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Question 1.
When performing a migration to a NetWare 6 server, which are valid statements regarding copying volumes? (Choose two)
A. The volumes cannot be compressed.
B. The source and destination server’s volumes must be NSS.
C. You do not need to copy all of the volumes at the same time.
D. The source and destination server’s volume size must be the same.
E. The source and destination server’s volume names must be the same.
Answer: C, E
Question 2.
Using the UAL licensing model, where is it recommended to install user license if the server object resides in the LIGHTOPS.DEL.DIGITALAIR container and the user objects reside in the CUSTSERV.DEL.DIGITALAIR container?
A. In any container.
B. In the Security container.
C. In the DIGITALAIR container.
D. In the CUSTSERV.DEL.DIGITALAIR container.
E. In the CUSTSERV.DEL.DIGITALAIR or DEL.DIGITALAIR containers.
F. In the FLIGHTOPS.DEL.DIGITALAIR or DEL.DIGITALAIR containers.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Page 1-15 A search for the License starts in the User context and then searches up the tree, therefore the UAL license needs to be either in the user context or in a container above that context.
Question 3.
In a NCS environment, a resource state of ALERT has been placed on a resource. What is a reason that a resource would be in an ALERT state?
A. The resource is shut down or in an inactive state.
B. The resource is unloading from the server it was running on.
C. The resource is not running and requires administrator intervention.
D. There isn’t an assigned node up that the resource can be loaded on.
E. The Start, Failover, or Fail back mode for the resource has been set to manual.
Answer: E
Question 4.
You have just completed installing NCS and are now going to create a shared disk partition. Which utility is used to create a shared disk partition?
A. iMonitor
B. iManager
C. Console One
D. Server Manager
E. NWCONFIG.NLM
Answer: C
Explanation:
Page 10-2 Use Console One to administrate NCS and create a shared disk partition.
Question 5.
Which are tools you can use at the server console prompt to help troubleshoot IP problems? (Choose two)
A. PING
B. TCPCON
C. NETSTAT
D. TRACERT
E. IPCONFIG
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
Page 2-20 through 2-23 Ping and TCPCON can be run from a Netware Console, NETSTAT, TRACERT, and IPCONFIG will all be run from a workstation to test connectivity issues.
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Question 1.
Which two of these activities comprise the problem management service component in the operate phase? (choose two.)
A. send a replacement module
B. schedule a maintenance window
C. manage the problem
D. identify the problem
E. confirm roles and responsibilities
Answer: C, D
Question 2.
Identify a customer support model for the solution is an activity thet is part of which service component in the plan phase?
A. operations readiness assessment
B. planning project kickoff (deployment project management)
C. operations plan development
D. system requirements validation
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which three of these service components are included in the optimize phase? (choose three.)
A. change management
B. security administration
C. technology assessment
D. operations assessment
E. operations readiness assessment
F. security assessment
Answer: C, D, F
Question 4.
Utilizing a trouble ticketing system to track problems is a part of which service component in the operate phase?
A. operations setup
B. change management
C. problem management
D. systems monitoring
Answer: C
Question 5.
Execute the systems acceptance test plan is an activity that is part of which service component in the implement phase?
A. phased implementation
B. acceptance testing
C. staff training
D. full system migration
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which of these best describes the actions you would take during the technology strategy development service component?
A. analyze the customer`s business requirements and recommend the appropriate technologies
to meet those business requirements.
B. identify the customer`s business requirements for the proposed solution.
C. address the customer`s physical site requirements.
D. determine the appropriate end user training needed for the technology solution.
Answer: A
Question 7.
During which implement phase service component would you perform a re-cap of the solution implementation in order to elicit customer feedback?
A. select fault management tools and products
B. operations setup
C. project closeout
D. change management
Answer: C
Question 8.
Review both the business and technical requirements is an activity that is part of which service component in the prepare phase?
A. business case development
B. customer edication
C. high level design development
D. account planning
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which service component would you typically perform prior to the handover to the customer`s operations organization and involves running tests to ensure that the solution is ready for production?
A. skill assessment
B. systems integration
C. project close out
D. acceptance testing
E. security check
Answer: D
Question 10.
In which service component of the optimize phase would you assess the routing and switching system and recommend activities such as optimizing device configurations, capacity planning, or traffic analysis?
A. change management
B. technology assessment
C. security assessment
D. security administration
E. operations assessment
F. operations readiness assessment
Answer: B
Question 11.
During which service component in the optimize phase would you assess the network for vulnerabilities, in order to reduce the risk of attacks?
A. change management
B. security assessment
C. operations readiness assessment
D. oprations assessment
E. echnology assessment
Answer: B
Question 12.
CORRECT TEXT
Which of these best describes the actions you would take during the business requirements development service component in the prepare phase?
a) analyze the customer`s business requirements for a new solution.
b) analyze the customer`s ongoing business case requirements
c) determine the customer`s technology requirements.
d) determine the appropriate cooling temperature for the customer`s server room.
Answer: A
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Question 1.
A charity runs its Windows-based database on external disks and plans to move the data onto a CLARiiON. You plan to gather performance about the current environment.
Which method should you use?
A. Usesar and iostatto gather bandwidth, throughput and response time information
B. Use PerfMon to gather bandwidth, throughput and response time information
C. Use Navisphere Analyzer to gather bandwidth, throughput and response time information
D. Use lometerto gather bandwidth, throughput and response time information
Answer: B
Question 2.
Your analysis and design for an upcoming proposal is complete. Your customer has a requirement to archive data as unalterable sets of files. These sets of files have to be available to both UNIX and Windows clients.
Which technology do you propose to meet this requirement?
A. iSCSI
B. SnapSure
C. CWORM
D. Celerra Replicator
Answer: C
Question 3.
A software engineering firm has decided to implement shared networked storage to facilitate project development. There are approximately 40 servers in the company; 25% are Solaris and 75% are Windows. The company currently limits growth for storage and does not want to add additional servers for that purpose. It anticipates no more than 30% growth over the next three years. The storage utilized for the network file systems must be maintained on the most cost effective solution that is the easiest to manage. However, storage must also be tracked so that required storage for projects can be charged back to the development teams. Additionally, the network file system will be used for non-project related storage from other departments such as Human Resources and Accounting. Space allocation for non-project files must be monitored and reports generated for management. In order to choose the most appropriate management application for this environment, you will need to analyze specific qualification information.
What is the best methodology for collecting this information?
A. Provide the EMC qualification document to the customer and have them complete the form
B. Collect GRABs from all server systems and process with HEAT. Consolidate your findings and
summarize on the qualification document
C. Interview product development team leads and department heads. Determine current and
projected storage requirements and any retention policies currently in use
D. Request network configuration information and performance characteristics. Evaluate ability of
the network to support additional management monitoring
Answer: C
Question 4.
Your customer migrated OLTP applications from servers with direct storage to new servers using a CLARiiON array. Users are complaining about poor application performance. The following information is available for your review:
Performance Manager data on CLARiiON and SAN switche
Current CLARiiON configuration information
Oracle statistics for the applications
EMC Grabs on the newer servers
Your hypothesis is that caching characteristics on the CLARiiON array are not appropriate.
What is the best method to validate this hypothesis?
A. Compare current CLARiiON configuration with installation settings made by Professional
Services
B. Review overall mixture of applications to determine if cache settings are appropriate
C. Ask the Customer Engineer to disable Read caching and see if that helps
D. Run HEAT reports on the GRABS
Answer: B
Question 5.
After implementation of SRDF/S or MirrorView/S, what is the most important metric to monitor?
A. Host measured response time
B. Network error rate
C. Network utilization
D. Array cache usage
Answer: A
Question 6.
A customer has four HBAs in its server and notices that I/O activity is distributed between them as follows:
80%
7%
13%
10%
Which PowerPath load balancing option has most likely been set?
A. CLAR_opt
B - Least_ I/Os
C. Least_Blocks
D. No Redirect
Answer: A
Question 7.
An engagement with a mobile device manufacturer has yielded a solution that includes several storage arrays and ControlCenter. As part of the solution, EMC will provide system integration and training.
What is the scope of this solution?
A. Enterprise solution
B. Point solution
C. Complete solution
D. Standard solution
Answer: A
Question 8.
The CTO of a major corporation called EMC alter an extended outage of its mission-critical application which resulted in a large financial loss. The application is SAP/ Oracle running on Solaris servers connected through a SAN to a CX700 array. The application is currently running 8ms response times.
What information is required to design an optimal disaster recovery solution?
A. Available bandwidth, write rate, recovery point objective/recovery time objective
B. Write rate, distance between sites, recovery point objective/recovery time objective
C. Transaction rate, number of volumes replicated, distance between sites
D. Read/write ratio, available bandwidth, number of volumes replicated
Answer: B
Question 9.
You interview the IT staff and management of a customer. You learn that storage policies have been defined and documented and that all staff follow these policies.
Which EMC Enterprise Maturity rating most closely reflects the process maturity?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
Question 10.
Your customer needs to add NAS capability to use excess capacity in its CLARiiON storage array. It has 140 Windows servers, which are all at least three years old. There is a total of 8.2TB of Windows data. You have decided that all of the servers can be consolidated onto one Celerra.
Which Celerra model would be the best to propose?
A. NS502
B. NS700
C. NSX
D. CFS-14
Answer: C
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Question 1.
Your customer recently changed from using MirrorView for all its distance replication to using MirrorView/ A. Its scripts took care of promotion in the case of a failure, and ran without incident when tested in the MirrorView environment. Those same scripts now fail, with errors which the customer says are related to permissions.
What is a possible cause of the failure?
A. Theagent.config file does not exist in the user home directory
B. The user names and host names do not appear in the privileged user list
C. Theagent.config file does not exist in the Navisphere Agent directory
D. The Navisphere security file does not exist in the user home directory
Answer: D
Question 2.
YOY Company wants to use MirrorView Asynchronous. YOY wants to use double remote copies from primary volumes applications running on an existing CX700. In order to do this, YOY plans to buy two CX500s at separate geographical sites. You are responsible for providing a solution based on MV/A with two secondary remote copies as requested by YOY.
Can you design this solution?
A. Yes, you can achieve the customer's requirements based on the M/VA Fan-out rule.
B. Yes, you can achieve the customer's requirements based on the MV/A fan-out rule but only if
YOY buys two CX700s instead of CX500.
C. No, you cannot achieve the customer's requirements based on the MV/A Fan-out rule but only
if YOY buys an extraSnapView license for the remote CX.
D. No, you cannot achieve the customer's requirements based on the MV/A Fan-out rule.
Answer: D
Question 3.
ZDR Corporation has a CX700 at a primary site and a CX500 at a DR site which is 250 miles away. ZDR does not want to impact the production LUN while copying to the DR site and it still needs to maintain a recoverable copy of data at all times. ZDR's backup policy is to write data every 30 minutes to the DR site. The company has a T3 line between the sites. The data change ratio is 15%.
What is the best solution?
A. MirrorView/A
B. MirrorView
C. SnapView /Snapshot
D. SAN Copy
Answer: A
Question 4.
MQT, Inc. divided each of its DAEs into an eight disk RAID Group, a six disk RAID Group, and a one disk RAID Group. MQT uses the eight disk group to bind 4+4 RAID-1/0 LUNs, which are the Source LUNs for its application. The company intends to use the six disk group to bind 5+1 RAID- 5 LUNs for use as Clones. The remaining disk is used as a Hot Spare. All of MGT's Source LUNs are bound as either 625 MB or 513 MB in size. It binds the Clones as 625 MB and 513 MB. When MGT wishes to start the cloning process, it discovers that it cannot create Clone Groups.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The CLARiiON does not have two Clone Private LUNs allocated
B. 5+1 RAID-5 LUNs cannot be used as Clones for 4+4 RAID-1/0 Source LUNs
C. LUNs on RAID Groups with different stripe sizes are not the same size
D. The memory size allocated for write cache is too small to allow Clones
Answer: A
Question 5.
The BMU Company runs an application with several LUNs that it wants to replicate remotely. You obtain the following information:
There are five 4+1 RAID-5 LUNs of 256 GB each
There are two RAID-1/0 LUNs of 128 GB each
The application uses 4 KB random I/Os on the RAID-5 LUNs, with a read/write ratio of 4:1
On the RAID-1/0 LUNs, the application writes sequential 4 KB I/Os, with no reads
Each LUN is on its own RAID Group, consisting of 146 GB drives
Average seek distance on the RAID-5 LUNs is 35 GB
Average seek distance on the RAID-1/0 LUNs is 0 GB
Each RAID-5 LUN performs 400 IOPs
Each RAID-1/0 LUN performs 500 IOPs
RPO is 30 minutes Assume a 2:1 compression ratio for all data.
What is the link speed needed to connect the MirrorView/A sites?
A. 208 Mbps
B. 104 Mbps
C. 52 Mbps
D. 156 Mbps
Answer: C
Question 6.
You designed a CLARiiON configuration on a metaLUN with ATA disks because the customer was convinced that this configuration would save both space and costs. Your design involved concatenating metaLUNs to allow more scalabilty on space utilization. The Customer's application runs only in single-thread with a large block size. After the solution was implemented, the customer complained about performance.
What do you change to solve the poor performance problem?
A. Use Volume Manager to create multithreading
B. RecreatemetaLUN with an ESM of 2
C. Use stripedmetaLUN to increase performance
D. Change the disk technology
Answer: A
Question 7.
This EMC product uses patented replication technology to make it easy to protect data in Windows environments. It can make 1-to-n copies of Windows production data in WAN or LAN environments, with no limitations on the distance between Windows servers. Any data written to disk by the server can be captured and replicated to one or more secondary disks, for any Windows application stored on any EMC CLARiiON array.
What is it?
A. MirrorView A
B. SAN Copy
C. Incremental SAN Copy
D. LegatoRepliStor
Answer: D
Question 8.
LMA Manufacturers is complaining about application performance issues. You capture a NAR file during a peak period and notice the following about its 4+1 RAID-5 LUN:
Reads and writes are 64 KB in size
LUN utilization is 70%
Disk utilization is 100%
Disk crossings are 100%
Write cache hit ratio is 1.0
Cache rehit ratio is 0.0
Full stripe write/s are around .2 of throughput
Which statement is true?
A. The data is misaligned. Sequential writes should cause disk crossings lower than 100%
B. Sequential writes should cause the write cacherehit ratio to be higher than is exhibited here
C. Sequential writes are responsible for the disk crossings and the full stripe writes
D. I/O sizes of 64 KB will cause disk crossings. More disks will improve performance
Answer: A
Question 9.
The BTL Co, located in New York City, has a backup site in New Jersey. It also has a large office in Seattle. Its application uses 8 KB I/Os, with a high locality of reference for writes. Currently the company's DR solution consists of backing up data to tape twice at the New York site and shipping one copy of the tapes to New Jersey, and the other copy to Seattle. You have explained the benefits of a DR solution to BTL, and the company wants to use all three sites as part of its configuration. BTL has an RPO of 30 minutes if they need to recover from the New Jersey site, and 240 minutes if they need to recover from the Seattle site.
Which solution do you propose?
A. Incremental SAN Copy betweenNew York City and New Jersey, with an update every 30
Minutes Use a Clone of the Destination LUN as the Source LUN for a full SAN Copy transfer to
the Seattle site Run an update every 4 hours
B. MirrorView between New York City and New Jersey Use a Clone of the secondary image as
the Source LUN for a full SAN Copy transfer to the Seattle site Resynchronize the Clone once
the SAN Copy transfer ends Fracture the Clone once it is resynchronized, and start a new SAN
Copy transfer Repeat
C. MirrorView/A between New York City and New Jersey Use a Clone of the secondary image as
the Source LUN for a full SAN Copy transfer to the Seattle site Resynchronize the Clone once
the SAN Copy transfer ends Fracture the Clone once it is resynchronized, and start a new SAN
Copy transfer Repeat
D. MirrorView/A between New York City and New Jersey with a 15 minute update interval
Use Incremental SAN Copy with the MirrorView/A secondary image as the Source LUN to
Transfer data to the Seattle site Run an update every 60 minutes
Answer: D
Question 10.
TGD Inc. uses a CX700 for its Oracle based ERP system. The data is distributed over several LUNs. For DR purposes they use MirrorView /S to mirror the data to a second CX700.
Which failure will cause inconsistent data on the secondary site?
A. Secondary SP B fails
B. Primary SP A fails
C. Broken FC connection on secondary SP B port 2
D. Broken FC connection on primary SP B port 2
Answer: A
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Question 1.
What do you need to consider when installing mezzanine cards in an HP ProLiant BL685c G6 Server Blade? (Select two.)
A. Type 2 mezzanine cards can be installed in slots 2 and/or 3 if they match the interconnect
module type.
B. Type 2 mezzanine cards can be installed in any slot if they match the interconnect module
type.
C. Type 2 mezzanine cards need to be installed in slot 1 and match the interconnect module type.
D. Type 1 mezzanine cards can be installed in any slot if they match the interconnect module
type.
Answer: A, D
Question 2.
You are troubleshooting a performance issue on a BL460c Server Blade with a Linux operating system installed.
Which command should you use to get comprehensive memory information?
A. iostat
B. glance
C. free
D. memdiag
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which HP Insight Control Suite software provides centralized capture, monitor, report, and control of HP BladeSystem power consumption and thermal output?
A. HPProLiant Insight Power Regulator
B. HPProLiant Onboard Administrator
C. HP Insight Power Manager
D. HP Insight Diagnostics Online Edition
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which industry standard management protocols are used by HP SIM? (Select two.)
A. SSH
B. SNMP
C. DMI
D. XML
E. SMTP
Answer: B, C
Question 5.
Which industry standard memory technologies can be used by Intel Xeon-based c-Class server blades to provide additional protection against failed or degrading FB-DIMMs? (Select two.)
A. chip spare
B. mirrored memory
C. parity memory
D. online spare memory
Answer: B, D
Question 6.
Microsoft Cluster Server is an example of which type of clustering architecture?
A. shared-memory
B. High-Performance Computing
C. shared-everything
D. shared-nothing
Answer: D
Question 7.
Which memory slots must be populated first in a ProLiant BL490c G6?
A. blue
B. white
C. black
D. brown
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which feature is used in conjunction with the Trusted Platform Module (TPM)?
A. OpenSSH
B. LDAP
C. BitLocker
D. HP SIM
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which logical extension of the HP Insight Dynamics - VSE Suite provides failure protection for logical servers?
A. Insight Orchestration
B. Insight Rapid Deployment
C. Insight Systems Manager
D. Insight Recovery Software
Answer: D
Question 10.
What is the maximum number of Cisco 3120 Switches that can be combined into a single logical stack?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 9
E. 12
Answer: D
Question 11.
Which component is required to connect a c-Class server blade to an HP StorageWorks MSA 2012sa?
A. Smart Array P700m
B. Smart Array P411
C. HP PCI Express Mezzanine Pass-Thru Card
D. Smart Array E200i
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Which is a valid Post Construct method in a message-driven bean class?
A. @Post Construct
public boolean init() { return true; }
B. @Post Construct
private static void init() {}
C. @Post Construct
private void init() {}
D. @Post Construct
public static void init() {}
Answer: C
Question 2.
Given:
11. Entity public class X {
12. @ld int id;
13. Y y,
14.}
A public class Y with NO Java Persistence annotations is defined in the same package.
Which statement is correct about these classes if NO other annotations and mapping descriptors are provided?
A. Class Y must be serializable.
B. Class Y must be marked as an entity.
C. The entity X is not defined correctly. The field y must be marked as @Lob.
D. Class Y must be accessed by a persistence application through a public interface.
Answer: A
Question 3.
A developer is working on a user registration application using EJB 3.0. A business method register User in stateless session bean RegistrationBean performs the user registration. The register User method executes in a transaction context started by the client. If some invalid user data causes the registration to fail, the client invokes register user again with corrected data using the same transaction.
Which design can meet this requirement?
A. Have register User method call EJBContext.setRollbackOnly() method after registration fails.
B. Have register User method throw javax.ejb.EJBTransactionRequiredException after
registration fails.
C. Have register User method throw EJBException without marking the transaction for rollback,
after registration fails.
D. Create an application exception with the rollback attribute set to false and have register User
method throw it after registration fails.
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which two class types must be implicitly or explicitly denoted in the persistence.xml descriptor as managed persistence classes to be included within a persistence unit? (Choose two.)
A. Entity classes
B. Interceptor classes
C. Embedded classes
D. Entity listener classes
Answer: A, C
Question 5.
Which statement about the combination of mapping defaults, annotations, and XML descriptors is correct?
A. All mapping annotations must always be processed by the persistence provider.
B. Some annotations, like the @Entity annotation, must always be processed by the persistence
provider.
C. The mapping information for an entity class specified by annotations and in XML descriptors
must be distinct.
D. If multiple entity listeners are defined, the order in which they are invoked can be defined or
overwritten in the XML descriptor.
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which statement about an entity instance lifecycle is correct?
A. A new entity instance is an instance with a fully populated state.
B. A detached entity instance is an instance with no persistent identity.
C. A removed entity instance is NOT associated with a persistence context.
D. A managed entity instance is the instance associated with a persistence context.
Answer: D
Question 7.
A developer implements a session bean with a method doStuff which behaves differently depending on the caller's security role. Only users in security roles "ADMIN" and "USER" are allowed to call the method. Assume that there is no security-related metadata in the deployment descriptor.
Which two, taken in combination, are appropriate to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Annotate method doStuff with @PermitAll.
B. Annotate method doStuff with @RolesAllowed({"ADMIN","USER"})
C. lf EjBContext.getCallerPrincipal returns role "ADMIN", implement the behavior for users in role
ADMIN.
D. If EJBContext.isCallerlnRole("ADMIN") returns true, implement the behavior defined for users
in role "ADMIN".
Answer: B, D
Question 8.
A developer wants to create a portable EJB 3.0 application that includes the following class definition for the Entity Account
11. @Entity
12. @EntityListeners(com.acme.AlertMonitor.class)
13. public class Account {
14. // more code here
15. @PrePersist
16. protected void validatecreate() {/* more code here */}
17.}
Which statement is correct?
A. The validateCreate method may NOT throw runtime exceptions.
B. The validateCreate method can invoke the EntityManager.flush operation.
C. Methods of the class com.acme.AlertMonitor annotated with callback annotations must take an
Object or Account instance as the only argument.
D. The above class definition is NOT correct. An entity cannot define a callback method like
PrePersist and use the EntityListeners annotation at the same time.
Answer: C
Question 9.
Given:
11. @PersistenceContext EntityManager em;
12. public boolean test(Order o){
13. boolean b = false;
14. o = em.merge(o);
15 em.remove(o);
16. o = em.merge(o);
17. b = em.contains(o);
18. return b;
19. }
Which statement is correct?
A. The method will return TRUE.
B. The method will return FALSE.
C. The method will throw an exception.
D. The Order instance will be removed from the database.
Answer: C
Question 10.
The deployment descriptor for a stateless session bean that uses the isCallerlnRole method reads as follows:
3.
4. manager
5. humanresources
6.
16.
17.
18. Is allowed to view and update all employee records.
19.
20. humanresources
21.
Which two roles are responsible for creating this deployment descriptor? (Choose two.)
A. Deployer
B. Bean Provider
C. System Administrator
D. Application Assembler
Answer: B, D
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Question 1.
A developer wants to create a business interface for both local and remote usage. For performance reasons the remote interface should NOT be called by a client in the same JVM.
Which statement is required to accomplish this, assuming there is no deployment descriptor?
A. The business methods are defined in one interface which must be annotated with both @Local
and @Remote.
B. The business methods are defined twice in one interface. One method is annotated with
@Local and the other is annotated with @Remote.
C. The business methods are defined in a common interface by two other interfaces which are
annotated with @Local and @Remote respectively. The bean implements the super interface.
D. The business methods are defined in a common interface. It is extended by two interfaces,
annotated with @Local and @Remote respectively. Both interfaces are implemented by the
bean class.
Answer: D
Question 2.
A developer is creating an entity which is mapped to a table that has a primary key constraint defined on two character columns and would like to use mapping defaults as much as possible to simplify the code.
Which two mapping options can be chosen? (Choose two.)
A. Use an @Id property that constructs a private field as a concatenation of two columns.
B. Use a separate class to map those two columns and use an @IdClass annotation to denote
the primary key field or property in the entity.
C. Use a separate @Embeddable class to map those two columns and use an @EmbeddedId
annotation to denote a single primary key field or property in the entity.
D. Use a separate @Embeddable class to map those two columns and add two fields or
properties to the entity, each marked as @Id, that correspond to the fields or properties in the
embeddable class.
E. Use a separate class to map those two columns. Specify that class using @IdClass annotation
on the entity class. Add two fields or properties to the entity, each marked as @Id, that
correspond to the fields or properties in that separate class.
Answer: C, E
Question 3.
A developer maps the abstract entity class Account with concrete entity sub-classes CreditCardAccount and SavingsAccount using the single table per class hierarchy strategy.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Instances of CreditCardAccount and SavingsAccount are stored in the same table.
B. All columns that correspond to fields declared in Account must be defined as null able in the
database.
C. The fields declared in Account are stored in a different table than the ones declared in
CreditCardAccount and SavingsAccount.
D. All columns that correspond to fields declared in CreditCardAccount or SavingsAccount must
be defined as null able in the database.
Answer: A, D
Question 4.
A developer writes an enterprise application and packages it into an .ear file. The application contains two persistence units defined at the .ear level with persistence unit names FooPU and BarPU. The application also contains an ejb-jar with one stateless session bean.
Which code, when added to the stateless session bean class, injects an EntityManagerFactory at runtime?
A. @PersistenceUnit
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
B. @PersistenceContext
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
C. @PersistenceUnit(unitName="BarPU")
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
D. @Resource(name="BarPU", type=EntityManagerFactory.class)
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which two are true about EJB 3.0 exception classes? (Choose two.)
A. The javax.ejb.NoSuchEJBException is an application exception.
B. The javax.ejb.EJBException extends java.lang.RuntimeException.
C. The javax.ejb.EJBTransactionRequiredException is an application exception.
D. An application exception must NOT be a subclass of java.rmi.RemoteException.
E. The javax.ejb.EJBTransactionRolledbackException is an application exception.
F. Any subclass of java.lang.RuntimeException is always considered a system exception.
Answer: B, D
Question 6.
Which statement about the combination of mapping defaults, annotations, and XML descriptors is correct?
A. All mapping annotations must always be processed by the persistence provider.
B. Some annotations, like the @Entity annotation, must always be processed by the persistence
provider.
C. The mapping information for an entity class specified by annotations and in XML descriptors
must be distinct.
D. If multiple entity listeners are defined, the order in which they are invoked can be defined or
overwritten in the XML descriptor.
Answer: D
Question 7.
An Application Assembler is given the following stateless session bean:
10. @Stateless public class MyBean implements MyInt {
11. @RolesAllowed("SECRET")
12. public void methodA(int x) {}
13. public void methodA(String y) {}
14. public void methodB(String z) {}
15. }
A deployment descriptor is also supplied, a portion of which reads as follows:
20.
21. AGENT
22.
23. MyBean
24. methodA
25.
26.
Which statement is true?
A. A client in any role will be able to access any of the methods.
B. A client in the role "AGENT" will be able to access any of the methods.
C. A client in the role "SECRET" will be able to access any of the methods.
D. A client in the role "AGENT" will be able to access methodB and methodA(String), but not
methodA(int).
E. A client in the role "SECRET" will be able to access methodA(int) and methodB, but NOT
methodA(String).
Answer: B
Question 8.
A User entity is in a one-to-many relationship with a Book entity. A developer writes a query to delete users that have a first name of 'Fred' or 'Ginger', and writes the following Java Persistence query language statement:
DELETE FROM User u WHERE u.name IN ('Fred', 'Ginger')
If the query fails with a PersistenceException, what can be the cause?
A. The syntax of the query is NOT correct.
B. The query causes a foreign key integrity constraint to be violated.
C. The database does NOT have any users with the name 'Fred' or 'Ginger'.
D. The entities corresponding to the users with the name 'Fred' or 'Ginger' are already being
managed by the persistence context.
Answer: B
Question 9.
A Java EE 5 application contains a session bean which uses a security role USER. A group called people is defined in an LDAP server.
Which two define appropriate EJB role responsibilities? (Choose two.)
A. The deployer defines and configures the LDAP realm.
B. The system administrator defines and configures the LDAP realm.
C. The deployer maps the application role USER to the LDAP group people.
D. The system administrator maps the application role USER to the LDAP group people.
Answer: B, C
Question 10.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. All types of enterprise beans can be transaction-aware.
B. Typically, fine-grained objects, such as an employee record, should be remotely accessible.
C. The client view of any given enterprise bean will be consistent across all EJB 3.0 containers
without the need to recompile the bean.
D. As long as a given enterprise bean is NOT recompiled, its security attributes are guaranteed to
be consistent across all EJB 3.0 containers in which it is deployed.
Answer: A, C
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Question 1. From where does the user launch hpost? A. the SSP B. the Domain C. the System Board D. the Control Board Answer: A Question 2. Which daemon is responsible for updating the blacklist file? A. edd B. straps C. cbs D. none Answer: D Question 3. Which command starts a bringup, but leaves the domain at OBP? A. bringup-A off B. bringup-a off C. bringup-A obp D. bringup -a obp Answer: A Question 4. Which of the following is responsible for building the domain device tree? A. obp_helper B. obp C. download_helper D. obp_server Answer: B Question 5. Which daemon will reply to a domains initial net request? A. cbs B. in.rarpd C. bootparamd D. straps Answer: B Question 6. What command can be entered on the SSP to boot a domain? A. boot B. jumpstart C. hostint D. bringup Answer: D Question 7. Which default template should be used for the domain NTP configuration file? A. ntp.client B. ntpserver C. ntp.config D. ntp.temp Answer: A Question 8. What command can be run on the SSP to list the OS version of a domain? A. domain_list B. domain_status C. domain_find D. check_host Answer: B Question 9. What command should be entered at the ok prompt to start a Solaris install? A. bootnet B. bootnet-install C. boot net-sv D. jumpstart Answer: A Question 10. Where is processor SUNW,UItraSPARC@21,0 located? A. system board 3, proc 1 B. system board 5, proc 1 C. system board 8, proc 1 D. system board 15, proc 1 Answer: C
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Question 1. How many system controllers can be configured on the Sun Fire 15K? A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 0 Answer: C Question 2. What command must be run at the domain ok prompt to generate a core file? A. ~# B. sync C. boot D. reset-all Answer: B Question 3. What log contains data about failed setkeyswitch commands? A. /var/adm/messages B. post log C. domain console D. domain messages Answer: B Question 4. What file contains the internal and logical network configuration information? A. networks B. MAN.cf C. smsconfig D. net.conf Answer: B Question 5. Which of the following devices can be used with STMS? A. D1000 B. SSA C. T3 D. A3500 Answer: C Question 6. Which of the following commands configures the UNIX groups used by SMS? A. smsconfig -g B. netgroup C. admintool D. smssetup group Answer: A Question 7. Where is the GUID derived from? A. disk world wide number B. disk device path C. disk serial number D. disk c?t?d? number Answer: A Question 8. Which of the following is NOT a function of Sun MC? A. panicing a domain B. creating a domain C. starting a domain D. hosting a domain Answer: B Question 9. Which layer is responsible for submitting requests to the STMS framework? A. system B. application C. vHCI D. scsi-3 Answer: C Question 10. What command is run to remove a Slot 0 board from a domain blacklist file? A. enablecomponent -d a sb1 B. addboard -d a sb1 C. addboard sb1 D. enablecomponent sb1 Answer: A
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Question 1.
What does a CacheFS file system improve?
A. monitor display performance
B. NFS filesystem performance
C. the network backbone
D. SCSI throughput rates
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which is a feature of RAID 0 (Concatenation)?
A. striping with dedicated parity
B. no data redundancy, loss of any single disk will cause data loss
C. striping with distributed parity
D. fully Redundant copy of data on one or more disks
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which is NOT a primary task of OpenBoot firmware?
A. testing and initializing the system hardware
B. verifying a stable network connection
C. providing interactive debugging facilities for testing hardware and software
D. booting the operating system from either a mass storage device or from a network
Answer: B
Question 4.
Which command at the OpenBoot PROM (OBP) command line will rerun Power On Self Test (POST)?
A. post-flag
B. use-nvramrc
C. reset
D. diag-device
Answer: C
Question 5.
What OpenBoot PROM (OBP) command will allow you to change your default boot device?
A. boot disk1
B. devalias disk
C. setenv boot-device
D. printenv boot-device
Answer: C
Question 6.
Which statements are true regarding Diskless client and AutoClient? (Choose two.)
A. A diskless client contains permanent data on the local disk.
B. An AutoClient contains permanent data on the local disk.
C. A diskless client does not have local root.
D. An AutoClient uses local disk for swapping and caching.
Answer: C, D
Question 7.
What command is used to create a disk group?
A. vxdisk -g
B. vxdiskgroup
C. vxdg
D. vxinit -g
Answer: C
Question 8.
The following centerplane numbering schemes represents which Sun Enterprise server model?
Slot Unit
8 16,17
10 20,21
12 24,25
14 28,29
A. Enterprise 3500
B. Enterprise 4x00
C. Enterprise 10000
D. Enterprise 6x00
Answer: D
Question 9.
How many Gigaplane slots are there on the Sun Enterprise 3500 Server chassis?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: A
Question 10:
Which description best describes the following OpenBoot PROM (OBP) test command?
test-all [device-specifier]
A. Tests the specified device. The NVRAM diag-switch? Parameter and the front panel keyswitch
control the verbosity and depth of the test command.
B. Monitors all network connections of built-in and plugged-in networking cards.
C. Identifies devices attached to the primary SCSI bus.
D. Tests all devices that have built-in self test methods.
Answer: D
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