Each device can be included in only one zone.
Answer: B, C, D
Question 4.
Which term is another name for hard zoning in Fibre Channel switches?
A. soft zoning
B. WWN zoning
C. port zoning
D. switch zoning
Answer: C
Question 5.
Where is the Host Agent privileged user list stored?
A. on the Storage Area Network (SAN) for central access
B. in an administrative share on the host server for host-to-host replication
C. both locally and remotely on the SAN
D. each Host Agent maintains its own local copy
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which utility should you use to add LUN management functionality to a server when using SAN Copy?
A. admhost
B. naviadm
C. admcopy
D. admsnap
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which three statements about a GigaBit Interface Converter (GBIC) are true? (Choose three.)
A. Single-mode optical can be used for long wavelength transmissions.
B. A GBIC can convert the SCSI protocol intoFibre Channel.
C. Multi-mode optical can be used for short wavelength transmissions.
D. Small form pluggable LC transceivers build upon the GBIC standard.
E. A GBIC terminates aFibre loop.
Answer: A, C, D
Question 8.
Which two components of a CX700 array do the standby power supplies connect to? (Choose two.)
A. The left and right power distribution units (PDUs)
B. Storage Processor Enclosure (SPE)
C. the first Disk Array Enclosure (DAE2-OS)
D. Disk Processor Enclosure (DPE)
Answer: B, C
Question 9.
Which three statements are correct about using SnapView? (Choose three.)
A. SnapView can take snapshots, or point-in-time copies of LUNs.
B. SnapView can make clones, or 100% duplicate copies of a LUN.
C. Snapshots can take mere seconds to create.
D. Snapshots are volume-level and thus able to restore specific files.
E. Snapshots may be created using theadmhost CLI utility.
Answer: A, B, C
Question 10.
What are four characteristics of World Wide Names (WWNs)? (Choose four.)
A. WWNs consist of a 128-bit value comprising a 64-bit node name and a 64-bit port name.
B. WWNs can be used in an IP NIC.
C. WWNs are used to route SAN data and provide zoning and failover functionality.
D. Each device has a pre-defined, unique address.
E. More than one WWN can exist in a single host if the host contains multiple Host Bus Adapters
(HBAs).
Answer: A, C, D, E
|
Question 1. A company is deciding whether or not to monitor employees' e-mail. What type of ethical issue is involved? A. Accuracy B. Property C. Privacy D. Accessibility Answer: C Question 2. Collaborative filtering software is: A. Software that keeps track of users' movements to interpret their interests. B. Best for most endeavors. C. Illegal, but popular. D. Software that is user-controlled. Answer: A Question 3. Which of the following is not a form of push technology? A. Self-service delivery B. Direct delivery C. Search engine optimization D. Mediated delivery Answer: C Question 4. The most common online shopper is: A. 55 or older. B. 35 to 54 years old. C. 20 to 35 years old. D. Under 20 years old. Answer: B Question 5. When a Web user "clicks through" from one site to a second site, buys a product on the second site, and then the second site pays a commission to the first site for the referral, we call this process: A. Link referral. B. Banner commissioning. C. Affiliate marketing. D. Co-advertising. Answer: A Question 6. Notational money is: A. A financial transaction made without the use of paper documents. B. An electronic medium for making payments. C. Value stored and exchanged by formal authorization. D. A marker representing value. Answer: C Question 7. In which one of the following ways do Online Auction Sites like Ebay make money? A. By taking a percentage of each transaction B. By providing escrow services C. By charging for shipping and handling D. By providing payment services via Credit Card Answer: A Question 8. Jackie has an e-card that she waives at the turnstile to enter the subway. What type of smart card is she using? A. Credit card B. Contactless card C. Contact card D. Purchase card Answer: B Question 9. Which of the following is an example of a general purpose pure-play e-tailer? A. Store A does not have a physical location and sells a variety of products online. B. Store D has a physical location. A variety of products are sold. C. Store B does not have a physical location and sells a specific type of product. D. Store C has a physical location and a Web site. A variety of products are sold. Answer: A Question 10. Collaborative filtering software is: A. Best for most endeavors. B. Software that is user-controlled. C. Software that keeps track of users' movements to interpret their interests. D. Illegal, but popular. Answer: C
|
Question 1. How many cache groups can be used in Transparent Cache Switching: A. 5 B. 4 C. 1 D. 3 E. 2 Answer: B Question 2. Session Capacity Threshold defines: A. The percent of remaining sessions available on the ServerIron B. The total number of sessions used on the ServerIron C. The total number of sessions that are configured on the real servers D. The total session capacity of the ServerIron Answer: A Question 3. Using show server real, if you see UNBND: A. The application is bound to the VIP B. The application port for the real server is not bound to the real server C. The application cannot be found D. The VIP is bound to the real server E. The application needs to be bound to the real server Answer: D Question 4. Using show server real, if you see UNBND: A. The application is bound to the VIP B. The application cannot be found C. The application needs to be bound to the real server D. The application port for the real server is not bound to the real server E. The VIP is bound to the real server Answer: E Question 5. Filters on the ServerIron configured for Server Load Balancing are: A. Set to drop any connections specified by the filter B. Applied to packets directed to the VIP C. Used to redirect packets to the Internet D. Set to drop traffic to or from specified ports Answer: B Question 6. When configuring real servers, there must be backup servers in order to have primary servers A. False B. True Answer: A Question 7. What is the default SLB behavior for Server Load Balancing for packets from the ServerIron to the real server? Choices: 1) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server a. Destination translates address from the VIP to the real serverIP b. Source translate the clients IP address 2) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server a. Destination translates address from the VIP to the real server IP b.Source leaves the clients IP address unchanged 3) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server a. Destination leave the clients IP address unchanged b. Source Translate the real server IP address into a VIP address 4) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server a. Destination Leave the real server IP address unchanged b. Source leaves the clients IP address unchanged A. 4 B. 2 C. 1 D. 3 Answer: B Question 8. Configuring a remote server as primary will include it: A. As the primary remote backup server B. As the primary backup server C. In the VIP balancing with the local servers D. As the server to access when all the locals have failed Answer: C Question 9. What ServerIron CLI command enables FWLB for TCP. A. ip policy 1 fw tcp 0 global B. ip policy 1 fw tcp 1 global C. ip policy 1 fw udp 1 global D. server fw-port 5 Answer: A Question 10. When configuring Hot Standby Redundancy, the configuration from one ServerIron can be copied to another ServerIron exactly except for: A. The management address and the MAC address B. The MAC address C. The sync-link address D. The management address Answer: D
|
Question 1. To which level of the storage configuration hierarchy do the read and write cache policies apply on the MSA2000? A. virtual disk B. array C. physical disk D. volume Answer: D Question 2. You recently upgraded to CommandView EVA v7 and changed the password to pa$$word01. You can no longer manage the EVA5000. What is a possible cause? A. The password contains unsupported characters. B. The password contains fewer than 12 characters. C. The password requires at least one uppercase character. D. The password contains more than 8 characters. Answer: D Question 3. What is a hidden MSA2000 volume that contains preallocated reserve space for snapshot data? A. snap pool B. master volume C. target volume D. rollback pool Answer: A Question 4. What is the EVAperf default setting for collecting data? A. every second B. every 5 seconds C. every 15 seconds D. every 10 seconds Answer: D Question 5. After a power outage, the MSA2000 controller powers up while some member disks of a RAID set are still unavailable. Which disaster recovery function attempts to get the associated LUN online? A. Refresh Disk Blocks B. Dequarantine Virtual Disk C. ReInitialize Disk Blocks D. Trust Virtual Disk Answer: D Question 6. What is the minimum version of CommandView to enable all the features of controller firmware XCS 6.10? A. CommandView EVA 6.02 B. CommandView EVA 7.0 C. CommandView EVA 6.1 D. CommandView EVA 6.0 Answer: B Question 7. What is the maximum size LUN that can be created on the EVA4400 at initial release? A. 2TB B. 16TB C. 1TB D. 32TB Answer: A Question 8. DRAG DROP Match each customer requirement with the appropriate HP StorageWorks solution Answer: Explanation: Question 9. You are installing an MSA2012fc storage solution at a customer site. The manual addition of a global spare disk fails. What is the most probable reason for the failure? A. No virtual disk exists on the system. B. Global spares must be added in pairs. C. Global spare disks must reside in the same enclosure as thevdisks. D. Unassigned disks are automatically used as global spares. Answer: A Question 10. Which items can be part of a disk group on an HP StorageWorks EVA for a successful online disk drive code load? (Select two.) A. unprotected RSS B. Vraid0 LUN C. Vraid5 LUN D. reconstructing disk group E. Vraid1 LUN Answer: C, E Question 11. Which SAN switch management tool, previously only available as an embedded version, is now separately available on CD? A. EmulexEZpilot B. McData HAFM C. Cisco Fabric Manager D. Brocade Fabric Watch Answer: C
|
Question 1. A customer is concerned about growth of the company's HP Data Protector Software database. Which tool will address this concern? A. HP StorageWorks sizing tool B. HP Data Protector database sizer C. Database Configuration Worksheet D. Capacity Planning Spreadsheet Answer: D Question 2. What is the term for a configuration where failure of a single component does not cause failure of the entire system? A. hot-swappable B. NSPOF C. high availability D. SFP Answer: B Question 3. You are proposing an HP Storage Essentials SRM Enterprise Edition solution for a customer environment using only Oracle databases. You have decided to design a single server deployment. What is another term for this configuration? A. shared B. dedicated C. mixed D. isolated Answer: A Question 4. Which HP Storage Essentials SRM pluG. ins are available for the Enterprise Edition, but not for Standard Edition? (Select three.) A. Report Designer B. Backup Manager C. Provisioning Manager D. NAS Manager E. Database Viewer F. Chargeback Manager Answer: A, C, F Question 5. Which statement is correct about Remote Web Console? A. It can manage all XP firmware based software. B. It can provide centralized management of multiple XP arrays. C. Licensing is tier based on a per TB basis. D. It provides SAN level management. Answer: A Question 6. When must a customer use HP StorageWorks Command View XP Advanced Edition over Remote Web Console XP? A. for CLI based array management B. for centralized management of multiple XP arrays C. for Business Copy XP management D. for simple LUN management Answer: B Question 7. You are designing a backup solution for an Enterprise customer. Which ratio between host feed speed and tape write speed is required for optimal performance in compressed mode? A. 1:1 B. 2:1 C. 3:1 D. 4:1 Answer: C Question 8. Which HP document provides current configuration rules for HP storage connectivity in a SAN environment? A. San Visibility Tool B. SAN Design Reference Guide C. EBS Compatibility Matrix D. Quick Specs Answer: B Question 9. Which VLS6000 feature allows data movement to a physical library or another virtual library system? A. Automigration B. Virtual Tape Device Mirroring C. Virtual Cartridge Copy D. Deduplication Answer: A Question 10. DRAG DROP Click the Task button. Match the HP Network Attached Storage products with the appropriate customer environment and target market. Match the HP Network Attached Storage products with the appropriate customer environment and target market. Answer: Explanation:
|
Question 1.
What is an example of a stress test?
A. purchasing at anE.commerce site
B. updating orders on a client/server system
C. viewing upcoming flight itineraries on a flight reservation application
D. displaying the home page immediately after a marketing promotion has been run
Answer: D
Question 2.
When scheduling a scenario, which run modes are available in the Controller? (Select two.)
A. Group
B. Scenario
C. Duration
D. Global Schedule
E. Real-Life schedule
F. Run Until Complete
Answer: E, F
Question 3.
You want to control the delay between iterations. Where do you set this in the Run-time settings?
A. General: Pacing
B. General: Think Time
C. Network: Speed Simulation
D. Browser: Browser Emulation
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which level of concurrency identifies how many users are currently in the process of buying a ticket?
A. system
B. application
C. transaction
D. business process
Answer: D
Question 5.
What is the appropriate scenario outline if your quantitative goal is to attain 2,500 concurrent users for the Update transaction during peak time?
A. Load test should achieve 2,500 users only.
B. Script should define the Update transaction only.
C. Script should define the Update transaction, and the load test should achieve 2,500 users.
D. Script should define the Update transaction, and the load test should achieve 2.500 concurrent
users.
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which option in the Analysis tool allows you to see the results of two graphs from the same load test scenario in a single graph?
A. Drill Down
B. Apply Filter
C. Merge Graphs
D. Auto Correlate
Answer: C
Question 7.
What is the LoadRunner term for varying values defined in a placeholder that replaces the hard. coded values?
A. variable
B. constant
C. parameter
D. correlation
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which scenario run is recommended to set the Run-time setting to Standard Logging?
A. Debug
B. Full Load
C. Top Time
D. Scalability
Answer: C
Question 9.
What is the first indication of a performance problem?
A. The network delay time is above 15ms.
B. The DMG is not resolving the machine name.
C. The Web server's available memory drops below 1 GB.
D. The end userexpenences higherthan expected response times.
Answer: D
Question 10.
How can you validate that the LoadRunner Agent is running on the load generator?
A. Port 443 will be open.
B. The MlFW.exe process will be running.
C. The radar dish will appear in the system tray.
D. The load generator will be pinged using the name/DNS/IP.
Answer: C
Question 11.
Which performance test finds the behavior and performance of each tier?
A. load test
B. volume test
C. scalability test
D. component test
Answer: D
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.