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Question 1.
Which utility do you use to access the Remote Operator Wizard?
A. StartX
B. iMonitor
C. iManager
D. Console One
Answer: D
Explanation:
From Console One select Tools > Manage Remote Operator. The Remote Operator Wizard dialog appears.
Question 2.
In relation to ZENworks for desktop 4, which tool is used to assign the necessary rights for a user to remotely control a workstation?
A. Help desk wizard
B. Remote control wizard
C. Remote operator wizard
D. Remote management wizard
Answer: C
Explanation:
You can use the Manage Remote Operators wizard to set up the required rights for a management console user or a set of users to manage a workstation or a container.
Question 3.
Which tool can you use to remotely manage a workstation?
A. NWAdmin
B. RCONJ.EXE
C. DESKTOP4.EXE
D. Application explorer/launcher
E. The remote management agent
Answer: C
Explanation:
You can use Console One to initiate remote management session with a managed workstation. You can also use DESKTOP4.EXE.
Question 4.
Which remote management utility can you use to run applications on the managed workstation from the administrator workstation?
A. Diagnostics
B. File Transfer
C. Remote View
D. Remote Execute
E. Remote Wake Up
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Why could OpenVMS Mail be considered a security risk?
A. OpenVMS Mail allows unprivileged unauthenticated (but potentially traceable) remote users to
test for valid usernames.
B. OpenVMS Mail allows unprivileged unauthenticated remote users to see who is actively logged
on.
C. DCL command procedures embedded in a mail message will be automatically executed during
user login unless the system manager defines the system logical name MAIL$DCL_DISABLE
to TRUE.
D. Buffer overflows caused by out of specification message attachments may allow arbitrary code
to be executed without prompting the recipient.
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which two object classes can have audit events applied to them? Select two.
A. logical name tables
B. logical names
C. global sections
D. event flags
E. locks
Answer: A, C
Question 3.
On a system with user file activity across several volumes, which command or utility can a system manager use to determine what files a process currently has open across all disk volumes?
A. SHOW DEVICE/FILES/NOSYSTEM *
B. ANALYZE /PROCESS
C. MONITOR FILE_SYSTEM_CACHE/ALL
D. ANALYZE /SYSTEM
Answer: D
Question 4.
What two items should be included in an organization's Configuration Management records? Select two.
A. software assets
B. staff contact details
C. details of support contracts
D. physical assets
E. organizational chart
Answer: A, D
Question 5.
Which two are the correct descriptions for L and P when discussing a device protection mask (RWLP)? Select two.
A. P = protected (allows access to protected devices)
B. L = logical (allows access to logical blocks)
C. P =passall (allows unlimited access to specified devices)
D. P = physical (allows access to physical blocks)
E. L = local (allows access from the local system only)
F. L = limited (allows limited access to specified devices)
Answer: B, D
Question 6.
DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
You need to break into a system when none of the accounts or passwords are known. Using drag and drop, place the steps in the correct sequence to accomplish this.
Answer:
Question 7.
By default, what happens to system activity if the audit server's log destination runs out of disk space?
A. all batch jobs are suspended
B. normal operation continues, oldest audits are discarded
C. system crashes to protect integrity of auditing records
D. audit-generating user processes are suspended
Answer: D
Question 8.
The DCL command DIR 0:: fails with the error message %SYSTEM-F-LINKEXIT, network partner exited. Why could this happen?
A. no proxy
B. attempts to create a NETSERVER.LOG with a version number over 32767
C. proxy into non-existent target account
D. protection violation on login command procedures
Answer: D
Question 9.
A backup system disk copy is missing. What are two of the vulnerabilities that are introduced? Select two.
A. passwords can be directly extracted from VMS$PASSWORD_HISTORY.DATA
B. licenses can be extracted from LMF$LURT.DAT
C. protected system files and data can be read
D. usernames and their associated privileges can be listed
E. passwords can be directly extracted from SYSUAF.DAT
Answer: C, D
Question 10.
What is the purpose of "high water marking"?
A. prevent an application from writing file data beyond the disk quota limit
B. limit the use of XFC (eXtended File Cache) buffers
C. prevent reading file data beyond the point in a file which has been written
D. prevent a process from exhausting its FILLM quota
Answer: C
Question 11.
Which two mechanisms allow authentication of network access to a system without explicit login? Select two.
A. proxy account
B. Advanced Server
C. LDAP
D. active directory
E. SSH
Answer: A, E
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Question 1.
Acme Computer Corp has implemented SAN Copy to fully copy 60 LUNs from a DMX to a CX700 with the default SAN Copy settings. The copy process is taking longer than expected.
What are two [2] settings that would improve performance?
A. Increase the number of concurrent sessions
B. Increase write cache
C. Increase the throttle value
D. Increase the Reserve LUN Pool
Answer: A, C
Question 2.
Click the Exhibit button. BRM Company was using the MirrorView configuration shown in the graphic. The company decided that it did not need two sites to mirror to. BRM relocated the CLARiiON on Site B to a location without connectivity on Site A. Now BRM wants to destroy the mirrors on this CLARiiON.
What should be done?
A. Expand Remote Mirrors in Navisphere Manager, expand the mirror, right click on the
Secondary Image and select destroy
B. This cannot be done without connectivity to the other MirrorView connected system
C. Expand Remote Mirrors in Navisphere Manager, go into Engineering Mode, right click on the
Mirror and select force destroy
D. Expand Remote Mirrors in Navisphere Manager, right click on the Mirror and select destroy
Answer: A
Question 3.
FM Corp has a CX500 in Boston. It is mirrored with MirrorView over IP to a CX500 at a remote site, 20 miles away in Newton. FM Corp would like to add an NS700G to both existing CX500s.
Which statement is correct?
A. An NS700G can be attached to each the Boston and Newton site
B. An NS700G can be attached to the Boston CX500 but not the Newton site
C. An NS700G is not supported in this configuration
D. An NS700G can be attached to the Newton site but not the Boston site
Answer: C
Question 4.
JR Ltd has two networks. The CLARiiONs are connected to a 128.2.1 network. All hosts are connected to JR's corporate network of 128.1.1. Both networks are Class C, routable, and have firewall protection. All hosts in Navisphere are unmanaged.
How can a reporting error in the unmanaged host be fixed in Navisphere?
A. Open TCP port 6389 on the firewall(s)
B. Open TCP port 6390 on the firewall(s)
C. Manually register the unmanaged hosts
D. Open TCP port 443 on the firewall(s)
Answer: A
Question 5.
The DLC Company is planning to install a CX700 with SnapView. DLC has purchased 25 73 GB 10 krpm disks. DLC plans to have a 150 GB data LUN on each of five 4+1 RAID 5 groups. Your task is to provision the Reserved LUNs for SnapView Snapshots which will be used for backups.
How do you configure the LUNs?
A. Bind all the Reserved LUNs on one RAID Group. SnapView will assign them to the Source
LUNs
B. Bind all the Reserved LUNs on one RAID Group, and assign them to the Source LUNs
C. Bind the Reserved LUNs across RAID Groups. SnapView will assign them to the Source LUNs
D. Bind all the Reserved LUNs across RAID Group, and assign them to the Source LUNs
Answer: C
Question 6.
What is ALWAYS the best thing to do to optimize Reserve LUN Pool disk performance?
A. Use both FC and ATA disks
B. Use MetaLUNs for the Reserve LUN Pool
C. Only use dedicated FC disks
D. Use equal sized MetaLUNs
Answer: C
Question 7.
FDD Coffee Company has an environment consisting exclusively of RAID 5 LUNs. FDD is interested in a local backup solution. The replica used for backup should be available to recover the Source LUN in the event of corruption. The company also wishes to use local replicas for testing. Testing had a read/write ratio of 95/5. Three replicas of each Source LUN will be made and presented to three test hosts. The testing should have as little impact as possible on the production environment. The company also wishes to minimize the space requirements for the new solution.
What is the best solution?
A. Use a Clone of each Source LUN for backup. Use 3 Snapshots of each Clone for testing
B. Use 3 Clones of each Source LUN for testing, and a Snapshot of each Source LUN for
backups
C. Use 3 Snapshots of each Source LUN for testing, and an additional Snapshot of each Source
LUN for backups
D. Use 3 Clones of each Source LUN for testing, and an additional Clone of each Source LUN for
backups
Answer: A
Question 8.
Your customer, HLS, Inc, has written a script for its SnapView implementation. In the testing process, the customer finds that the backup host will not consistently see the Snapshot presented to it. The script includes the following lines:
navicli -h SPA snapview -startsession sess1 -snapshotname snap1
navicli -h SPA snapview -activatesnapshot sess1 -snapshotname snap1
What would you recommend be done?
A. Activate the Snapshot with admsnap on the production host
B. Start the Session with admsnap on the production host
C. Activate the Snapshot with admsnap on the backup host
D. Start the Session with admsnap on the backup host
Answer: C
Question 9.
LGC has been using MS SQL for its primary production database application. In the past, LGC has not experienced any major performance problems. Recently, the company added MirrorView/A to its CLARiiON CX500 arrays two reasons Disaster recovery Business continuance protection of its SQL environment Shortly thereafter, LGC's SQL database started to experience regular cycles of slower response.
What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. MirrorView/A deltaset impact on SQL LUNs
B. Intermittent network response problems
C. Insufficient Reserve LUN Pool capacity
D. SQL report queries are poorly designed
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which four [4] Clone-related operations must wait until the clone reverse synchronization is complete?
A. Add another Clone to the Clone Group
B. Create a new Clone Group on the array
C. Reverse synchronize any clone in the Clone Group
D. Delete a different Clone Group on the array
E. Remove the Clone that is reverse synchronizing
F. Synchronize any Clone in the Clone Group
Answer: A, C, E, F
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Question 1.
A developer wants to create a business interface for both local and remote usage. For performance reasons the remote interface should NOT be called by a client in the same JVM.
Which statement is required to accomplish this, assuming there is no deployment descriptor?
A. The business methods are defined in one interface which must be annotated with both @Local
and @Remote.
B. The business methods are defined twice in one interface. One method is annotated with
@Local and the other is annotated with @Remote.
C. The business methods are defined in a common interface by two other interfaces which are
annotated with @Local and @Remote respectively. The bean implements the super interface.
D. The business methods are defined in a common interface. It is extended by two interfaces,
annotated with @Local and ©Remote respectively. Both interfaces are implemented by the
bean class.
Answer: D
Question 2.
A developer is creating an entity which is mapped to a table that has a primary key constraint defined on two character columns and would like to use mapping defaults as much as possible to simplify the code.
Which two mapping options can be chosen? (Choose two.)
A. Usean @ld property that constructs a private field as a concatenation of two columns.
B. Use a separate class to map those two columns and use an @ldClass annotation to denote
The primary key field or property in the entity.
C. Use a separate @Embeddable class to map those two columns and use an @Embeddedld
annotation to denote a single primary key field or property in the entity.
D. Use a separate @Embeddable class to map those two columns and add two fields or
properties to the entity, each marked as @ld, that correspond to the fields or properties in the
embeddable class.
E. Use a separate class to map those two columns. Specify that class using @ldClass annotation
on the entity class. Add two fields or properties to the entity, each marked as @ld, that
correspond to the fields or properties in that separate class.
Answer: C, E
Question 3.
A developer maps the abstract entity class Account with concrete entity suB. Classes CreditCardAccount and SavingsAccount using the single table per class hierarchy strategy.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Instances of CreditCardAccount and SavingsAccount are stored in the same table.
B. All columns that correspond to fields declared in Account must be defined as nullable in the
database.
C. The fields declared in Account are stored in a different table than the ones declared in
CreditCardAccount and SavingsAccount.
D. All columns that correspond to fields declared in CreditCardAccount or SavingsAccount must
be defined as nullable in the database.
Answer: A, D
Question 4.
A developer writes an enterprise application and packages it into an .ear file. The application contains two persistence units defined at the .ear level with persistence unit names FooPU and BarPU. The application also contains an ejB. jar with one stateless session bean.
Which code, when added to the stateless session bean class, injects an EntityManagerFactory at runtime?
A. @PersistenceUnit
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
B. @PersistenceContext
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
C. @PersistenceUnit(unitName="BarPU")
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
D. @Resource(name="BarPU",type=EntityManagerFactory.class)
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which two are true about EJB 3.0 exception classes? (Choose two.)
A. The javax.ejb.NoSuchEJBException is an application exception.
B. The javax.ejb.EJBException extends java.lang.RuntimeException.
C. The javax.ejb.EJBTransactionRequiredException is an application exception.
D. An application exception must NOT be a subclass of java.rmi.RemoteException.
E. The javax.ejb.EJBTransactionRolledbackException is an application exception.
F. Any subclass of java.lang.RuntimeException is always considered a system exception.
Answer: B, D
Question 6.
Which statement about the combination of mapping defaults, annotations, and XML descriptors is correct?
A. All mapping annotations must always be processed by the persistence provider.
B. Some annotations, like the @Entity annotation, must always be processed by the persistence
provider.
C. The mapping information for an entity class specified by annotations and in XML descriptors
must be distinct.
D. If multiple entity listeners are defined, the order in which they are invoked can be defined or
overwritten in the XML descriptor.
Answer: D
Question 7.
An Application Assembler is given the following stateless session bean:
10. @Stateless public class MyBean implements Mylnt {
11. @RolesAllowed("SECRET")
12. public void methodA(int x) {}
13. public void methodA(String y) {}
14. public void methodB(String z) {}
15.}
A deployment descriptor is also supplied, a portion of which reads as follows:
20.
21. AGENT
22.
23. MyBean
24. methodA
25.
26.
Which statement is true?
A. A client in any role will be able to access any of the methods.
B. A client in the role "AGENT" will be able to access any of the methods.
C. A client in the role "SECRET" will be able to access any of the methods.
D. A client in the role "AGENT" will be able to access methodB and methodA(String), but not
methodA(int).
E. A client in the role "SECRET" will be able to access methodA(int) and methodB, but NOT
methodA(String).
Answer: B
Question 8.
A User entity is in a onE. to-many relationship with a Book entity.
A developer writes a query to delete users that have a first name of 'Fred' or 'Ginger', and writes the following Java Persistence query language statement:
DELETE FROM User u WHERE u.name IN ('Fred1, 'Ginger')
If the query fails with a PersistenceException, what can be the cause?
A. The syntax of the query is NOT correct.
B. The query causes a foreign key integrity constraint to be violated.
C. The database does NOT have any users with the name 'Fred' or 'Ginger'.
D. The entities corresponding to the users with the name 'Fred' or 'Ginger' are already being
managed by the persistence context.
Answer: B
Question 9.
A Java EE 5 application contains a session bean which uses a security role USER. A group called people is defined in an LDAP server.
Which two define appropriate EJB role responsibilities? (Choose two.)
A. The deployer defines and configures the LDAP realm.
B. The system administrator defines and configures the LDAP realm.
C. The deployer maps the application role USER to the LDAP group people
D. The system administrator maps the application role USER to the LDAP group people.
Answer: B, C
Question 10.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. All types of enterprise beans can be transaction-aware
B. Typically, finE. grained objects, such as an employee record, should be remotely accessible.
C. The client view of any given enterprise bean will be consistent across all EJB 3.0 containers
without the need to recompile the bean.
D. As long as a given enterprise bean is NOT recompiled, its security attributes are guaranteed to
be consistent across all EJB 3.0 containers in which it is deployed.
Answer: A, C
Question 11.
A Java Persistence application uses entities mapped to tables from two datasources in the same transaction.
What statement is correct?
A. This is NOT possible.
B. The entities must be packaged into two persistence units.
C. The entities can be packaged into a single persistence unit
D. The entities must be packaged using two different persistence.xml files.
Answer: B
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Question 1.
Given the following stateful session bean:
10. @Stateful
11. @TransactionAttributefJransactionAttributeType. SUPPORTS)
12. public class VideoBean implements Video {
13. // insert code here
14. public void methodAO {}
15.}
Assuming no other transaction-related metadata, which code can be added at Line 13 to guarantee that business method methodA will execute only if invoked with an active transaction?
A. @TransactionAttributefJ
B. @TransactionManagement(TransactionAttributeType. CONTAINER)
C. @TransactionAttribute(TransactionAttributeType. MANDATORY)
D. @TransactionAttributeO"ransactionAttributeType.REQUIRES_NEW)
Answer: C
Question 2.
Given the following client-side code that makes use of the session bean Foo:
10. @EJB Foo beanl;
11. @EJB Foo bean2; //more code here
20. booleantestl = beanl.equals(beanl);
21. booleantest2 = beanl.equals(bean2);
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. If Foo is stateful, testl is true, and test2 is true.
B. If Foo is stateful, testl is true, and test2 is false.
C. If Foo is stateless, testl is true, and test2 is true.
D. If Foo is stateful, testl is false, and test2 is false.
E. If Foo is stateless, testl is true, and test2 is false.
F. If Foo is stateless, testl is false, and test2 is false.
Answer: B, C
Question 3.
Which statement about entity manager is true?
A. A container-managed entity manager must be a JTA entity manager.
B. An entity manager injected into session beans can use either JTA or resource-local transaction
control.
C. An entity manager created by calling the EntityManagerFactory.createEntityManager method
always uses JTA transaction control.
D. An entity manager obtained through resource injection in a stateful session bean can use a
resource-local EntityTransaction for transaction control
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which statement is true about the use of a persist operation in a transaction?
A. If a user persists a detached object it always becomes managed.
B. The persist operation on an entity always cascades to its related entities.
C. If a user persists a new entity with an existing primary key the transaction will fail.
D. If a user persists a managed entity an exception may be thrown by the persist operation.
Answer: C
Question 5.
A developer writes a stateless session bean with one local business interface and with container managed transactions. All business methods have transaction attribute REQUIRED. The bean has an injected field sessionCtx of the type SessionContext.
Which two operations are allowed in a business method of the bean? (Choose two.)
A. sessionCtx. getEJBObject
B. sessionCtx.setRollbackOnly
C. sessionCtx. getMessageContext
D. sessionCtx. getBusinessObject
E. sessionCtx. getEJBLocalObject
Answer: B, D
Question 6.
A developer implements a session bean with a method doStuff which behaves differently depending on the caller's security role. Only users in security roles "ADMIN" and "USER" are allowed to call the method. Assume that there is no security-related metadata in the deployment descriptor.
Which two, taken in combination, are appropriate to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Annotate method doStuff with @PermitAII.
B. Annotate method doStuff with @RolesAllowed({"ADMIN","USER"})
C. If EJBContext.getCallerPrincipal returns role "ADMIN", implement the behavior for users in role
ADMIN.
D. If EJBContext.isCallerlnRole("ADMIN") returns true, implement the behavior defined for users
In role "ADMIN".
Answer: B, D
Question 7.
Which Java Persistence query uses the aggregate function correctly, assuming that chairs field is of type int?
A. SELECT ANY(r. chairs) FROM Room r
B. SELECT NEW Integer(MAX(r. chairs)) FROM Room r
C. SELECT r FROM Room r WHERE r.chairs > AVG(r.chairs)
D. SELECT c FROM Chair c WHERE LOCATE (c.type, lazyboy) > -1
Answer: B
Question 8.
Given:
11. ©Entity public class X{
12. @ld int id;
13. Y y;
14.}
A public class Y with NO Java Persistence annotations is defined in the same package.
Which statement is correct about these classes if NO other annotations and mapping descriptors are provided?
A. Class Y must be serializable.
B. Class Y must be marked as an entity.
C. The entity X is not defined correctly.The field y must be marked as @Lob.
D. Class Y must be accessed by a persistence application through a public interface.
Answer: A
Question 9.
A developer creates a stateless session bean. This session bean needs data from a remote system. Reading this data takes a long time. Assume that the data will NOT change during the lifetime of the bean and that the information to connect to the remote system is defined in JNDI.
Which statement describes how to manage the data correctly?
A. Read the data in the bean's constructor.
B. The data can only be read in the bean's business methods.
C. Read the data in a method which is annotated with @PrePassivate.
D. Read the data in a method which is annotated with @Post Activate.
E. Read the data in a method which is annotated with (5)PostConstruct.
Answer: E
Question 10.
An enterprise bean has security permissions set up using declarative security features. Under which two conditions can a client be guaranteed to have permission to invoke a business method on the enterprise bean? (Choose two.)
A. The Application Assembler has marked the enterprise bean method as unchecked.
B. The client's principal has been assigned a security role with permission to invoke the method.
C. The Application Assembler has set the security-identity deployment descriptor to run-as.
D. The Application Assembler has mapped all security role references using the role-link element.
Answer: A, B
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Question 1. Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code? A. 5231 B. 5232 C. 5640 D. 5680 Answer: B Question 2. Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012? A. ISDN B. Console C. Serial WAN D. 10/100 Ethernet Answer: A Question 3. True or False: The Flexible Interface Cards (FICs) in the Router 6040 can be hot swapped. A. True B. False Answer: A Question 4. True or False: The RPU can be hot swapped. A. True B. False Answer: B Question 5. What kind of modules does the Router 5232 use? A. SICs only B. MIMs only C. SICs and MIMs D. SICs and FICs Answer: B Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following modules is a daughter card that fits onto the RPU2? A. ATM B. Enhanced Serial C. Encryption Card D. Memory Expansion Answer: C Question 7. How many FIC slots does a Router 6040 have? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 Answer: B Question 8. Which of the following features is available on both the RPU and the RPU2? A. SFP Interface Slot B. CF Memory Card slot C. Gigabit Ethernet Interfaces D. Power and Fan LED indicators Answer: D Question 9. What does it indicate if the LEDs on the Power Supply of the Router 6000 are as follows? ALM (red) - OFF RUN (green) ON AC OK (red) - ON A. Power is OFF or has failed B. A Runtime error has occurred C. Power is ON and voltage is normal D. Power is ON but operating voltage is not within acceptable range Answer: C Question 10. True or False, The Router 6080 Fans have two rotational speeds. A. True B. False Answer: A
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Question 1.
An administrator has implemented QoS (prioritization) to ensure that ICA traffic is prioritized appropriately. Session Reliability is using the default port.
What should the administrator check on the firewall to verify that Session Reliability will work?
A. TCP 1494 is opened for inbound traffic to the server.
B. TCP 2598 is opened for inbound traffic to the server.
C. TCP 1494 is opened for outbound traffic from the server.
D. TCP 2598 is opened for outbound traffic from the server.
Answer: B
Question 2.
Scenario: An administrator is attempting to restart one of the servers in a Presentation Server farm. However, the IMA Service fails with an error message that states:
"Setup Could Not Start The IMA Service."
To troubleshoot the issue in this scenario, the administrator should verify that the ____________.(Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. server name has not been changed
B. startup type of the IMA Service is set to manual
C. WMI Service is started in the context of the administrator
D. print spooler service was started in the context of the system
Answer: D
Question 3.
An administrator received phone calls from users who are unable to bypass authentication when they log onto their disconnected sessions.
What is the reason for this issue?
A. NTLM v2 is not enabled in Active Directory.
B. The administrator did not enable the Streaming Client trust.
C. Smart Card authentication was not enabled on the Web Interface site.
D. The administrator did not set a policy for the application delivery method.
Answer: B
Question 4.
Users in different time zones have notified an administrator of a Presentation Server environment that the time displayed on their applications is incorrect.
How can the administrator correct this issue?
A. Configure the Client Time Zone (CTZ) rule.
B. Configure local time estimation for all users.
C. Enable the time zone rule for the server in the policy.
D. Disable the time zone rule Do not use client local time in the policy.
Answer: D
Question 5.
Scenario: Users are unable to log on to their desktops in a Presentation Server farm. The users all receive a message that states:
"You do not have access to logon to this session."
How can the administrator troubleshoot this issue?
A. Check the listener from the Presentation Server Console.
B. Check the settings on the listener port in the Terminal Services Configuration.
C. Look for the users' accounts in the User Summary Report in the Resource Manager node.
D. Look at the amount of sessions on the server in the Server Summary Report from the
Resource Manager node.
Answer: B
Question 6.
How can an administrator remove a server in a Presentation Server farm from the load balance table after an IMA Service failure?
A. Enable the appropriate Health Monitoring check.
B. Configure the IMA Service to run QFARM/LOAD upon failure.
C. Enable the Load Throttling rule within the Server Load Evaluator.
D. Change the Windows services dependencies of the IMA Service.
Answer: A
Question 7.
When restoring a backup of a Microsoft SQL data store database, what is the LAST thing that needs to be done to complete the restoration sequence?
A. Copy the DSN file to the new database server.
B. Verify that all servers are using the correct DSN.
C. Stop and restart the IMA Service on all servers in the farm.
D. Run the DSMAINT CONFIG command to change the IMA Service configuration on all servers
in the farm.
Answer: C
Question 8.
An administrator needs to deliver a video-based training application that is highly graphical on a server running Presentation Server.
What should be enabled to configure this type of application?
A. CPU optimization
B. Memory optimization
C. SpeedScreen Progressive Display
D. SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration
Answer: C
Question 9.
Scenario: An administrator just obtained a new server to add to a farm. Once the server is added to the farm it begins a trust query cycle. However, the cycle could not complete due to communication issues.
Which component does the server need to communicate with to complete the trust query cycle?
A. Data store
B. Data collector
C. Summary database
D. Database connection
Answer: A
Question 10.
Scenario: Users at a small remote office report that ICA sessions are slow and sometimes drop, especially When large print jobs are running. The administrator plans to upgrade the WAN link later this year but is currently unable to do so. The administrator has already implemented Session Reliability. The next step the administrator should take is to______________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. implement ICA Keep-Alive
B. adjust the bandwidth policies
C. select Auto Client Reconnect
D. prioritize the Print Manager Service
Answer: B
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Question 1. A Power 570 is planned to run with a dual VIOS environment. The VIOS should be equipped for maximum resilience to provide LUN access to both VIO servers. What are the minimum requirements? A. Two dual port adapters B. Four dual port adapters C. Four single port adapters D. Two single port adapters Answer: C Question 2. A customer is trying to configure a Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) on a Logical Port Host Ethernet (lp-hea) using mkdev -sea ento -vadapter ent2 -default ent2 -defaulted 1 and receive this response: 0514-040 Error initializing a device into the kernel. What can be the cause of this problem? A. A SEA can only be created on a physical network adapter B. Promiscuous mode on the virtual Ethernet adapter ent2 must be set to "On" from the HMC C. Promiscuous mode on lp-hea entO must be set to "On" from the HMC D. SEA must be a default VLAN other than 1 Answer: C Question 3. A customer has ordered a Power 570 with only 4 dual port fiber cards. Which configuration would allow 4 LPARs on this server to have multiple paths, with no single point of failure, for each SAN connection? A. One VIO server mapping disks using dual virtual SCSI adapters from the 4 adapters B. Dual VIO servers with 2 cards per server and mapping via virtual SCSI adapters C. Assign each LPAR 2 fibre ports, each from a different fibre adapter D. Assign each LPAR a fibre card and ensure each port is mapped to a separate fiber switch Answer: B Question 4. A customer is migrating from dedicated LPARs to a virtualized environment utilizing PowerVM I/O features. They have created their profiles for their two virtual 10 (VIO) servers. The First VIO server is installed and running. When trying to DLPAR the DVD/ROM the task fails on the HMC. What is the probable cause? A. /etc/hosts table on HMC is not configured B. PowerVM key is not registered C. Virtual I/O server does not support DLPAR D. Networking is not configured Answer: D Question 5. An AIX System administrator noticed that a TUNE_RESTRICTED error appeared in the error log. What is the reason for this error? A. A restricted tunable has been changed from the default value and the system was rebooted B. A system attribute, pre610tune, was set to "true" C. Someone tried to break the rule not to change /etc/tunables/nextboot D. A restricted tunable has been changed from the default value Answer: A Question 6. A customer has a Power 570 and has sent the following vmstat output to analyze: Exhibit: What should be recommend to the customer? A. The system doesn't need additional hardware B. The system needs additional network cards C. The system needs additional memory D. The system needs additional CPU Answer: A Question 7. What command is used to create an application Workload partition? A. crwpar B. wparexec C. mkwpar D. mkappwpar Answer: B Question 8. Which command should be used to permanently configure an additional network interface? A. ifconfig B. C smitty chinet C. mkdev D. Smitty mktcpip Answer: B Question 9. Which command provides output for mixed page sizes? A. mpstat B. svmon -P C. vmstat -o D. lvmstat -m Answer: B Question 10. Which tool is the most cost and time effective for specifying adapter placement on new orders? A. Tivoli Provisioning Manager B. System Planning tool + Workload estimator C. System planning tool D. HMC Answer: C
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