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Braindumps for "1D0-410" Exam

Important Questions from ITCertKeys

 

Question No: 1
Which technology enables businesses to create multimedia applications to deliver their messages?

A. Push technology
B. Pull technology
C. Media access technology
D. Neo-Web technology

Answer: A.

Explanation:
The push technology is an Internet client/server technology which can be used for multimedia applications to deliver their messages. Most traffic on the Internet use the Pull technology.

We pull the web pages from the web services when we browse the Internet. Pull technology isn’t, however, used by multimedia application when they are delivering their messages (not B). There are currently no Internet communication technologies called Media access or neo-Web (not C, D).

Question No: 2
A user at her workstation cannot reach any host on the Internet using ping, yet she can ping all the file and print servers on her local LAN. You investigate the problem, and discover that one of the following configuration parameters is missing. Which parameter is missing?

A. The default gateway
B. The IP address
C. The subnet mask
D. The DHCP server address

Answer: A.

Explanation:
The clients in this scenario are using TCP/IP. The minimal requirement for a computer configured for TCP/IP is an IP address and a subnet mask. The client is able to function on the LAN so the IP address and the subnet mask must be correct (not B, C).
The default gateway setting is used to get access outside the local LAN. This is apparently the problem in this scenario. The TCP/IP configuration settings don’t include addresses to DHCP Servers (not D).

The initial communication between DHCP clients and the DHCP Server use broadcasts so the IP address of the DHCP server is not needed.

Question No: 3
Which component is necessary to connect to the Internet?

A. An Ethernet cable
B. SMTP
C. A web browser
D. TCP/IP

Answer: D.

Explanation:
TCP/IP is the protocol of Internet. You cannot connect to Internet without it. You don’t need an Ethernet cable (not C), instead you, for example could use the telephone line to connect to the Internet. SMTP is a mail-protocol and it only supports e-mail not Internet connectivity (not B). Most people use web browsers when they are using the Internet, but it isn’t necessary.

Question No: 4
Consider the following HTML code:
<1MG SRC= “Facelmage.gif” USEMAP= “#FaceMap”>
In this code, what does the hash symbol (#) mean?

A. FaceMap is an image map defined on another page within your web site
B. Use the FaceMap image as an image map with default coordinates
C. FaceMap is an image map defined within the same HTML file
D. Apply the coordinates defined in a <FaceMap> tag to the Facelmage .gif graphic

Answer: C

Explanation:
The USEMAP= “#FaceMap” attribute with the 1MG element specifies that an image map with the name of FaceMap should be used on the image. The FaceMap image map must be defined at another location within the same HTML document.
The USEJvIAP= “#FaceMap” attribute and value specifies a local reference within the same HTML document. This image map must be included in the same HTML document (not A).

The <1MG ISMAP> tag is used to use the image as an image map (not B).
The image map must be defined with the MAP tag. HTML doesn’t support a <FaceMap> tag (not D).
Insert a reference to link the image to an image map
Insert a reference to the ‘map’ tag to tell the image which map to use.

Note:
An example of the use of an image map.
First we define a map name. We insert the same name for the map as was specified in the USEIVIAP attribute above. Then we define the map with area elements. The code is included in the same HTML file as the code from the question above.
<map name=”#facemap”>
<area shape=”rect” coords=”left-x, top-y, right-x, bottom-y”>
<area shape=”circle” coords=” center-x, center-y, radius-x”>
<area shape=”poly” coords=”xl,yl, x2,y2 x3,y3, ...“>
</map>

Question No: 5
Which choice best describes the <code>, <kbd> and <samp> tags?

A. These are examples of block level tags in HTML 4.
B. These tags are used to build HTML 4 forms.
C. These tags have been retracted from HTML 4 and should not be used.
D. These tags can make text appear in a fixed font in an HTML 4 compliant
browser windows.

Answer: D.

Explanation:
These tags are used to make text appear in a fixed font:
<CODE> denotes program code which will be displayed with a font with a fixed width. Typically Courier is used.
<KB> denotes typed text. The text will be displayed with a font with a fixed width.
<SAMP> denotes sample program output. The text will be displayed with a font with a fixed width.
The <code>, <kbd> and <samp> tags are text-level elements not block-level elements (not A).



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Braindumps for "3M0-212" Exam

Certified Enterprise LAN Specialist Final Exam v3.2

 Question 1.
Which two are switching fabric features/functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)

A. The switch fabric is hot-swappable, load-balancing fabric
B. The master switch fabric must be in slot #1
C. Redundant switch fabric remains in standby mode unless the master switch fabric fails
D. The master switch fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire chassis

Answer: A, D

Question 2.
For which customer network environment does 3Com recommend the Switch 8800 family?

A. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. Large enterprise network core
C. All of the above
D. Large enterprise distribution layer

Answer: B

Question 3.
Which two queuing features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)

A. The switch only supports Strict Priority (SP) queuing
B. Eight output queues per port
C. The switch supports multiple queuing algorithms (i.e., Strict Priority (SP) queuing, Weighted 
    Random Early Discard)
D. QoS policies are based on Layer 2 packet information only

Answer: B, C

Question 4.
Which two are Quality of Service (QoS) features of the Switch 5500 family? (Choose two.)

A. Eight hardware queues per switch
B. Eight hardware queues per port
C. Configurable queue processing
D. Queue priority is based only on FirstIn First Out (FIFO) algorithm

Answer: B, C

Question 5.
Which two describe the attributes of the Switch 8800 switch fabrics? (Choose two.)

A. Upon failover, the slave switch fabric must learn and rebuild all routing tables
B. Switch must be powered off to replace a switch fabric
C. The slave switch fabric provides active, load-balancing data switching
D. Switch fabric load balancing is enabled by the user

Answer: C, D

Question 6.
DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Drag each switch family to the recommended customer environment.

Answer:

Question 7.
Which three application-availability techniques should be used to ensure high network availability? (Choose three.)

A. Protect resources with network security
B. Enforce techniques primarily at the network core
C. Block rogue applications
D. Identify and prioritize mission-critical applications

Answer: A, C, D

Question 8.
Which component of XRN technology is defined as: "An advanced routing implementation that allows multiple interconnected switches in an XRN solution to behave as a single active routing entity"?

A. XRN Interconnect
B. Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA)
C. Distributed Device Management (DDM)
D. Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)

Answer: D

Question 9.
Which two are benefits of the Switch 5500 XRN Distributed Device Management (DDM) support? (Choose two.)

A. Supports up to 12 switches in a single stack
B. All switches within a stack act as a single logical device
C. Resilient XRN architecture provides management access if any switch fails in a stack
D. Creates a 12Gbps full-duplex link between switches

Answer: B, C

Question 10.
Which Switch 5500 model(s) supports a 96 Gbps full-duplex XRN stacking connection?

A. Switch 5500G-EI
B. All of the above
C. Switch 5500-EI
D. Switch 5500-SI

Answer: A



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Braindumps for "642-566" Exam

Security Solutions for Systems Engineers (SSSE)

 Question 1.
You are the network consultant from Your company. Please point out two requirements call for the deployment of 802.1X.

A. Authenticate users on switch or wireless ports
B. Grant or Deny network access at the port level, based on configured authorization policies
C. Allow network access during the queit period
D. Verify security posture using TACAS+

Answer: A, B

Question 2.
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a dynamic routing protocol for use in Internet Protocol (IP) networks. An OSPF router on the network is running at an abnormally high CPU rate. By use of different OSPF debug commands on Router, the network administrator determines that router is receiving many OSPF link state packets from an unknown OSPF neighbor, thus forcing many OSPF path recalculations and affecting router's CPU usage. 

Which OSPF configuration should the administrator enable to preent this kind of attack on the Router?

A. Multi-Area OSPF
B. OSPF stub Area
C. OSPF MD5 Authentication
D. OSPF not-so-stubby Area

Answer: C

Question 3.
Which one of the following Cisco Security Management products is able to perform (syslog) events normalization?

A. Cisco IME
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco ASDM
D. Cisco Security MARS

Answer: D

Question 4.
Can you tell me which one of the following platforms has the highest IPSec throughput and can support the highest number of tunnels?

A. Cisco 6500/7600 + VPN SPA
B. Cisco ASR 1000-5G
C. Cisco 7200 NPE-GE+VSA
D. Cisco 7200 NPE-GE+VAM2+

Answer: A

Question 5.
Which two methods can be used to perform IPSec peer authentication? (Choose two.)

A. One-time Password
B. AAA
C. Pre-shared key
D. Digital Certificate

Answer: C, D

Question 6.
Cisco Security Agent is the first endpoint security solution that combines zero-update attack protection, data loss prevention and signature-based antivirus in a single agent. This unique blend of capabilities defends servers and desktops against sophisticated day-zero attacks and enforces acceptable-use and compliance policies within a simple management infrastructure. 

What are three functions of CSA in helping to secure customer environments?

A. Control of executable content
B. Identification of vulnerabilities
C. Application Control
D. System hardening

Answer: A, C, D

Question 7.
Cisco Secure Access Control Server (ACS) is an access policy control platform that helps you comply with growing regulatory and corporate requirements. 

Which three of these items are features of the Cisco Secure Access Control Server?

A. NDS
B. RSA Certificates
C. LDAP
D. Kerberos

Answer: A, B, C

Question 8.
Observe the following protocols carefully, which one is used to allow the utilization of Cisco Wide Area Application Engines or Cisco IronPort S-Series web security appliances to localize web traffic patterns I the network and to enable the local fulfillment of content requests?

A. TLS
B. DTLS
C. WCCP
D. HTTPS

Answer: C

Question 9.
Which one is not the factor can affect the risk rating of an IPS alert?

A. Relevance
B. Attacker location
C. Event severity
D. Signature fidelity

Answer: B

Question 10.
For the following items, which two are differences between symmetric and asymmetric encryption algorithms? (Choose two.)

A. Asymmetric encryption is slower than symmetric encryption
B. Asymmetric encryption is more suitable than symmetric encryption for real-time bulk encryption
C. Symmetric encryption is used in digital signatures and asymmetric encryption is used in 
    HMACs
D. Asymmetric encryption requires a much larger key size to achieve the same level of protection 
    as asymmetric encryption

Answer: A, D



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Braindumps for "642-642" Exam

Quality of Service (QOS)

 Question 1. DRAG DROP
Drop
 
Answer:
 

Question 2.
Which of the following configurations requires the use of hierarchical policy maps?

A. the use of nested class-maps with class-based marking
B. the use of a strict priority-class queue within CBWFQ
C. the use of class-based WRED within a CBWFQ class queue
D. the use of CBWFQ inside class-based shaping
E. the use of both the bandwidth and shape statements within a CBWFQ class queue

Answer: D

Explanation:
Class-based weighted fair queuing (CBWFQ) extends the standard WFQ functionality to provide support for user-defined traffic classes. By using CBWFQ, network managers can define traffic classes based on several match criteria, including protocols, access control lists (ACLs), and input interfaces. A FIFO queue is reserved for each class, and traffic belonging to a class is directed to the queue for that class. More than one IP flow, or "conversation", can belong to a class. Once a class has been defined according to its match criteria, the characteristics can be assigned to the class. To characterize a class, assign the bandwidth and maximum packet limit. The bandwidth assigned to a class is the guaranteed bandwidth given to the class during congestion. CBWFQ assigns a weight to each configured class instead of each flow. This weight is proportional to the bandwidth configured for each class. Weight is equal to the interface bandwidth divided by the class bandwidth. Therefore, a class with a higher bandwidth value will have a lower weight.

By default, the total amount of bandwidth allocated for all classes must not exceed 75 percent of the available bandwidth on the interface. The other 25 percent is used for control and routing traffic. The queue limit must also be specified for the class. The specification is the maximum number of packets allowed to accumulate in the queue for the class. Packets belonging to a class are subject to the bandwidth and queue limits that are configured for the class.

Question 3.
In a managed CE scenario, the customer's network is supporting VoIP and bulk file transfers. 

According to the best practices, which QoS mechanisms should be applied on the WAN edge CEPE 56-kbps Frame Relay link on the CE outbound direction?

A. LLQ, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
B. CBWFQ, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
C. WRR, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
D. WRR, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
E. LLQ, CB-WRED, CB-Policing, and CB-TCP and CB-RTP header compressions
F. CBWFQ, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, CB-Policing, and FRTS

Answer: A

Explanation:
1. WRED can be combined with CBWFQ. In this combination CBWFQ provides a guaranteed percentage of the output bandwidth, WRED ensures that TCP traffic is not sent faster than CBWFQ can forward it.
The abbreviated configuration below shows how WRED can be added to a policy-map specifying CBWFQ:
Router(config)# policy-map prioritybw Router(config-pmap)# class class-default fair-queue
Router(config-pmap-c)# class prioritytraffic bandwidth percent 40 random-detect
The random-detect parameter specifies that WRED will be used rather than the default tail-drop action.
2. The LLQ feature brings strict Priority Queuing (PQ) to CBWFQ. Strict PQ allows delay-sensitive data such as voice to be sent before packets in other queues are sent. Without LLQ, CBWFQ provides WFQ based on defined classes with no strict priority queue available for real-time traffic. For CBWFQ, the weight for a packet belonging to a specific class is derived from the bandwidth assigned to the class. Therefore, the bandwidth assigned to the packets of a class determines the order in which packets are sent. All packets are serviced fairly based on weight and no class of packets may be granted strict priority. This scheme poses problems for voice traffic that is largely intolerant of delay, especially variation in delay. For voice traffic, variations in delay introduce irregularities of transmission manifesting as jitter in the heard conversation. LLQ provides strict priority queuing for CBWFQ, reducing jitter in voice conversations.

LLQ enables the use of a single, strict priority queue within CBWFQ at the class level. Any class can be made a priority queue by adding the priority keyword. Within a policy map, one or more classes can be given priority status. When multiple classes within a single policy map are configured as priority classes, all traffic from these classes is sent to the same, single, strict priority queue.

Although it is possible to queue various types of real-time traffic to the strict priority queue, it is strongly recommend that only voice traffic be sent to it because voice traffic is well-behaved, whereas other types of real-time traffic are not. Moreover, voice traffic requires that delay be nonvariable in order to avoid jitter. Real-time traffic such as video could introduce variation in delay, thereby thwarting the steadiness of delay required for successful voice traffic transmission.

When the priority command is specified for a class, it takes a bandwidth argument that gives maximum bandwidth in kbps. This parameter specifies the maximum amount of bandwidth allocated for packets belonging to the class configured. The bandwidth parameter both  guarantees bandwidth to the priority class and restrains the flow of packets from the priority class. In the event of congestion, policing is used to drop packets when the bandwidth is exceeded. Voice traffic queued to the priority queue is UDP-based and therefore not adaptive to the early packet drop characteristic of WRED. Because WRED is ineffective, the WRED random-detect command cannot be used with the priority command. In addition, because policing is used to drop packets and a queue limit is not imposed, the queue-limit command cannot be used with the priority command.

Question 4.
Refer to the partial router configuration. Which two of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
 

A. Regardless of destination IP address, all traffic sent to Mac address 1.2.3 will be subject to 
    policing
B. All traffic from a server with the IP address of 147.23.54.21 will be subject to policing.
C. Any IP packet will be subject to policing.
D. The class-map class1 command will set the qos-group value to 4 for all IP packets.
E. Only those packets which satisfy all of the matches in class1 and class2 will be subject to 
    policing.
F. The configuration is invalid since it refers to a class map within a different class.

Answer: A, B

Explanation:
The class-map command is used to define a traffic class. The purpose of a traffic class is to classify traffic that should be given a particular QoS. A traffic class contains three major elements, a name, a series of match commands, and if more than one match command exists in the traffic class, an instruction on how to evaluate these match commands. The traffic class is named in the class-map command line. For example, if the class-map cisco command is entered while configuring the traffic class in the CLI, the traffic class would be named cisco. 
Switch(config)# class-map cisco Switch(config-cmap)#
match commands are used to specify various criteria for classifying packets. Packets are checked to determine whether they match the criteria specified in the match commands. If a packet matches the specified criteria, that packet is considered a member of the class and is forwarded according to the QoS specifications set in the traffic policy. Packets that fail to meet any of the matching criteria are classified as members of the default traffic class and will be subject to a separate traffic policy

The policy-map command is used to create a traffic policy. The purpose of a traffic policy is to configure the QoS features that should be associated with the traffic that has been classified in a user-specified traffic class. A traffic policy contains three elements: Policy Name Traffic class specified with the class command QoS policies to be applied to each class The policy-map shown below creates a traffic policy named policy1. The policy applies to all traffic classified by the previously defined traffic-class "cisco" and specifies that traffic in this example should be allocated bandwidth of 3000 kbps. Any traffic which does not belong to the class "cisco" forms part of the catch-all class-default class and will be given a default bandwidth of 2000 kbps. Switch(config)# policy-map policy1 Switch(config-pmap)# class cisco Switch(config-pmap-c)#
bandwidth 3000 Switch(config-pmap-c)# exit Switch(config-pmap)# class class-default
Switch(config-pmap-c)# bandwidth 2000 Switch(config-pmap)# exit

Question 5.
In an unmanaged CE router implementation, how does the service provider enforce the SLA?

A. by marking on the CE to PE link and using CBWFQ and CB-WRED on the PE to P link
B. by marking on the CE to PE link and using class-based policing on the PE to P link
C. by using class-based policing on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate
D. by using class-based random discard on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate

Answer: C

Explanation:
In an unmanaged Router Implementation, Service provider can enforce SLA By using class based policy on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate.

Question 6.
When configuring a Cisco Catalyst switch to accommodate an IP phone with an attached PC, it is desired that the trust boundary be set between the IP phone and the switch. 

Which two commands on the switch are recommended to set the trust boundary as described? (Choose two.)

A. mls qos trust device cisco-phone
B. switchport priority extend trust
C. mls qos trust cos
D. no mls qos trust dscp
E. mls qos trust extend [cos value]
F. mls qos cos 5

Answer: A, C

Explanation:
mls qos trust [ cos ] :
B y default, the port is not trusted. All traffic is sent through one egress queue. Use the cos keyword to classify ingress packets with the packet CoS values. The egress queue assigned to the packet is based on the packet CoS value. When this keyword is entered, the traffic is sent through the four QoS queues. Normally, the QoS information from a PC connected to an IP Phone should not be trusted. This is because the PC's applications might try to spoof CoS or Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) settings to gain premium network service. In this case, use the cos keyword so that the CoS bits are overwritten to value by the IP Phone as packets are forwarded to the switch. If CoS values from the PC cannot be trusted, they should be overwritten to a value of 0.

Question 7.
According to the best practices, in a service provider network, which statement is true as related to the QoS policy that should be implemented on the inbound provider (P) to provider (P) router link?

A. In the DiffServ model, all ingress and egress QoS processing are done at the network edge 
    (for example, PE router), so no input or output QoS policy will be needed on the P to P link.
B. Class-based marking should be implemented because it will be needed for the class-based 
    queuing that will be used on the P router output.
C. Traffic policing should be implemented to rate-limit the ingress traffic into the P router.
D. Because traffic should have already been policed and marked on the upstream ingress PE 
    router, no input QoS policy is needed on the P to P link.

Answer: D

Question 8. 
DRAG DROP
Drop
 

Answer:
 

Question 9. HOTSPOT
HOTSPOT
 

 



Answer:
 

Explanation:
 

Question 10.
A Frame Relay interface has been configured for adaptive shaping with a minimum rate of 15 kbps. The current maximum transmit rate is 56 kbps. If three FECNs are received over the next 4 seconds, what will be the maximum transmit rate after the last FECN has been received?

A. 10 kbps
B. 37 kbps
C. 7 kbps
D. 15 kbps
E. 28 kbps
F. 56 kbps

Answer: F

Explanation:
User specified traffic shaping can be performed on a Frame Relay interface or sub-interface with the traffic-shape rate command. The traffic-shape adaptive command can be specified to allow the shape of the traffic to dynamically adjust to congestion experienced by the Frame-Relay provider. This is achieved through the reception of Backward Explicit Congestion Notifications (BECN) from the Frame Relay switch. When a Frame Relay switch becomes congested it sends BECNs in the direction the traffic is coming from and it generates Forward Explicit Congestion Notifications (FECN) in the direction the traffic is flowing to. If the traffic-shape fecn-adapt command is configured at both ends of the link, the far end will reflect FECNs as BECNs. BECNs notify the sender to decrease the transmission rate. If the traffic is one-way only, such as multicast traffic, there is no reverse traffic with BECNs to notify the sender to slow down. Therefore, when a DTE device receives a FECN, it first determines if it is sending any data in return. If it is sending return data, this data will get marked with a BECN on its way to the other DTE device. However, if the DTE device is not sending any data, the DTE device can send a Q.922 TEST RESPONSE message with the BECN bit set.


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Citrix Password Manager 4.5: Administration

 Question 1.
Which action can an administrator take to disable data integrity on a central store containing pre-existing data that is signed?

A. Re-sign the data with the signing tool
B. Unsign the data with the Data Integrity node in the console
C. Use the CTXSIGNDATA -u command prompt
D. Use the CTXUNSIGNDATA -u command prompt

Answer: C

Question 2.
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. One of your administrators in an environment with multiple operating systems is considering the implementation of the Hot Desktop feature. 

On which two operating systems can the administrator install Hot Desktop? (Choose two.)

A. Microsoft Windows NT 4.0
B. Microsoft Windows XP Professional (64-bit)
C. Microsoft Windows XP Embedded
D. Microsoft Windows XP Professional (32-bit)

Answer: C, D

Question 3.
Which statement is true regarding the Password Manager Self-Service Registration Wizard?

A. Each time the user starts his or her device, the wizard opens.
B. The wizard provides a demonstration of the product.
C. After a user enters the required enrollment information, the wizard will never appear again.
D. If a user closes the wizard without entering any information, the wizard will appear when the 
    agent software is restarted.

Answer: D

Question 4.
Which step is required after installing the agent software and why?

A. Run the Microsoft installer package with the suppress option so that the graphical identification 
    and authentication (GINA) DLL can be installed.
B. Restart/refresh the device so that the graphical identification and authentication (GINA) DLL 
    can be installed.
C. Restart/refresh the device so that licensing parameters can be applied.
D. Run the Microsoft installer package with the suppress option so that licensing parameters can 
    be applied.
E. Upgrade the central store, because otherwise you can only use previous versions of the agent 
    software to work with the central store.

Answer: B

Question 5.
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. One of your administrators has a .NET application where the Control IDs are not statically defined and each time the application launches, the Control IDs change. 

How should an administrator configure this application in a Password Manager 4.5 environment according to Citrix best practice?

A. Define the application using Send Special Keys instead of Control IDs
B. Enable Advanced Settings >> Use control ordinal numbers
C. Create a special Application Action Extension for the application
D. Enable application auto-detection within a user configuration

Answer: B

Question 6.
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. One of your administrators wants to install and configure the Password Manager Service. The configuration requires a Server Certificate from the company Certificate Authority, which is a server in the same domain as the Password Manager Service server. The Administrator will also have to correctly install the certificate components in order to facilitate SSL communications between the Password Manager Service and its clients. 

What must be installed for the successful completion of the configuration?

A. The Certificate Authority root certificate wherever a client of the Password Manager Service is 
    installed
B. The Certificate Authority root certificate as needed by the Password Manager Service Client
C. A separate user certificate wherever a client of the Password Manager Service is installed
D. The Server Certificate on the Certificate Authority machine

Answer: A

Question 7.
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. One of your administrators created an application definition and wants to test the password change for the application. Everything is working until the administrator selects "Create Your Own Password" in the Password Change Wizard. The administrator types "111" and confirms the password. The application returns a message that the password is not accepted because a minimum of 8 characters, including letters and numbers is required. 

Which two steps can an administrator complete in order to solve this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Verify that the password policy for this application requires 8 characters, including letters and 
    numbers.
B. Verify that a form definition for Failed Password Change was created and that this form 
    requires 8 characters, including letters and numbers.
C. Select choose a system-generated password in the Password Change Wizard when you test 
    the password change function.
D. Verify that the correct password policy was assigned to this application definition within the 
    user configuration.

Answer: A, D

Question 8.
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. One of your administrators in an environment with multiple operating systems is considering the implementation of the Hot Desktop feature. 

On which two operating systems can the administrator install Hot Desktop? (Choose two.)

A. Microsoft Windows NT 4.0
B. Microsoft Windows XP Professional (64-bit)
C. Microsoft Windows XP Professional (32-bit)
D. Microsoft Windows XP Embedded

Answer: C, D

Question 9.
Which user account requires rights and privileges to manage communication among the central store, automatic key recovery, and the Self-Service module?

A. Self-Service
B. Data proxy
C. Automatic key recovery
D. XTE Service

Answer: B

Question 10.
In ITCertKeys.com, 15 laptops are used by the remote workforce for field work. Password Manager is installed and named user licensing is implemented on the laptops. One laptop is currently missing and its named user license is checked out. 

Which statement is true regarding the process for checking in the named user license of the missing laptop?

A. The administrator will need to restart the license server or restart the Citrix Licensing Service.
B. The administrator will need to use the LMCONFIG -r command on the license server and 
    indicate the hostname of the affected laptop.
C. The license will be checked in automatically once it expires.
D. The administrator will need to use the License Return function in the License Management 
    Console and indicate the hostname of the affected laptop.

Answer: C


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Braindumps for "70-526" Exam

TS: Microsoft .NET Framework 2.0 - Windows-Based Client Development

 Question 1.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS002 as developing collateral. You have received instructions to make sure that the PictureBox control's properties cannot be changed with a logo that you have added to the PictureBox in the designer of the form base. Before the time you have added a form to the Microsoft Windows Forms Control Library project and add a PictureBox control to the form. The form is presenting CertKiller.com's logo.

What action should you take?

A. You should set the Locked property to False.
B. You should set the Locked property to True.
C. You should set the Modifiers property to Private.
D. You should set the Modifiers property to Protected.

Answer: C

Explanation: 
When you set the Modifiers property to Private, the value will show that only the base form can modify the control.

Incorrect Answers:
A: You should not set it to False, because the control can be moved and resized.
B: If you set the property to True the control cannot be removed of resized. .
D: If you set the Modifiers property to Protected, the value will show that the base form and any of the form yet to come can modify the control.

Question 2.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS005 as developing collateral. You have just included a DateTimePicker control to a form. You then set the format property to Time. During the cause of the day, you check how the DateTimePicker control is working, and learnt that it does not allow the ITCertKeys.com users to change the selected time.

What should you do to change the control so that it will allow the ITCertKeys.com uses to change the selected time?

A. You should set the ShowUpDown property to True.
B. You should set the ShowSelectBox property to True.
C. You should set the Visible property to False.
D. You should set the Checked property to False.

Answer: A

Explanation: 
The ShowUpDown property is by default set on False. You should set it on True. On False it will show the DateTimePicker must simulate a drop-down control. This setting will allow the users to set the MonthCalender. If it is set to True the users can select the time.

Incorrect Answers:
B: The ShowSelectBox will not resolve the problem. This will show if a CheckBox should be displayed on the DateTimePicker.
C: If you set the Visible property to False, it will hide the DateTimePicker. .
D: You should not set the Checked property to False. If this is set on True, a CheckBox control will be displayed on the DateTimePicker.

Question 3.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS002 as developing collateral. The manager of ITCertKeys.com wants to have a borderless form with the background shown in the exhibit.
 

When the form is view, the manager named Rory Allen does not want the maroon area to be visible. He only wants the blue to be visible when the form is displayed. 

Which of the following code segments should be used?

A. this.TransparencyKey = Color.Maroon;
B. this.BackColor = Color.Maroon;
C. this.TransparencyKey = Color.CornflowerBlue
D. this.BackColor = Color.Transparent;

Answer: A

Explanation: 
The TransparencyKey = Color.Maroon specify the color that the transparent represents the area on the form. With this setting the blue will respond to the mouse.

Incorrect Answers:
B: You should not use the BackColor = Color.Maroon. This will determine the background color of the form.
C: You should not use this code segment. The manager does not wan the blue area to be transparent.
D: You should not use the BackColor = Color.Transparent. The manager does not want the background to be transparent.

Question 4.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You have configured three columns to a form and add a TableLayoutPanel to the form. You want the two side columns to have a fix width of 200 pixels each and anchor the four edges of the form to the control. A ITCertKeys.com manager wants the center column to fill the remaining space, when ever the form is resized. You need to change the ColumnStyle instance that represents the center column? 

How should you set the ColumnStyle instance's Size Type property?

A. Set it to AutoSize and the Width property to 100F.
B. Set it to Absolute and the Width property to 100F.
C. Set it to Percent and the Width property to 100F.
D. Set it to AutoSize and the Width property to 0F.

Answer: C

Explanation: 
This setting will show that the column should fill the remaining space.

Incorrect Answers:
A: This setting will allow the column to be sized enough so that not any of its child controls are clipped. In this setting the middle will not occupy the remaining free space. 
B: If you set it to Absolute, the value of the Width property will show the number of pixels for the column.
D: You need to set the ColumnStyle instance's Size Type property to AutoSize and the Width property to 100F.

Question 5.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You have added a SplitContainer control named ITCertKeysSplitContainer to a form. You then left the control to the default properties. To the right-most container of the SplitContainer control, you need to add a PropertyGrid.

Which of the following code segments should you use?

A. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
    Panel rightPanel = [Panel] ITCertKeysSplitContainer.GetContainerControl[];
    rightPanel.ControlAdd[porpertyGrid];
B. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
    Panel rightPanel = [Panel] ITCertKeysSplitContainer.GetNextControl[propertyGrid, true];
    rightPanel.ControlAdd[porpertyGrid];
C. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
    ITCertKeysSplitContainer.Container.Add[propertyGrid, "RightPanel"];
D. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
    ITCertKeysSplitContainer.Panel2.Control.Add[propertyGrid];

Answer: D

Explanation: 
An area can be divided into two containers, which is separated by a movable bar, if you use the SplitContainer control. When the two Panels are created, the left one is the Panel1 and the right is Panel2. You are adding a panel so it will be on the right. You then need to specify Panel2.

Incorrect Answers:
A, B, C: You should not use the Add method of the SplitContainer.Container to add the PropertyGrid. You also should not pass a PropertyGrid instance to the GetNextControl method to return a Panel instance. This will actually retrieve the next tab-ordered control given the current control. You also should not call the GetContainerControl method to return a Panel instance. This will return the logical container of the SplitContainer control.

Question 6.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You are busy to develop a Microsoft Windows Forms exam delivery application. This is going to be used to access the content of the exam via the Internet. A WebBrowser named testbrowser is added to the control to a form named ITCertKeysForm, which is define as follows:
[PermissionSet[SecurityAction.Demand, Name="FullTrust"]]
[System.Runtime.InteropServices.ComVisible[true]]
public ITCertKeysForm : Form
{
public ITCertKeysForm[]
{
InitializeComponent[];
}
public void Expire[]
{
}
}
The JavaScript-based timer that is used by the Web site for the exam has a function to inform the exam delivery application when the time has expired for the exam, which is the following:
window.external.Expire[];

What should you do to make sure that the Expire method of ITCertKeysForm is called when the JavaScrip function is carry out? 

A. You should set the Document.DomDocument property of the browser instance to the current 
    instance of the ITCertKeysForm class.
B. You should set the ObjectForScripting property of the browser instance to the current instance 
    of the ITCertKeysForm class.
C. You should call the AttachEventHandler of the Document property of the browser instance.
D. You should call the ExecCommand method of the Document property of the browser instance.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
You must set the ObjectForScripting for the browser instance to the current instance of the ITCertKeysForm class.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The property of the Document.DomDocument represents the true DOM object of an HTML document.
C: The AttachEventHandler allows you to attach a HTML Document Object Model event to an event handler.
D: The ExecCommand method allows you to execute commands against DOM documents.

Question 7.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS003 as developing collateral. You have received instructions to make sure that the PictureBox will display dynamically loaded images.

Which property will display a static image if any dynamic image fails to load?

A. BackgroundImage
B. Image
C. ErrorImage
D. InitailImage

Answer: C

Explanation: 
The ErrorImage property specifies the image that should be displayed. This will happened only if the image that you are trying to load dynamically fails.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The BackgroundImage property specifies a background image which is used by the control.
B: The Image property specifies the image you want the PictureBox control to display.
D: The InitailImage specifies the image you want the PictureBox control to display while the other one is loading.

Question 8.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You are developing a Web service for new updates to query automatically, by use of a Microsoft Windows Forms application. You then add a NotifyIcon component named ITCertKeysnotify to the application's main form. Whenever a new update is available you want the following balloon tip to display as seen in the exhibit for 5 seconds.
 

Which segment should you use to write a code to download the updates if the users click the balloon tip?

A. ITCertKeysnotify.BallonTipClick +=delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
ITCertKeysnotify.ShowBallonTip[5000, "New Update Available"; "Click here to download"
, ToolTipIcon.Info];
B. ITCertKeysnotify.ShowBallonTip[5];
   ITCertKeysnotify.BalloonTipIcon = ToolTipIcon.Info;
ITCertKeys.Balloon TipTitle = "New Update Available";
ITCertKeys.BalloonTipText = "Click here to download";
ITCertKeys.Click += delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
C. ITCertKeysnotify.BalloonTipIcon = ToolTipIcon.Info;
   ITCertKeys.Balloon TipTitle = "New Update Available";
ITCertKeys.BalloonTipText = "Click here to download";
ITCertKeys.Click += delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
ITCertKeysnotify.ShowBallonTip[5000];
D. ITCertKeysnotify.ShowBallonTip[5, New Update Available", "Click here to download",
   ToolTipIcon.Info];
ITCertKeys.BalloonTipClick += delegate
{
// Download the updates
}

Answer: A

Explanation: 
You should use an event handler, attach the BalloonTipClicked to the event and call the ShowBalloon Tip method of the NotifyIcon class. When a user clicks a balloon tip, a BalloonTipClicked event is raised.

Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: You should not attach the BalloonTipClicked even to an event handler after you have called the ShowBalloonTip method. Also note that the event is raised when the icon is clicked and not the balloon tip.

Question 9.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You are busy adding a MenuStrip control, which has an instance of a ToolStripMenu item named testjobItem, to a form in a Microsoft Windows Forms application. This item's display text is Job. You have received instructions to add two menu items to the Job menu item. The first item's display text should be Create New Job, and the second one is Run Job.

Which code segment should you use to programmatically add the two menu items?

A. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
jobItem.Container.Add[createNewJobItem];
jobItem.Container.Add[runJobItem];
B. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
jobItem.Owner.Items.Add[createNewJobItem];
jobItem.Owner.Items.Add[runJobItem];
C. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem[] items = new ToolStripMenuItem[]{create NewJobItem,
runJobItem}
jobItem.DropDownItems.AddRange[items];
D. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem[] items = new ToolStripMenuItem[]{create NewJobItem,
runJobItem}
jobItem.Owner.Items.AddRange[items];

Answer: C

Explanation: 
For the jobItem instance you should call the AddRange. The property of the DropDownItems represents a collection of child items of the jobItem instance, which allows you to add the two items to the job menu item.

Incorrect Answers:
A: This property returns an instance of IContainer, which represents a logical container for other components.
B: The Owner property returns the Menu script instance that owns the ToolStripMenuItem instance.
D: This action will add the two new menu at the same level as the Job menu item.

Question 10.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS050 as developing collateral. You were busy with a task to add a ContextMenuStrip control to a form.

What should you do to display a custom control as a menu item of the ContextMenuStrip control?

A. Add a ToolstripContainer control to the form and add the custom control to the Controls 
    collection residing on the toolStripContainer control. You should then add the ContextMeniStrip 
    control to the controls of the ToolStripContainer control.
B. Of ToolStripControlHost, create an instance and specify your custom control instance as a 
    parameter to the conductor. You should then the ToolStripControlHost instance to the Items 
    collection of the ContextMeniStrip control.
C. Add a ToolstripContainer control to the form and add the custom control to the Controls 
    collection residing on the toolStripContainer control. You should then add the 
    ToolstripContainer control to the controls of the ContextMeniStrip controls.
D. Of ToolStripControlHost, create an instance and specify your custom control instance as a 
    parameter to the conductor. You should then the ContextMeniStrip controls to the collection of 
    the ToolStripControlHost instance.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
The ToolStripControlHost class to host a custom control as a menu item in the ContextMeniStrip. You should also the custom control instance as the parameter to the constructor.

Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D: The ToolstripContainer should not be used to reach your goal. Furthermore, you cannot host a ToolstripContainer control as the menu item in a ContextMeniStrip controls.



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Braindumps for "350-040" Exam

CCIE Storage Networking

 Question 1.
Which statements are true about a cascaded FICON topology? Select three.

A. It requires Fabric binding to be configured in all the switches.
B. Only one hope (ie:traversing 2 switchs) is supported.
C. Separate ISLs must be used dedicated to FICON traffic.
D. Two byte link addressing as defined in FC-SB2, is mandatory.

Answer: A, B, D

Question 2.
MDS3 _ 9509# install all system bootflash:m9500-sf1 ek9-mz.1.3.4.bin kickstart 
bootflash:m9500-sfek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
Verifying image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Verifying image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "sic"version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "ips" version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "system" version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "kickstart"version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "loader" version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Compatibility check is done:
Module bootable impact install-type reason
--------- --------- ---------- ------- ----- ---------
2 yes non-disruptive rolling
3 yes disruptive rolling Hitless upgrade is not supported
5 yes non-disruptive reset
6 yes non-disruptive reset
Images will be upgraded according to following table:
Module Image Running-Version Net-Version Upg-Required
--------- ------- ---------- ----------- ------ ----------
2 slc 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
2 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no
3 slc 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
3 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no
5 system 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
5 kickstart 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
5 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no
5 loader 1.2(2) 1.2(2) no
6 system 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
6 kickstart 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
6 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no
6 loader 1.2(2) 1.2(2) no
Do you want to continue with the installation (y/n)? [n]

What is the reason the upgrade would not be hit-less for the entire switch, above?

A. The supervisor module requires a BIOS upgrade, which is disruptive.
B. The "rolling-upgrade" for module 2 requires a second "slc" to be hit-less.
C. Module 3 is an IPS-8 card, which does not support non-disruptive downgrades.
D. Nodule 3 is an IPS-8 and the switch does not have a second IPS-8 card for route diversity 
    which could provide a "stable" upgrade.
E. No reason - the upgrade is non-disruptive and hit-less.

Answer: C

Question 3.
Which methods can be used to control Iscsi INITIATOR ACCESS TO VIRTUAL TARGETS? Select three.

A. Zoning
B. Specifying on which Gigabitethernet port the virtual target is advertised.
C. Setting up Iscsi PROXY MODE FOR THE INITIATORS
D. Specifying which IP subnet virtual target can be accessed
E. Enabling role-based access control.

Answer: A, B, C

Question 4.
In a scenario with three lSLs between two switches, a single host in VSAN 5 on switch A, and a single storage device on switch B in the same VSAN. 

What would be the effect on the lSLs if Flow based load balancing option was enabled in VSAN 5?

A. Each subsequent frame will use the least utilized link, based on FCC.
B. Each subsequent frame will use a different link.
C. All frames between source and destination would follow same link for given flow.
D. Flow based load balancing is not enabled for an individual VSAN.

Answer: C

Flow based load balancing : all frames between source and destination would follow same link for given flow.

Question 5.
Which organization produce standards related to SCSI, Fiber Channel or Fiber Channel protocol? Select two.

A. SNIA
B. T11 Committee
C. Cisco Systems
D. T10 Committee
E. T12 Committee

Answer: B, D

=> T11 for fiber channel, T10 for SCSI

Question 6.
What is the User-specified VSAN Ids range?

A. 1-4093
B. 2-4093
C. 2-4094
D. 2-4092

Answer: B

=> user-specific VSAN 2-4093

Question 7.
What can be configured on a FCIP Profile?

A. Max and Min bandwidth, peer-info, compression ratio
B. Passive mode, peer-info, compression ratio
C. TCP port number, sack-enable, Max and Min bandwidth
D. Sack-enable, TCP port number peer-info
E. TCP port number, write accelerator compression ratio

Answer: C

=> FCIP profile for TCP port, sack-enable, Max and Min bandwidth

Question 8.
A Brocade 12000 in its native corePID mode (1) is connected to VSAN 1009 on an MDS. 

What is the correct output of the "show vsan 1009" command?

A. vsan 1009 information:
    name: VSAN 1009 state:active
    interoperability mode:default loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
    operational state:up.
B. vsan 1009 information:
    name: VSAN 1009 state:active
    interoperability mode:1 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
    operational state:up.
C. vsan 1009 information:
    name: VSAN 1009 state:active
    interoperability mode:2 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
    operational state:up.
D. vsan 1009 information:
    name: VSAN 1009 state:active
    interoperability mode:3 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
    operational state:up.
E. vsan 1009 information:
    name: VSAN 1009 state:active
    interoperability mode:Brocade Native loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
    operational state:up.

Answer: D

=> interop mode 3 for Brocade 12000

Question 9.
What TCP feature reduces the chances of an oversized IP packets from being fragmented?

A. SACK
B. Extended ping
C. PMTU
D. Retransmit timeout
E. Send buffer size

Answer: C

Question 10.
In Raid 0+1 the loss of a single drive:

A. Does not affect the redundancy of the array
B. Reduces the array redundancy to that of a Raid level 0
C. Same level of redundancy to that of a Raid level 1+0
D. Reduces the performance of the array
E. Has no affect what so ever on the array

Answer: B



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Braindumps for "642-681" Exam

(AWLANSE) Advanced Wireless LAN for System Engineers

 Question 1.
Select two activities that form part of the wireless migration plan development service component in the wireless design phase. (Choose two.)

A. Gather and Verify Migration Requirements
B. Confirm Project and Milestone Dates
C. Define Migration Team Roles and Responsibilities
D. Verify Migration Address and Available Stops
E. Create Detailed Staff Training Matrix
F. Collect and Verify Site Specific Implementation Requirements

Answer: A, C

Question 2.
When a wireless controller loses connectivity to a remote Cisco Aironet 1030 Lightweight Access Point in REAP mode, what will be the next step for that remote access point?

A. provide local WLAN1 connectivity using local-site AAA authentication server
B. disconnect all associated clients
C. lose its configuration
D. continue to provide local WLAN1 connectivity for shared key authentication only
E. support no more than 10 wireless clients

Answer: D

Question 3.
Controller-based products use X.509 certificates for which of the following?

A. AES user data frame encryption
B. IPsec tunneling
C. 3DES user data frame encryption
D. LWAPP tunneling

Answer: D

Question 4.
The recommended channel utilization QoS Basic Service Set load for a VoIP network should be less than which value?

A. 50
B. 40
C. 35
D. 45

Answer: D

Question 5.
What is the Cisco-recommended limit of standalone access points to be managed by a CiscoWorks WLSE 1130-19 with RF management enabled?

A. 1800
B. 1000
C. 1500
D. 2500

Answer: A

Question 6.
Which DSCP value is mapped to the IEEE 802.11e user priority for voice in a Cisco WLAN?

A. 48
B. 46
C. 34
D. 56

Answer: B

Question 7.
The local authentication service on a standalone access point supports which two authentication types? (Choose two.)

A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-Cisco Wireless (Cisco LEAP)
C. PEAP-MSCHAP
D. EAP-TLS
E. PEAP-GTC

Answer: A, B

Question 8.
Analyzing the customer's WLAN design including interference and signal strength, and recommending design changes to accommodate a voice over WLAN system, are activities associated with which service component in the plan phase?

A. Service Assurance
B. Security Architecture Assessment
C. VoiceOver WLAN Assessment
D. Operations Readiness Assessment
E. WLAN Wired Network Integration Assessment

Answer: C

Question 9.
Assessing current network infrastructure to support the proposed WLAN system is an activity of which service component in the wireless plan phase?

A. WLAN Wired Network Integration Assessment
B. Operations Readiness Assessment
C. Service Assurance
D. VoiceOver WLAN Assessment
E. Security Architecture Assessment

Answer: A

Question 10.
A wireless security assessment has been performed for a network that is composed of Windows 2000 and Windows XP wireless clients. The customer wishes to use IEEE 802.1X authentication using certificate services. 

Which EAP-type combinations are appropriate?

A. PEAP-MSCHAP and EAP-TLS
B. PEAP-MSCHAP and EAP-SIM
C. PEAP-GTC and EAP-MD5
D. EAP-Cisco Wireless (Cisco LEAP) and PEAP-GTC

Answer: A


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Braindumps for "642-731" Exam

Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey (CUWSS)

 
Question 1.
How many access points will a Cisco 7600 Series Router with six installed Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Wireless Services Modules support?

A. 300
B. 448
C. 664
D. 1800
E. 2400

Answer: D

Question 2.
Which value is NOT supported by Cisco Spectrum Expert, when checking for RF coverage?

A. access point received-signal strength level
B. spectrum utilization
C. client data rate
D. in-band radio frequency interference

Answer: C

Question 3.
Which is NOT part of a typical wireless site survey?

A. implementation suggestions
B. access point locations
C. security requirements
D. access point mounting methods

Answer: C

Question 4.
What are two objectives of a pre-site survey walkthrough? (Choose two.)

A. identify potential problem areas
B. define intended coverage areas
C. assess compliance with local building codes
D. determine the final location of APs and antennas
E. identify sources of RF signal attenuation and RF interference

Answer: A, B

Question 5.
If there is an existing 802.11g WLAN at a site, which service can be provided without conducting a new site survey?

A. add a new 802.11a WLAN
B. increase the Layer 2 and Layer 3 security of the WLAN
C. increase the throughput for the wireless clients
D. add new services (such as voice) over the WLAN

Answer: B

Question 6.
Construction of a new automobile parts manufacturing facility has recently been completed. The facility IT manager wants to deploy voice over WLAN. During your initial walkthrough, you observe numerous highly reflective surfaces on the manufacturing equipment and in the building construction itself. 

What potential problem exists that should be accounted for during your site survey?

A. LOS modulation
B. multipath distortion
C. RF signal absorption
D. RF signal attenuation
E. Fresnel zone impedance

Answer: B

Question 7.
To which parameter should the access point be set during a site survey?

A. transmit only
B. diversity
C. receive only
D. single isolated antenna

Answer: B

Question 8.
Which statement is true when using a Cisco Wireless Mesh Networking Solution?

A. The backhaul link isdynamic 1 to 54 Mb/s.
B. The backhaul link is typically a fixed value.
C. The backhaul link uses DAS antennas.
D. The backhaul link uses antenna multiplexing.
E. The backhaul link does not rely on fade margin.

Answer: B

Question 9.
What approximates the signal attenuation of a plasterboard wall?

A. crowd of people
B. office window
C. metal door
D. brick wall

Answer: B

Question 10.
The AirMagnet passive site survey tool can provide RF coverage data, except for which parameter?

A. Signal Strength (4th access point)
B. Signal Strength (3rd access point)
C. Channel Interference
D. Predictive Physical Data Rate Downlink (2nd access point)

Answer: A


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Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS)

 Question 1.
What is the purpose of looking for anomalous behavior on a WLAN infrastructure?

A. Identifying new attack tools
B. Auditing employee's bandwidth usage
C. Identifying attacks using signature matching
D. Improving performance by load balancing

Answer: A

Question 2.
As of controller release v5.2, which two statements about wired guest access support are true? (Choose two.)

A. It is not supported on the Cisco 2100 Series Controllers.
B. No more than three wired guest access LANs can be configured on a controller.
C. Layer 3 web authentication and passthrough are not supported.
D. Wired guest access cannot be configured in a dual-controller configuration that uses an anchor 
     controller and a foreign controller.
E. The wired guest access ports must be in the same Layer 2 network as the foreign controller.

Answer: A, E

Question 3.
The wireless client can roam faster on the Cisco Unified Wireless Network infrastructure when which condition is met?

A. EAP-FAST is used for client authentication on the wireless network.
B. Cisco Centralized Key Management is used for Fast Secure Roaming.
C. QoS is being used on the WLAN to control which client packets get through the network faster.
D. RRM protocol is used between multiple APs that the client associates to while roaming.

Answer: B

Question 4.
Which option best describes an evil twin attack?

A. A rouge access point broadcasting a trusted SSID
B. A rogue access point broadcasting any SSID
C. A rouge ad-hoc with the SSID "Free WiFi"
D. A rouge access point spreading malware upon client connection

Answer: A

Question 5.
Which two configuration parameters does NAC OOB require on a SSID/WLAN? (Choose two.)

A. WMM enabled on the WLAN
B. Open authentication on the WLAN
C. AAA override configuration on the WLAN
D. 802.1x configuration on the WLAN

Answer: B, D

Question 6.
Which two 802.11 frame types can be used in a virtual carrier (big NAV) attack? (Choose two.)

A. Association
B. ACK
C. CTS
D. Beacon
E. De-authentication

Answer: B, C

Question 7.
When adding the foreign controller as a mobility group member in the guest anchor controller, which statement is true?

A. The mobility group name on the guest anchor controller must match the mobility group name  
    On the foreign controller.
B. The mobility group member IP address and MAC address belong to the management interface  
    of the foreign controller.
C. To successfully add the foreign controller as a mobility group member in the guest anchor 
    controller, all the parameters defined in the WLAN Security, QoS, and Advanced tabs must be 
    configured identically in both the anchor and foreign controller.
D. In the guest anchor controller GUI, WLANs > Mobility Anchors page, use the Switch IP  
    Address (Anchor) drop-down menu to select the IP address corresponding to the management 
    interface of the anchor controller.

Answer: B

Question 8.
DRAG DROP
Drop Click and drag the WLAN Qos level on the left to its intended usage on the right.
 

Answer:
 

Explanation:
 

Question 9.
For wireless NAC out-of-band operations, which protocol is used between the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager and the wireless controller to switch the wireless client from the quarantine VLAN to the access VLAN after the client passed the NAC authentication/posture assessment process?

A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. SNMP
D. SSL
E. EAP

Answer: C

Question 10.
Which WLAN option, when enabled, allows different wireless clients to be connected to different VLANs based on the returned RADIUS attributes from the AAA server?

A. H-REAP
B. Override interface ACL
C. NAC state
D. Cisco CKM
E. Auth-proxy
F. Allow AAA override

Answer: F


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