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Question 1.
DHCP (and BOOTP) options can be assigned at how many levels?
A. One Level
B. Two Level
C. Three Level
D. Four Level
Answer: C
Explanation:
DHCP (and BOOTP) options can be assigned at three levels:
Globally
At the subnet level
At the IP address level
Question 2.
What happens when a user's public key certificate expires?
A. The user's public key, private key, and digital signature are deleted.
B. The Certificate Authority automatically re-issues a public key certificate if the user is still active.
C. The public and private keys remain intact but can no longer be used to encrypt and decrypt
data.
D. The public and private keys can still be used for encryption but they are not guaranteed to be
authentic.
Answer: D
Question 3.
You have just run the REBUILD command on volume DATA. Which file does REBUILD copy errors and transactions to, and what is that file located?
A. DATA.NSS, located at the root of SYS.
B. DATA.RLF, located at the root of SYS.
C. DATA.RLF, located at the root of DATA.
D. DATA.NSS, located at the root of DATA.
E. VOLUME.NSS, located at the root of DATA.
Answer: B
Question 4.
What complimentary resources are available online through the Novell web pages? (Choose three)
A. Product documentation
B. Product support forums
C. Incident-based electronic support
D. Novell Software Evaluation Library
E. Limited access to Abend Analysis System
Answer: A, B, E
Question 5.
When installing NetWare 6, if you choose the express installation method, what size will volume SYS be?
A. 500 MB
B. 1 GB
C. 2 GB
D. 4 GB
E. 5 GB
Answer: D
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Question 1. Which processors use hyperthreading? (Select two.) A. Intel single core processors B. AMD dual core processors C. AMD quad core processors D. Inteldual core processors Answer: A, D Question 2. How many memory channels are there in a 2 processor DDR3-based server? A. 2 channels B. 3channels C. 4channels D. 6 channels Answer: D Question 3. On Intel Xeon 5500 Series (Nehalem) based servers, where is the memory controller located? A. processor socket B. processor core C. HyperTransport Bus D. Front Side Bus Answer: B Question 4. Which components are under the control of Dynamic Power Management on Intel Xeon 5500 Series (Nehalem) based servers? (Select two.) A. chipset B. PCI-e cards C. hard drives D. CPU E. fans Answer: A, D Question 5. A server has four disks, each 146GB in size. They are configured as RAID 5. What is the logical drive size presented to the operating system? A. 292GB B. 438GB C. 584GB D. 730GB Answer: B Question 6. Which operating system has support for the ZFS filesystem? A. Sun Solaris B. Windows Server 2008 R2x64 Enterprise Edition C. Novell NetWare 6.5 D. Novell SLES 10 Answer: A Question 7. Which type of internal slot has been added to HP ProLiant G6-based servers for use by hypervisors? A. Extreme Digital (xD) B. Secure Digital (SD) C. Compact Flash (CF) D. PCI-express (PCIe) Answer: B Question 8. For the Intel x5570Series processors in the HP ProLiant SL2x170z G6, what does the letter "x" preceding the processor model number indicate? A. extreme performance B. lowerwattage C. turbo boost performance D. highperformance/wattage Answer: D Question 9. In which log are Array POST errors recorded? A. Windows Event Log B. Integrated Management Log C. IPMI Log D. Onboard Administrator Log Answer: B Question 10. What information does the ADU provide? (Select three.) A. firmwareversion B. OEM hard drive vendor C. RAID stripe size D. HardwareErrorLogs E. SmartArray driver version Answer: A, C, D
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Question 1.
A manufacturing customer is not concerned about system failure, they believe heir 2 week manufacturing cycle allows for recovery. You wish to identify an opportunity for business esilience.
Which of the following is the impact of system failure?
A. Automated recovery capabilities
B. Redundant servers
C. Quality of Service
D. Resource utilization
Answer: C
Question 2.
Identifying each customer recovery and budget requirements is an important first step in a Business Resilience (BR) engagement. A customer determines they have anRTO of 2-6 hours.
Which of the following addresses this BR requirement?
A. Continuous availability, end to end automation
B. Rapid data recovery
C. Tape based backup and restore
D. Real time data and server replication
Answer: B
Question 3.
A fundamental driver for the efficiency of any server is the level of utilization that is achieved.
What are the typical current utilization levels for various processor types and what should be done to increase this utilization?
A. Mainframe 80%
B. Unix >50%
C. X86 >10%
D. Mainframe 100%
E. Unix >40%
F. X86 >10%
G. Mainframe >80%
H. Unix 15-25%
I. X86 <10%
J. Mainframe >80%
K. Unix >50%
L. X86 >20%
M. Application provisioning
Answer: C
Question 4.
Estimating resources can be the most difficult task in the performance-planning process.
What are the components that the NEDC Technical Leader should be primarily interested in?
A. CPU time, disk access rate, LAN traffic, amount of real memory
B. Disk access rate, number of simultaneous users, number of concurrent batch jobs
C. Paging rate, CPU time, networking bandwidth
D. CPU clock speed, operating system type and communication I/O
Answer: A
Question 5.
A large manufacturing customer datacenter has reached its physical limits.
A Which of the following is the key element in the Active Energy Strategy green agenda?
A. IT Management solution to monitor IT Assets
B. Facility monitoring into single portal
C. Smart management of IT devices, cooling systems and virtualization of infrastructure
D. A full chargeback suite for usage and accounting
Answer: C
Question 6.
A securities trading bank has a critical performance issue. Peaks in trading behavior temporarily result in a huge number of orders which must be processed in time to avoid penalties.
Which of the following meets this immediate situation?
A. IBM SAN Volume Controller provides outstanding performance. Develop a virtualized
architecture with the customer to leverage caching properties to meet the
B. IBM server technology withCUoD
C. Analyze the business application; providing high performance solutions for a few peaks is not
cost
D. affective. Suggest your customer negotiate the service levels
E. Identify the real issue and develop the proper solution combining software, hardware and
services out of IBM comprehensive portfolio.
Answer: B
Question 7.
A prospect is confused with the multiple pillars (BR, EE, VC, and II) within the NEDC strategy. They are interested in virtualization and consolidation, but are concerned that too many pillars will result in a compromise and a poor solution.
Which of the following is an effective response?
A. The pillars are interrelated and should be implemented together for maximum benefit
B. NEDC Innovation Workshop will help them identify which pillars are most critical and create a
roadmap for implementation of one or more pillars
C. NEDC pillars should be implemented one at a time like most applications, combining them as
goals makes implementation very difficult
D. Select the most urgent with the highest ROI. Once a successful track record is established
other pillars should be implemented
Answer: D
Question 8.
Following successful implementation of a NEDC project, the customer is concerned all of the objectives were not achieved.
Which of the following would provide a check point for the project objectives for comparison?
A. NEDC Innovation Workshop
B. Scorpion study
C. Technical and Delivery Assessment
D. Team Solution Design
Answer: A
Question 9.
An IBM Solution Assurance Review (SAR) is conducted to facilitate which of the following?
A. Expectations and assignment of responsibilities for a project
B. Confirms appropriate IBM hardware configuration
C. Ensure proper stakeholder support within an organization
D. Qualifies the Business Partner for Special Bid Pricing
Answer: A
Question 10.
One important factor in developing any BR strategy is to determine the customer Recovery Point Objective.
Which of the following defines a business RPO?
A. RPO indicates how much data the business canhafford to recreate (or lose)
B. RPO denotes the time interval between an outage and when the remote servers are available
C. RPO is the length of elapsed time that the business has agreed they can afford to be without
their systems and critical business applications
D. RPO is the distance between the product data centers and the recovery site
Answer: A
Question 11.
A customer CIO is very concerned about the ability of his current staff to handle implementation of the desired NEDC BR project. They plan to implement immediately.
Which of the following addresses this issue?
A. Send the staff to IBM education to gain the skills
B. Replace the staff with new skilled individuals
C. Engage a consultant to establish a plan
D. Contract with IBM or Business Partner to perform the critical work elements
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Which choice best demonstrates how the print statement may be used to print HTML code?
A. print HTML>>;
B. print ;
C. print ("HTML">;
D. print ("HTML">;
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which method is not effective for protecting server scripts?
A. Assigning the cgi-bin directory read-only permissions.
B. Running the Web server under a user account with few permissions.
C. Using CGI wrapper scripts.
D. Saving scripts with only .exe, .cgi or .pl extensions.
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which one of the following statements allows for variable substitution?
A. $sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state='$state'};
B. $sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state='$state'};
C. $sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
D. $sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which one of the following lists of special characters denotes a space character in pattern matching?
A. \r \t \W \D
B. \r \t \n \f
C. \^ . * +
D. \s \D \W \f
Answer: B
Question 5.
List context versus scalar context is determined by which one of the following?
A. The compiler
B. The debugger
C. The interpreter
D. The environment
Answer: A
Question 6.
Which choice best demonstrates how to add a name-value pair to form data?
A. $object = append( name=>"state", value=>"New York");
B. $object = add( -name=>"state", -value=>"New York");
C. $object-> append( -name=> "state", -value=>"New York");
D. 4object ==> add( -name=>"state", -value=>"New York");
Answer: C
Question 7.
The file mode specifies which one of the following?
A. The access permissions.
B. The inode number.
C. The file's owner.
D. How the file is opened.
Answer: D
Question 8.
The CGI.pm module can be used to perform which one of the following tasks?
A. GET or POST data.
3
B. Load external variables.
C. Read large amounts of text into the script.
D. Access environment variables.
Answer: D
Question 9.
Given $_ = "alphabetais", consider the following substitution:
s/a+.*/greektome/gi;
What is the new value of $_ after this substitution?
A. isgreektome
B. ISGREEKTOME
C. greektome
D. alphabetais
Answer: D
Question 10.
Which choice demonstrates the correct syntax for the DELETE command?
A. DELETE MyDatabase WHERE VALUES state='Kentucky' AND color='blue'
B. DELETE MyDatabase WHERE state='Kentucky' AND color='blue'
C. DELETE FROM MyDatabase WHERE state='Kentucky' AND color='blue'
D. DELETE state='Kentucky' AND color='blue' FROM MyDatabase
Answer: C
Question 11.
Which one of the following statements will open the file /home/myfile and append data?
A. open (INPUT "/home/myfile");
B. open (INPUT, ">>/home/myfile");
C. open (OUTPUT, ">/home/myfile");
D. open (OUTPUT "/home/myfile");
Answer: B
Question 12.
Which method is used in a Perl script to access the variables POSTed by an HTML form?
A. prepare();
B. param();
C. header ();
D. post();
Answer: B
Question 13.
Which one of the following statements uses correct syntax?
A. if ( $day eq "today" ) print ( "current" );
B. if ( $day = "tomorrow" ) print ( "future" );
C. if ( $day eq "yesterday" ) {print ( "past" ):}
D. print ( "past" ) if {$day eq "yesterday" }
Answer: C
Question 14.
Which one of the following choices lists the four steps of interaction with a database?
A. Connect, Read, Write, Disconnect
B. Connect, Send a command, Write, Disconnect
C. Connect, Query, Read/Write, Disconnect
D. Connect, Send a command, Display results, Disconnect
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Given the output from a dumpadm command:
# dumpadm
Dump content: kernel pages
Dump device: /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s1 (swap)
Savecore directory: /var/crash/wm13w1
Savecore enabled: yes
Which statement is correct?
A. The savecore command will run as the system shuts down following a panic.
B. The dump device is also the swap device.
C. Crash dumps are written to the /var/crash/wm13w1 file.
D. The system will dump the whole content of memory to the dump device.
Answer: B
Question 2.
You run an IT department and are responsible for purchasing hardware within a given budget. You are aware that 70 GBytes of data housed in a series of traditional disk slices is becoming critical to the business. You decide to mirror the data but have concerns about write performance. You can purchase the disk space to mirror the data.
What is a cost-free configuration enhancement that achieves fast write performance?
A. striping the data across the disks in each half of the mirror
B. arranging for the mirror to consist of just two disks
C. using RAID 5 to hold the data in each half of the mirror
D. concatenating the data across the disks in each half of the mirror
Answer: A
Question 3.
Your syslog configuration file contains the line:
mail.debugifdef(`LOGHOST', /var/log/syslog, @loghost)
Which two are correct statements about this entry? (Choose two.)
A. If the loghost alias is set to be the local host, messages are sent to the /var/log/syslog file.
B. If the loghost alias is set to be the local host, messages are sent to the user loghost on the
Local system.
C. If the loghost alias is not set to the local host, messages are emailed to the root user at the
host loghost.
D. The ifdef statement is interpreted by the syslogd daemon.
E. If the loghost alias is not set to the local host, messages are sent to the host defined as the
loghost.
Answer: A, E
Question 4.
Given the line from a name service configuration file:
ethers: nis [UNAVAIL=return] files
Which two statements correctly describe the behavior of the name service switch? (Choose two.)
A. If the NIS server does NOT respond, the search for the ethers entry will continue by looking for
it in the local file.
B. If the NIS server does NOT respond, the search for the ethers entry will end without looking in
the local file.
C. If NIS does NOT find the appropriate entry in its ethers map, the search will continue by
looking for it in the local file.
D. If NIS does NOT find the appropriate entry in its ethers map, the search will end without
looking in the local file.
Answer: B, C
Question 5.
You want to automatically mount an NFS resource. You also want to mount the NFS resource so that if the server becomes unavailable, and the client reboots, system initialization will continue without waiting for the resource to mount.
Which mount option can be added to the client's /etc/vfstab file to achieve this?
A. ro
B. intr
C. bg
D. soft
E. hard
F. fg
Answer: C
Question 6.
You are creating a profile on your JumpStart server to install a new system and are using a Flash archive to provide the necessary software. The Flash archive is called /export/nb.flar and is shared on the network from the server grendel, which has the IP address 194.168.85.106.
What is the syntax for the JumpStart client's profile file which will use this archive to install the new system?
A. archive_location grendel /export/nb.flar nfs
B. archive_location nfs grendel /export/nb.flar
C. archive_location 194.168.85.106 nfs /export/nb.flar
D. archive_location nfs 194.168.85.106:/export/nb.flar
Answer: D
Question 7.
The rules.ok file on your JumpStart server contains the line:
hostname client1 backup_root client_config set_root_passwd
Which two are correct statements about the function of this line? (Choose two.)
A. The client runs the backup_root script prior to installing software.
B. The client runs the set_root_passwd script after installing software.
C. The client will configure itself using either the backup_root, client_config, or set_root_passwd
profiles.
D. The client runs the backup_root, client_config and set_root_passwd scripts after installing
software.
E. The client runs the backup_root, client_config, and set_root_passwd scripts prior to installing
software.
Answer: A, B
Question 8.
You have Solaris Volume Manager installed on your system and want to create your first metadevice.
What initial action must you take?
A. create a soft partition using the -s initialize option with the appropriate command
B. run a command to initialize the configuration metadevice
C. run the vxinstall utility to initialize the volume manager software for use
D. run a command to create the first state database
E. run a utility to add a license to enable SVM for Solaris 9
Answer: D
Question 9.
Given:
# getfacl file1
# file: file1
# owner: root
# group: other
user::rwuser:
user3:rwx #effective:r--
group::r-- #effective:r--
mask:r--
other:r--
You run the command:
setfacl -s u::rwx,g::rw-,o:r--,m:rw- file1
Which statement describes the effect of the setfacl command?
A. The permissions assigned to user3 remain unchanged.
B. The permissions for user3 are removed from the system.
C. The effective permissions of the group other remain unchanged.
D. Nothing happens due to a syntax error in the setfacl command.
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which three functions can the syslogd daemon perform? (Choose three.)
A. forwarding messages to a list of users
B. interrupting processes that are producing errors above a pre-configured threshold
C. writing messages to a system log
D. forwarding input from root to the user's processes
E. writing IPC messages to the processes that are generating errors rapidly
F. forwarding messages to the syslogd daemon on another host on the network
Answer: A, C, F
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Question 1. DRAG DROP
Drop
Answer:
Question 2.
Which of the following configurations requires the use of hierarchical policy maps?
A. the use of nested class-maps with class-based marking
B. the use of a strict priority-class queue within CBWFQ
C. the use of class-based WRED within a CBWFQ class queue
D. the use of CBWFQ inside class-based shaping
E. the use of both the bandwidth and shape statements within a CBWFQ class queue
Answer: D
Explanation:
Class-based weighted fair queuing (CBWFQ) extends the standard WFQ functionality to provide support for user-defined traffic classes. By using CBWFQ, network managers can define traffic classes based on several match criteria, including protocols, access control lists (ACLs), and input interfaces. A FIFO queue is reserved for each class, and traffic belonging to a class is directed to the queue for that class. More than one IP flow, or "conversation", can belong to a class. Once a class has been defined according to its match criteria, the characteristics can be assigned to the class. To characterize a class, assign the bandwidth and maximum packet limit. The bandwidth assigned to a class is the guaranteed bandwidth given to the class during congestion. CBWFQ assigns a weight to each configured class instead of each flow. This weight is proportional to the bandwidth configured for each class. Weight is equal to the interface bandwidth divided by the class bandwidth. Therefore, a class with a higher bandwidth value will have a lower weight.
By default, the total amount of bandwidth allocated for all classes must not exceed 75 percent of the available bandwidth on the interface. The other 25 percent is used for control and routing traffic. The queue limit must also be specified for the class. The specification is the maximum number of packets allowed to accumulate in the queue for the class. Packets belonging to a class are subject to the bandwidth and queue limits that are configured for the class.
Question 3.
In a managed CE scenario, the customer's network is supporting VoIP and bulk file transfers.
According to the best practices, which QoS mechanisms should be applied on the WAN edge CEPE 56-kbps Frame Relay link on the CE outbound direction?
A. LLQ, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
B. CBWFQ, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
C. WRR, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
D. WRR, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
E. LLQ, CB-WRED, CB-Policing, and CB-TCP and CB-RTP header compressions
F. CBWFQ, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, CB-Policing, and FRTS
Answer: A
Explanation:
1. WRED can be combined with CBWFQ. In this combination CBWFQ provides a guaranteed percentage of the output bandwidth, WRED ensures that TCP traffic is not sent faster than CBWFQ can forward it.
The abbreviated configuration below shows how WRED can be added to a policy-map specifying CBWFQ:
Router(config)# policy-map prioritybw Router(config-pmap)# class class-default fair-queue
Router(config-pmap-c)# class prioritytraffic bandwidth percent 40 random-detect
The random-detect parameter specifies that WRED will be used rather than the default tail-drop action.
2. The LLQ feature brings strict Priority Queuing (PQ) to CBWFQ. Strict PQ allows delay-sensitive data such as voice to be sent before packets in other queues are sent. Without LLQ, CBWFQ provides WFQ based on defined classes with no strict priority queue available for real-time traffic. For CBWFQ, the weight for a packet belonging to a specific class is derived from the bandwidth assigned to the class. Therefore, the bandwidth assigned to the packets of a class determines the order in which packets are sent. All packets are serviced fairly based on weight and no class of packets may be granted strict priority. This scheme poses problems for voice traffic that is largely intolerant of delay, especially variation in delay. For voice traffic, variations in delay introduce irregularities of transmission manifesting as jitter in the heard conversation. LLQ provides strict priority queuing for CBWFQ, reducing jitter in voice conversations.
LLQ enables the use of a single, strict priority queue within CBWFQ at the class level. Any class can be made a priority queue by adding the priority keyword. Within a policy map, one or more classes can be given priority status. When multiple classes within a single policy map are configured as priority classes, all traffic from these classes is sent to the same, single, strict priority queue.
Although it is possible to queue various types of real-time traffic to the strict priority queue, it is strongly recommend that only voice traffic be sent to it because voice traffic is well-behaved, whereas other types of real-time traffic are not. Moreover, voice traffic requires that delay be nonvariable in order to avoid jitter. Real-time traffic such as video could introduce variation in delay, thereby thwarting the steadiness of delay required for successful voice traffic transmission.
When the priority command is specified for a class, it takes a bandwidth argument that gives maximum bandwidth in kbps. This parameter specifies the maximum amount of bandwidth allocated for packets belonging to the class configured. The bandwidth parameter both guarantees bandwidth to the priority class and restrains the flow of packets from the priority class. In the event of congestion, policing is used to drop packets when the bandwidth is exceeded. Voice traffic queued to the priority queue is UDP-based and therefore not adaptive to the early packet drop characteristic of WRED. Because WRED is ineffective, the WRED random-detect command cannot be used with the priority command. In addition, because policing is used to drop packets and a queue limit is not imposed, the queue-limit command cannot be used with the priority command.
Question 4.
Refer to the partial router configuration. Which two of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Regardless of destination IP address, all traffic sent to Mac address 1.2.3 will be subject to
policing
B. All traffic from a server with the IP address of 147.23.54.21 will be subject to policing.
C. Any IP packet will be subject to policing.
D. The class-map class1 command will set the qos-group value to 4 for all IP packets.
E. Only those packets which satisfy all of the matches in class1 and class2 will be subject to
policing.
F. The configuration is invalid since it refers to a class map within a different class.
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
The class-map command is used to define a traffic class. The purpose of a traffic class is to classify traffic that should be given a particular QoS. A traffic class contains three major elements, a name, a series of match commands, and if more than one match command exists in the traffic class, an instruction on how to evaluate these match commands. The traffic class is named in the class-map command line. For example, if the class-map cisco command is entered while configuring the traffic class in the CLI, the traffic class would be named cisco.
Switch(config)# class-map cisco Switch(config-cmap)#
match commands are used to specify various criteria for classifying packets. Packets are checked to determine whether they match the criteria specified in the match commands. If a packet matches the specified criteria, that packet is considered a member of the class and is forwarded according to the QoS specifications set in the traffic policy. Packets that fail to meet any of the matching criteria are classified as members of the default traffic class and will be subject to a separate traffic policy
The policy-map command is used to create a traffic policy. The purpose of a traffic policy is to configure the QoS features that should be associated with the traffic that has been classified in a user-specified traffic class. A traffic policy contains three elements: Policy Name Traffic class specified with the class command QoS policies to be applied to each class The policy-map shown below creates a traffic policy named policy1. The policy applies to all traffic classified by the previously defined traffic-class "cisco" and specifies that traffic in this example should be allocated bandwidth of 3000 kbps. Any traffic which does not belong to the class "cisco" forms part of the catch-all class-default class and will be given a default bandwidth of 2000 kbps. Switch(config)# policy-map policy1 Switch(config-pmap)# class cisco Switch(config-pmap-c)#
bandwidth 3000 Switch(config-pmap-c)# exit Switch(config-pmap)# class class-default
Switch(config-pmap-c)# bandwidth 2000 Switch(config-pmap)# exit
Question 5.
In an unmanaged CE router implementation, how does the service provider enforce the SLA?
A. by marking on the CE to PE link and using CBWFQ and CB-WRED on the PE to P link
B. by marking on the CE to PE link and using class-based policing on the PE to P link
C. by using class-based policing on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate
D. by using class-based random discard on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate
Answer: C
Explanation:
In an unmanaged Router Implementation, Service provider can enforce SLA By using class based policy on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate.
Question 6.
When configuring a Cisco Catalyst switch to accommodate an IP phone with an attached PC, it is desired that the trust boundary be set between the IP phone and the switch.
Which two commands on the switch are recommended to set the trust boundary as described? (Choose two.)
A. mls qos trust device cisco-phone
B. switchport priority extend trust
C. mls qos trust cos
D. no mls qos trust dscp
E. mls qos trust extend [cos value]
F. mls qos cos 5
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
mls qos trust [ cos ] :
B y default, the port is not trusted. All traffic is sent through one egress queue. Use the cos keyword to classify ingress packets with the packet CoS values. The egress queue assigned to the packet is based on the packet CoS value. When this keyword is entered, the traffic is sent through the four QoS queues. Normally, the QoS information from a PC connected to an IP Phone should not be trusted. This is because the PC's applications might try to spoof CoS or Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) settings to gain premium network service. In this case, use the cos keyword so that the CoS bits are overwritten to value by the IP Phone as packets are forwarded to the switch. If CoS values from the PC cannot be trusted, they should be overwritten to a value of 0.
Question 7.
According to the best practices, in a service provider network, which statement is true as related to the QoS policy that should be implemented on the inbound provider (P) to provider (P) router link?
A. In the DiffServ model, all ingress and egress QoS processing are done at the network edge
(for example, PE router), so no input or output QoS policy will be needed on the P to P link.
B. Class-based marking should be implemented because it will be needed for the class-based
queuing that will be used on the P router output.
C. Traffic policing should be implemented to rate-limit the ingress traffic into the P router.
D. Because traffic should have already been policed and marked on the upstream ingress PE
router, no input QoS policy is needed on the P to P link.
Answer: D
Question 8.
DRAG DROP
Drop
Answer:
Question 9. HOTSPOT
HOTSPOT
Answer:
Explanation:
Question 10.
A Frame Relay interface has been configured for adaptive shaping with a minimum rate of 15 kbps. The current maximum transmit rate is 56 kbps. If three FECNs are received over the next 4 seconds, what will be the maximum transmit rate after the last FECN has been received?
A. 10 kbps
B. 37 kbps
C. 7 kbps
D. 15 kbps
E. 28 kbps
F. 56 kbps
Answer: F
Explanation:
User specified traffic shaping can be performed on a Frame Relay interface or sub-interface with the traffic-shape rate command. The traffic-shape adaptive command can be specified to allow the shape of the traffic to dynamically adjust to congestion experienced by the Frame-Relay provider. This is achieved through the reception of Backward Explicit Congestion Notifications (BECN) from the Frame Relay switch. When a Frame Relay switch becomes congested it sends BECNs in the direction the traffic is coming from and it generates Forward Explicit Congestion Notifications (FECN) in the direction the traffic is flowing to. If the traffic-shape fecn-adapt command is configured at both ends of the link, the far end will reflect FECNs as BECNs. BECNs notify the sender to decrease the transmission rate. If the traffic is one-way only, such as multicast traffic, there is no reverse traffic with BECNs to notify the sender to slow down. Therefore, when a DTE device receives a FECN, it first determines if it is sending any data in return. If it is sending return data, this data will get marked with a BECN on its way to the other DTE device. However, if the DTE device is not sending any data, the DTE device can send a Q.922 TEST RESPONSE message with the BECN bit set.
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Question 1.
How many access points will a Cisco 7600 Series Router with six installed Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Wireless Services Modules support?
A. 300
B. 448
C. 664
D. 1800
E. 2400
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which value is NOT supported by Cisco Spectrum Expert, when checking for RF coverage?
A. access point received-signal strength level
B. spectrum utilization
C. client data rate
D. in-band radio frequency interference
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which is NOT part of a typical wireless site survey?
A. implementation suggestions
B. access point locations
C. security requirements
D. access point mounting methods
Answer: C
Question 4.
What are two objectives of a pre-site survey walkthrough? (Choose two.)
A. identify potential problem areas
B. define intended coverage areas
C. assess compliance with local building codes
D. determine the final location of APs and antennas
E. identify sources of RF signal attenuation and RF interference
Answer: A, B
Question 5.
If there is an existing 802.11g WLAN at a site, which service can be provided without conducting a new site survey?
A. add a new 802.11a WLAN
B. increase the Layer 2 and Layer 3 security of the WLAN
C. increase the throughput for the wireless clients
D. add new services (such as voice) over the WLAN
Answer: B
Question 6.
Construction of a new automobile parts manufacturing facility has recently been completed. The facility IT manager wants to deploy voice over WLAN. During your initial walkthrough, you observe numerous highly reflective surfaces on the manufacturing equipment and in the building construction itself.
What potential problem exists that should be accounted for during your site survey?
A. LOS modulation
B. multipath distortion
C. RF signal absorption
D. RF signal attenuation
E. Fresnel zone impedance
Answer: B
Question 7.
To which parameter should the access point be set during a site survey?
A. transmit only
B. diversity
C. receive only
D. single isolated antenna
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which statement is true when using a Cisco Wireless Mesh Networking Solution?
A. The backhaul link isdynamic 1 to 54 Mb/s.
B. The backhaul link is typically a fixed value.
C. The backhaul link uses DAS antennas.
D. The backhaul link uses antenna multiplexing.
E. The backhaul link does not rely on fade margin.
Answer: B
Question 9.
What approximates the signal attenuation of a plasterboard wall?
A. crowd of people
B. office window
C. metal door
D. brick wall
Answer: B
Question 10.
The AirMagnet passive site survey tool can provide RF coverage data, except for which parameter?
A. Signal Strength (4th access point)
B. Signal Strength (3rd access point)
C. Channel Interference
D. Predictive Physical Data Rate Downlink (2nd access point)
Answer: A
Question 11.
Where should known problem areas in the site survey be documented?
A. nowhere (but should be discussed with the customer)
B. on the site survey map and within the site survey text
C. on the customer's blueprints
D. in the Cisco WCS Planning Tool
Answer: B
Question 12.
What is the term for the space that exists above a drop ceiling or below a raised floor and that is used for air return?
A. NEMA area
B. plenum area
C. DAS area
D. extended area
E. RF special area
Answer: B
Question 13.
When using WMM Call Admission Control, what are the default bandwidth values for video on 802.11a/n?
A. Max RF bandwidth is 75 percent; reserved roaming bandwidth is 6 percent.
B. Max RF bandwidth is 50 percent; reserved roaming bandwidth is 10 percent.
C. Max RF bandwidth is 50 percent; reserved roaming bandwidth is 15 percent.
D. Max RF bandwidth is 0 percent; reserved roaming bandwidth is 0.
Answer: D
Question 14.
Which statement best describes Cisco WCS support for antennas?
A. Cisco WCS supports third-party antennas for location applications.
B. Access points that are defined with third-party antennas will not participate in rogue on
Demand location tracking.
C. Cisco WCS supports third-party antenna gain, azimuth, and elevation propagation patterns.
D. Access points that are defined with a third-party antenna in Cisco WCS will display coverage
heat maps.
Answer: B
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Question 1.
What is the purpose of looking for anomalous behavior on a WLAN infrastructure?
A. Identifying new attack tools
B. Auditing employee's bandwidth usage
C. Identifying attacks using signature matching
D. Improving performance by load balancing
Answer: A
Question 2.
As of controller release v5.2, which two statements about wired guest access support are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is not supported on the Cisco 2100 Series Controllers.
B. No more than three wired guest access LANs can be configured on a controller.
C. Layer 3 web authentication andpassthrough are not supported.
D. Wired guest access cannot be configured in a dual-controller configuration that uses an anchor
controller and a foreign controller.
E. The wired guest access ports must be in the same Layer 2 network as the foreign controller.
Answer: A, E
Question 3.
The wireless client can roam faster on the Cisco Unified Wireless Network infrastructure when which condition is met?
A. EAP-FAST is used for client authentication on the wireless network.
B. Cisco Centralized Key Management is used for Fast Secure Roaming.
C. QoS is being used on the WLAN to control which client packets get through the network faster.
D. RRM protocol is used between multiple APs that the client associates to while roaming.
Answer: B
Question 4.
Which option best describes an evil twin attack?
A. A rouge access point broadcasting a trusted SSID
B. A rogue access point broadcasting any SSID
C. A rouge ad-hoc with the SSID "FreeWiFi"
D. A rouge access point spreading malware upon client connection
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which two configuration parameters does NAC OOB require on a SSID/WLAN? (Choose two.)
A. WMM enabled on the WLAN
B. Open authentication on the WLAN
C. AAA override configuration on the WLAN
D. 802.1x configuration on the WLAN
Answer: B, D
Question 6.
Which two 802.11 frame types can be used in a virtual carrier (big NAV) attack? (Choose two.)
A. Association
B. ACK
C. CTS
D. Beacon
E. De-authentication
Answer: B, C
Question 7.
When adding the foreign controller as a mobility group member in the guest anchor controller, which statement is true?
A. The mobility group name on the guest anchor controller must match the mobility group name
on the foreign controller.
B. The mobility group member IP address and MAC address belong to the management interface
of the foreign controller.
C. To successfully add the foreign controller as a mobility group member in the guest anchor
controller, all the parameters defined in the WLAN Security,QoS, and Advanced tabs must be
configured identically in both the anchor and foreign controller.
D. In the guest anchor controller GUI, WLANs > Mobility Anchors page, use the Switch IP
Address (Anchor) drop-down menu to select the IP address corresponding to the management
interface of the anchor controller.
Answer: B
Question 8.
DRAG DROP
Drop Click and drag the WLAN Qos level on the left to its intended usage on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
Question 9.
For wireless NAC out-of-band operations, which protocol is used between the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager and the wireless controller to switch the wireless client from the quarantine VLAN to the access VLAN after the client passed the NAC authentication/posture assessment process?
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. SNMP
D. SSL
E. EAP
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which WLAN option, when enabled, allows different wireless clients to be connected to different VLANs based on the returned RADIUS attributes from the AAA server?
A. H-REAP
B. Override interface ACL
C. NAC state
D. Cisco CKM
E. Auth-proxy
F. Allow AAA override
Answer: F
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Question 1.
Which protocol is used by multicast to prevent loops?
A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. RPF
D. BGP
E. EIGRP
Answer: C
Question 2.
What frame type is used to signal TSPEC reservation from a client?
A. RSVP
B. ADDTS
C. 802.11 association information elements
D. WMM capabilities exchange
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which two statements are correct if IGMP snooping is enabled on a Cisco WLC? (Choose two.)
A. The router IGMP table is updated with the IP address of the wireless clients as the last
reporter.
B. The IGMP packets from the wireless clients are forwarded to the router without modifications.
C. The IGMP packets from the wireless clients are received at the Cisco WLC, which in turn
generates a query for the client.
D. The IGMP packets from the wireless clients are received at the WLC and are used to update
the router via Cisco Group Management Protocol update from the Cisco WLC.
E. The router IGMP table is updated with the IP address of the Cisco WLC as the last reporter.
Answer: C, E
Question 4.
Which two messages can carry the TSPEC from client to the AP? (Choose two.)
A. Probe request
B. Association request
C. Authentication request
D. Reassociation request
Answer: B, D
Question 5.
Which two statements are correct regarding multicast implementation using a WLAN controller (v5.2) and AP? (Choose two.)
A. Multicast traffic is sent out on Cisco APs at the highest mandatory data rate.
B. Multicast traffic is sent out on Cisco APs at the highest supported data rate.
C. On Cisco APs, multicast traffic and beacons are sent out at the same data rates to maintain a
common cell size for normal data as well as multicast data.
D. If there is more than one mandatory data rate, multicast traffic will be sent at the highest
mandatory rate and beacons will be sent at the lowest mandatory rate.
E. On Cisco APs, multicast traffic will be sent out at the highest data rate that a client can
Maintain with the AP.
Answer: A, D
Question 6.
What must be true about the client before upstream traffic stream metrics can be displayed on the Cisco WLC?
A. Must be Cisco Compatible Extensions version 2
B. Must be Cisco Compatible Extensions version 3
C. Must be Cisco Compatible Extensions version 4
D. Must be associated to a PlatinumQoS WLAN
E. Must be associated to an access point on a Cisco WLC with code version 5.0 or newer
Answer: C
Question 7.
On the Cisco Aironet Access Points connected to a Cisco Unified Wireless LAN controller, which TCLAS queue transmits RTP packets with correct 802.11e QoS markings?
A. UP
B. VO
C. VI
D. BK
E. BE
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which statement describes the WLCv5.2 delivery of a multicast packet from a wired PC source on VLAN_X to a respective wireless client using SSID_X, using a WLAN controller enabled for multicast?
A. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded via multicast to all of its associated APs,
And finally to all wireless clients of that Cisco WLC, via wireless multicast.
B. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded viaunicast to all of its associated APs, and
finally to all wireless clients of that Cisco WLC, via wireless unicast.
C. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded via multicast to all of its associated APs,
discarded at APs without SSID_X joined wireless clients, and forwarded at APs with SSID_X
joined wireless clients via wireless multicast.
D. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded viaunicast to all of its associated APs,
discarded at APs without SSID_X joined wireless clients, and forwarded at APs with SSID_X
joined wireless clients via wireless multicast.
E. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded via multicast to all of its associated APs,
discarded at APs without SSID_X joined wireless clients, and forwarded at APs with SSID_X
joined wireless clients via wirelessunicast.
F. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded viaunicast to all of its associated APs,
discarded at APs without SSID_X joined wireless clients, and forwarded at APs with SSID_X
joined wireless clients via wireless unicast.
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which statement is correct for both the LWAPP and CAPWAP AP upstream 802.1Q tagged wired QoS priority for a non-WMM-associated client frame that is H-REAP locally switched running v5.2?
A. Wireless client WMM UP classification is translated to a wired DSCP priority.
B. Wireless client 802.11p classification is translated to a wired DSCP priority.
C. Wireless client WMM UP classification is translated to a wired 802.1pCoS priority.
D. Wireless client 802.11p classification is translated to a wired 802.1pCoS priority.
E. WLAN configuredQoS level is used to set the wired DSCP priority.
F. Wired 802.1pCoS priority is not set.
Answer: F
Question 10.
What two benefits result from Cisco WLC configuration of DCA for 5-GHz VoWLAN deployments? (Choose two.)
A. Avoid channels with microwave oven noise.
B. Manually remove channels not supported by theVoWLAN clients.
C. Avoid 802.11n 40-MHz wide channels.
D. Automatically avoid nearby radar.
Answer: B, D
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Question 1. What is the default role on a Cisco mesh access point? Select the best response. A. root access point B. mesh access point C. root bridge access point D. workgroup bridge Answer: B Question 2. Which AP combinations can support MAP or RAP roles in a mesh network using version 5.2? Select the best response. A. AP1252, AP1510, AP1522, AP1524 B. AP1232, AP1522, AP1524, AP1242 C. AP1131, AP1522, AP1242, AP1524 D. AP1252, AP 1522, AP1524, AP1242 Answer: C Question 3. Where is Ethernet bridged traffic terminated in a mesh network? Select the best response. A. WLC B. WGB C. MAP D. RAP Answer: D Question 4. Which two frequencies can be used for backhaul in a mesh solution using version 5.2? (Choose two.) Select 2 response(s). 2 A. 2.4 GHz B. 4.2 GHz C. 4.9 GHz D. 5.8 GHz Answer: C, D Question 5. What is the Cisco recommendation for maximum hop count and VLANs per sector in a mesh deployment? Select the best response. A. 4 hops, 10 VLANs B. 4 hops, 16 VLANs C. 5 hops, 10 VLANs D. 6 hops, 16 VLANs Answer: B Question 6. What is the first step to initially establish a mesh network? Select the best response. A. Configure the bridge group name. B. Enter the MAC address of the mesh access point on the Cisco WLC. C. Enable Ethernet bridging D. Enable VLAN tagging. Answer: B Question 7. AWPP utilizes which three parameters to determine the optimal path? (Choose three.) Select 3 response(s). A. best parent selection B. bridge group name C. ease value D. hop count E. parent selection F. signal-to-noise ratio Answer: C, D, F Question 8. What is the radio role of an AP1410? Select the best response. A. repeater B. root bridge C. root bridge with clients D. workgroup bridge Answer: B Question 9. Which radio role is available on the AP1310 but not on the AP1242? Select the best response. A. install mode B. non-root bridge C. repeater D. root bridge Answer: A Question 10. The Cisco recommended best practice for RSSI-based device tracking states that the tracked devices must be reliably detected by a minimum of how many APs? Select the best response. A. one B. two C. three D. four Answer: C Question 11. The Cisco Wireless Location Appliance or MSE is responsible for which function? Select the best response. A. collection of RSSI data from APs B. configuration of tags and exciters C. execution of positioning algorithms D. visual display of location information Answer: C
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