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Question 1.
You want Novell application launcher (NAL) to record application distribution events to a single log file.
Which steps must be done to make this possible? (Choose 2.)
A. Establish a local directory.
B. Give users Read-Only rights.
C. Establish a network directory.
D. Give the users Read and Write rights.
E. Enable an XML URL policy in a service location package.
Answer:
Question 2.
In relation to ZENworks for Desktops 4 and remote management, _____packet is used to remotely wake up a turned off network workstation.
A. IPX
B. UPS
C. Magic
D. TCP/IP
E. Live Fire
Answer:
Question 3.
Using ConsoleOne, how do you enable policies in a service location package?
A. Add the policy you want to enable to the service location package schedule.
B. In the properties of the service location package, select Enables next to the policy you want.
C. Right-click the service location package, select New>Policy, and choose the policy you want.
D. Click the policy package wizard tab, select Service Location, and select the policy you want.
Answer:
Question 4.
Which service location package policy should you enable to report application events from any location?
A. XSLT policy
B. SMTP Host policy
C. XML Target policy
D. ZENworks Database policy
Answer:
Question 5.
In relation to ZENworks for Desktops 4 (ZfD4), what is an import server?
A. Any ZENworks server that has been installed with the default settings
B. A terminal server being used for alternate remote access applications
C. A ZENworks server service installed after the installation of ZfD4 used to import workstations
D. A ZENworks server service installed during the installation of ZfD4 used to import workstations
Answer:
Question 6.
Which task is required to configure automatic workstation import (AWI)?
A. Associate the AWI policy with the DNS name.
B. Install ZENworks for desktops 4 with all default settings.
C. Install the import server service after installing ZENworks for desktops 4.
D. Associate the AWI policy with the server object running the import service.
Answer:
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Question 1. You are configuring the eri0 network interface using the ifconfig command with the options netmask + and subnet mask 255.255.255.0. # /usr/sbin/ifconfig eri0 netmask + To verify the system is properly set up you issue an ifconfig -a command. You notice that the eri0 network interface has the netmask incorrectly set for 255.255.0.0. Which file do you need to check first? A. /etc/hosts B. /etc/netmasks C. /etc/hostname.eri0 D. /etc/nsswitch.conf Answer: B Question 2. You are installing a StorEdge A3500. You have created 5 LUNS, but after a boot -r can only see one of them in the format output. What should you modify/run to increase the single LUN issue? A. /kernel/drv/rdriver.conf B. /etc/osa/rmparams C. /kernel/drv/sd.conf D. /usr/lib/osa/bin/symconf Answer: C Question 3. You replaced a failed system board on a Sun Fire E20K. The new system board has no memory and needs to be tested. How should you test the new board? A. Add the line ?$GGWKHOLQHno_memory_ok?in the postrc file. B. Use the option -m with hpost command. C. You need memory in a system board to test it. D. Add the line ?$GGWKHOLQHmemory_ok?in the postrc file. Answer: A Question 4. You have completed repairs on a Sun Fire E25K and the next step is to run extended POST to verify the service action. How can you run extended post level 32 on domain A only? A. Enter level 32 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/.postrc file. B. Enter level 32 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/A/.postrc file. C. Enter 2 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/A/.postrc file. D. Enter 2 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/.postrc file. Answer: B Question 5. A customer wants to install four domains on their Sun Fire 6900. What needs to be configured using the setupplatform command on the System Controller? A. COD for all domains B. System controller failover C. ACL's for all domains D. Dual partitioning Answer: D Question 6. You have installed a Sun Enterprise 5500 onto a customer's network. The customer's networking department has told you that you must force the production interface, qfe0, to 100Mbps, Full Duplex. Which two ndd commands will you need to add to your startup script to ensure that your interface is running at the correct settings? (Choose two.) A. ndd -set /dev/qfe autoneg_cap 0 B. ndd -set /dev/qfe adv_100fdx_cap 1 C. ndd -set /dev/qfe link_mode 1 D. ndd -set /dev/qfe 100fdx_cap 1 E. ndd -set /dev/qfe link_speed 1 Answer: A, B Question 7. You install a system to customer specifications and after rebooting you get the following message: NIS server not responding for... retrying The customer tells you that there is a network problem which prevents this machine from reaching the NIS server. You boot the machine into single user mode. What action should you take to allow the system to operate until the NIS server is reachable again? A. Edit /etc/nsswitch.conf so that file is first for all entries and reboot into multiuser mode. B. Copy /etc/nsswitch.files to /etc/nsswitch.conf and reboot into multiuser mode. C. Edit /etc/resolv.conf so that the domain entry is commented out and reboot into multiuser mode. D. Rename /etc/rc2.d/S72inetsvc to /etc/rc2.d/DisabledS72inetsvc and reboot into multiuser mode. Answer: B Question 8. You have performed a setkeyswitch on for domain A on a Sun Fire 6800 where the auto-boot? OBP variable is set to false. What command at the OBP should you run to find the status of the POST? A. show-post-results B. showlog-results C. show-log-results D. showlog results E. showpost-results F. showpost results Answer: A Question 9. A customer has been receiving the following message: unix: WARNING: /tmp: File system full, swap space limit exceeded You are asked to create a swapfile to increase swap space. The swap file specifications are: - File name: swap1 - Destination directory: /delta - Length of swap1: 20 Megabytes Which command should you use to create the swap file? A. mkfile 20m /delta/swap1 B. mkfile -a 20m /delta/swap1 C. swap -a 20m /delta/swap1 D. swap 20m /delta/swap1 Answer: A Question 10. A customer has a number of Sun Fire 25Ks and you need to identify which one to work on. You are in the data center but not at the keyboard. Which command should you ask the customer to run to determine the chassis serial number? A. showplatform B. showcsn C. showenvironment D. showserial Answer: A
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Question 1.
What IE is not mandatory in a Q.931 Service msg?
A. Bearer capability
B. Channel ID
C. Message Type
D. Change Status
E. Call Reference
Answer: A
Question 2.
The purpose of Administrative Distance, as used by Cisco routers, is:
A. To choose between routes from different routing protocols when receiving updates for the
Same network
B. To identify which routing protocol forwarded the update
C. To define the distance to the destination used in deciding the best path
D. To be used only for administrative purposes
Answer: A
Question 3.
What is the maximum PMD value of a 100km fiber segment if the cable is specified with 0.5ps/km? (worst case)?
A. 0.005ps
B. .05ps
C. 5ps
D. 50ps
E. 500ps
Answer: C
Question 4.
What is the equivalent of 50 GHz spacing in DWDM in terms of nm?
A. 1.6 nm
B. 0.8 nm
C. 0.4 nm
D. 0.2 nm
Answer: C
Question 5.
Click the Exhibit to view the topology.
Router A has a 512K-access port into the frame relay cloud. Router B has 128K-access port into the frame relay cloud. The two routers are connected with symmetrical PVCs that are configured for 64K committed information rate (CIR). What Frame Relay Traffic Shaping map-class subcommand should be entered on Router A to prevent workstation A from overrunning the access port on Router B?
A. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 512000
B. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 512000
C. frame-relay traffic-rate 512000 64000
D. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 64000
E. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 128000
Answer: E
Question 6.
If a host sends a TCP segment with the RST flag set, it means:
A. The receiver should send all data in the reassembly buffer to the application receiving it
immediately.
B. The receiver should reset the session.
C. Any routers between the source and destination hosts should reset the state of the connection
in their buffers.
D. The receiver should make certain its send buffer is pushed onto the wire.
Answer: B
Question 7.
How many E1 channels can STM-1 frame transport?
A. 7
B. 21
C. 63
D. 84
Answer: C
Question 8.
BGP can implement a policy of 'Route Dampening' to control route instability.
What statement about route dampening is NOT correct?
A. A numeric penalty is applied to a route each time it flaps.
B. The penalty is exponentially decayed according to parameters, such as halF. life-time.
C. The history of unstable routes is forwarded back to the sender to control future updates.
D. The route is eventually suppressed based on a configurable 'suppress limit'.
Answer: C
Question 9.
MPLS traffic engineering data is carried by:
A. Opaque LSAs or IS-IS TLVs
B. BGPMEDs
C. RTP or RTCP packets
D. MBGP
Answer: A
Question 10.
Click the Exhibit button.
In the diagram, if a resilient packet ring (RPR) is built between ML-series cards,____restoration exists on the ring, while the redundant connections to the 7609 rely on protection.
A. 50ms,STP
B. STP.STP
C. STP, 1+1 APS
D. 50ms, 50ms
Answer: A
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Question 1. What is the primary benefit of the "timE. to-live" field in the IP header? A. To improve buffer utilization B. To reduce the impact of routing loops C. To allow calculation ofrounD. trip delays D. To remind us that all earthly joys are fleeting E. To avoid delivery of packets that are no longer useful Answer: B Question 2. A router interface address is 180.60.45.96 with a mask of 255.255.255.224. What configuration statement A. routerospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 255.255.255.32 area 0 B. routerospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 0.255.255.224 area 0 C. router ospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 0.0.0.31 area 0 D. routerospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 0.0.0.224 area 0 Answer: C Question 3. An IGX-8 identifies itself as an IGX-32 on the configuration screen. What has gone wrong? A. The NPM was originally in an IGX-32. B. Database corruption has occurred. C. The user must physically set a jumper on the SCM to correct this. D. Use thesetnovram command to change the switch type. Answer: C Question 4. In PNNI networks, AESA has the following general format: A. 12-byte network prefix plus a 7-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector B. 11-byte network prefix plus an 8-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector C. 7-byte network prefix plus a 12-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector. D. 13-byte network prefix, a 6-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector Answer: D Question 5. To eliminate the need for adjacent routers on broadcast networks to form n(n-1)/2 adjacencies, ISIS defines a pseudonode or Designated Intermediate System, DIS. All router on the broadcast medium form an adjacency with the DIS. The Backup DIS is called: A. Redundant DIS B. BDR C. There is no concept of a backup DIS in IS-IS D. Designated Redundant System Answer: C Question 6. Cisco/StrataCom (Gang of four) LMI uses what DLCI for messages? A. 0 B. 1023 C. It should be configurable, as per the specification. D. It is negotiated when the ports become active. Answer: B Question 7. Click the Exhibit button to view the topology. Using the above diagram, which are valid BGP AS_Path Attributes received at Net1 for a route originating from AS65100? (multiple answer) A. 200 57000 100 65100 B. 200 57000 100100 C. 100 57000 200 D. 200 57000 100 E. 65100 100 57000 200 Answer: A, D, E Question 8. The default network clocking source in a BPX network is: A. The internal oscillator of the lowest-numbered node B. The internal oscillator of the highest-numbered node C. Each node's own internal oscillator D. The clock chip on the network management system Answer: B Question 9. When using IS-IS for IP routing, Dual IS-IS defined by RFC 1195, what is true? (multiple answer) A. It is necessary to configure a NSAP address. B. it is not possible to perform both IP and CLNS routingwih the same process. C. IP address and subnet information is carried in the TLVfield on the L-1/L-1 LSPs. D. Dual IS-IS does not support VLSM information. Answer: A, C Question 10. What is true about the DLCI field in the Frame Relay header? A. It consists of two portions, source and destination, which map data to a logical channel. B. It generally has significance only between the local switch and the DTE device. C. It is an optional field in the ITU-T specification. D. It is present only in data frames sent through the network. Answer: B
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Question 1. Your company's network just finished going through a SAS 70 audit. This audit reported that overall, your network is secure, but there are some areas that needs improvement. The major area was SNMP security. The audit company recommended turning off SNMP, but that is not an option since you have so many remote nodes to keep track of. What step could you take to help secure SNMP on your network? A. Change the default community string names B. Block all internal MAC address from using SNMP C. Block access to UDP port 171 D. Block access to TCP port 171 Answer: A Question 2. At what layer of the OSI model do routers function on? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 1 Answer: A Question 3. An "idle" system is also referred to as what? A. Zombie B. PC not being used C. Bot D. PC not connected to the Internet Answer: A Question 4. What operating system would respond to the following command? A. Mac OS X B. Windows XP C. Windows 95 D. FreeBSD Answer: D Question 5. Why are Linux/Unix based computers better to use than Windows computers for idle scanning? A. Windows computers will not respond to idle scans B. Linux/Unix computers are constantly talking C. Linux/Unix computers are easier to compromise D. Windows computers are constantly talking Answer: D Question 6. How many bits is Source Port Number in TCP Header packet? A. 48 B. 32 C. 64 D. 16 Answer: D Question 7. Why are Linux/Unix based computers better to use than Windows computers for idle scanning? A. Windows computers are constantly talking B. Linux/Unix computers are constantly talking C. Linux/Unix computers are easier to compromise D. Windows computers will not respond to idle scans Answer: A Question 8. Simon is a former employee of Trinitron XML Inc. He feels he was wrongly terminated and wants to hack into his former company's network. Since Simon remembers some of the server names, he attempts to run the axfr and ixfr commands using DIG. What is Simon trying to accomplish here? A. Enumerate all the users in the domain B. Perform DNS poisoning C. Send DOS commands to crash the DNS servers D. Perform a zone transfer Answer: D Question 9. You are carrying out the last round of testing for your new website before it goes live. The website has many dynamic pages and connects to a SQL backend that accesses your product inventory in a database. You come across a web security site that recommends inputting the following code into a search field on web pages to check for vulnerabilities: When you type this and click on search, you receive a pop-up window that says: "This is a test." What is the result of this test? A. Your website is vulnerable to web bugs B. Your website is vulnerable to CSS C. Your website is not vulnerable D. Your website is vulnerable to SQL injection Answer: B Question 10. After attending a CEH security seminar, you make a list of changes you would like to perform on your network to increase its security. One of the first things you change is to switch the RestrictAnonymous setting from 0 to 1 on your servers. This, as you were told, would prevent anonymous users from establishing a null session on the server. Using Userinfo tool mentioned at the seminar, you succeed in establishing a null session with one of the servers. Why is that? A. RestrictAnonymous must be set to "2" for complete security B. RestrictAnonymous must be set to "3" for complete security C. There is no way to always prevent an anonymous null session from establishing D. RestrictAnonymous must be set to "10" for complete security Answer: A
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Question 1.
An administrator currently has Secure Gateway and web interface on the same server in the DMZ. After learning about Access Gateway, the administrator decided to purchase two units for redundancy that will be located in the DMZ and implement the increased functionality that Access Gateway offers. Two new Interface servers will be introduced.
Where should the administrator place the web interface servers?
A. Both Web Interface servers should be placed in the DMZ
B. One Web interface server should be placed on the internal network and one web interface
server should be placed on the external network
C. Both Web Interface servers should be placed on the internal network
D. One web interface server should be placed in the DMZ and one web interface server should
Be placed on the internal network
Answer: C
Explanation:
When you remove Secure Gateway from the DMZ and replace it with the Access Gateway, you can move the Web Interface to your internal secure network. The Access Gateway authenticates and authorizes users and then connects to the Web Interface. This provides greater security because there are two fewer Windows servers in the DMZ. (Installation Guide p.102)
Question 2.
An administrator decided to make a number of video-based training packages available to the Finance department through Citrix XenApp. The Citrix XenApp farm silo's its applications and all Finance Applications are in the Finance Application silo. Other application silos include Technical, Sales and workflow.
Where can an administrator enable multimedia optimization for the finance training applications?
A. A policy applied to all finance users
B. Server properties
C. Server farm properties
D. A policy applied to all servers in the finance application silo
Answer: B
Explanation:
All SpeedScreen Options are configured on a Per server or Per Farm Basis using the Properties Page of the Fram or each individual Server. Exceptions here are the SpeedScreen Latency Reduction (Done on a Per Server Basis using the "SpeedScreen Latency Reduction Manager") And SpeedScreen Image Acceleration (Done using Policies). In this case it would be the server Properties because the settings need to beapplied only for the finance app and they have their 2 own Application silo.
Question 3.
What should an administrator use to confirm the name of a Citrix License Server?
A. The hostname command in a command prompt
B. The basic information screen in the Windows 2008 system applet
C. The query command in a command prompt
D. The server information screen in the Access Management Console
Answer: A
Explanation:
The command hostname is correct. This is the easiest way to identify what hostname a server is currently using.
Question 4.
A single web interface server named xenappweb1.mycompany.com is currently being leveraged to host applications for Citrix users through HTTP. For additional redundancy and security as equired by management, a second web interface server named xenappweb2.mycompany.com will be made available and load-balanced with a hardware load balancer and SSL will be used to secure all traffic to the web interface servers.
In order to configure the environment to meet the requirements defined above, which three statements are valid configuration steps? (Choose three.)
A. Create a new load balancing group on the load balancer that contains the web interface sites
from each web interface server that are to be load balanced
B. Create a new DNS entry for xenapp.mycompany.com and assign it the IP Address of the VIP
on the hardware load balancer
C. Install a root certificate on each web interface server that matches the certificate on the load
balancer
D. Create a new CNAME alias a DNS for xenapp.mycompany.com and add both web interface
server names to the record for load balancing
E. Install a separate SSL certificate on each server that matches the FQDN of each server
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:
Creating a CNAME Allias would be a valid way of doing things if you did not have Hardware load balancer. This would round Robin connections to each WebServer using DNS Round Robining. Installing a seperate SSL Certificate matching the FQDN for each server would result in Certificate errors in the Browser because the initial connection would be to the load balancer and that has a different FQDN.
Question 5.
An administrator configured a session bandwidth policy. The administrator set a maximum bandwidth rule of 200 Kbps and placed a 50 Kbps and a 30% restriction on the audio channel. The effective bandwidth for the audio channel will be _______________ kbps? (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. 50
B. 60
C. 15
D. 200
Answer: A
Explanation:
50 is lower than 30% (which would be 60) so the 50 is what will be the effective limit as both have been defined but 50 would be reached first. Default full load is 90% and default no load is 10%
Question 6.
To which Citrix service does Web Interface forward a user's logon credentials?
A. MFCOM
B. Independent Management Architecture
C. WMI
D. XML
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Citrix Web Interface communicates only with the XML Service on the Xenapp Server. This is by default port 80 or 443 if SSL ecryption is configured. It may be changed however if the need arises.
Question 7.
How can an administrator turn off a policy rule without having to edit every policy that contains that rule?
A. Lower the priority of the policy
B. Change the Policy to deny
C. Delete the Policy
D. Change the rule in the highest priority policy to disabled
Answer: D
Explanation:
Rules in a higher ranked policy override the same rules in a lower ranked policy. (Course Ware p.349)
Question 8.
The Citrix License Management Console runs on which two supported web servers? (Choose two.)
A. Sun Java System Web Server
B. Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS)
C. Apache HTTP Server
D. IBM HTTP server
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
The License Management Console runs as a Web service. Configure a Web service-either Apache or IIS-before you install the License Management Console. (Citrix eDocs on Licensing: Licensing Your Product->Getting Started with Citrix Licensing->Prerequisites->Configuring a Web Service)
Question 9.
An administrator wants to provide access to a group of help desk users to manage sessions remotely on a server.
Which two options are the most secure ways of solving this issue using the least privilege security model? (Choose two.)
A. Assign only the administrative rights required within the Access Management Console
B. Assign only the administrative rights required within the XenApp Advanced Configuration Tool
C. Instruct the help desk users to install the XenApp Advanced Configuration tool and manage
sessions from their workstation
D. Instruct the help desk users to install the Access Management Console and manage sessions
from their workstation
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
Almost all Managemnt Tasks have been moved to the Acces Managment Console in Xenapp 5.0. Th Advanced Configuarion Tool (Perviously the CMC) only handels Policies, zone and Printer Features now.
Question 10.
Several new policies were recently created in a Citrix XenApp farm. A user has called stating that he cannot see client drivers or printers when connecting to the farm since the polices were implemented.
What could an administrator use to determine which policies are conflicting?
A. Policies Search Engine
B. Report Center
C. Event Viewer
D. Diagnostic Facility
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Policy search engine can be used to see a resultant set of Policies based on Criteria that the admin can define in the search. The first step when trouble shooting Policies should always be to use the Policy Search Engine to view the resultant policy.
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Question 1.
With regard to databases, what is normalization?
A. The process of reducing the cardinality of a relation
B. The process of organizing and refining relations
C. The process of duplicating data to reduce the number of tables
D. The process of limiting data stored in a table to a specific range of values
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which three pieces of information did E.F. Codd describe as necessary to retrieve a data value from a relational database?
A. Attribute, domain, and tuple
B. Entity, relation name, and domain
C. Table name, primary key, and entity
D. Attribute, relation name, and primary key
Answer: D
Question 3.
What is a virtual table?
A. A virtual table is a relation created as the result of data manipulation; it exists only in computer
memory, and is not a permanent part of the database.
B. A virtual table is a relation stored in the database; it is used when multiple users access the
same relation in a database.
C. A virtual table is a relation derived from the database data dictionary; it contains metadata
about a base relation. A virtual table is a relation derived from the database?data dictionary; it
contains metadata about a base relation.
D. A virtual table is a relation that consists of primary and foreign keys for a particular set of
relations in a database.
Answer: A
Question 4.
Your enterprise has reached the conceptual design phase for a database project.
What is the desired goal at the end of this design phase?
A. A set of normalized relations
B. A reviewed entity-relationship (ER) model
C. An entity-relationship (ER) model with no redundant data
D. A set of denormalized relations
Answer: B
Question 5.
In which phase of database design do you identify entities, attribute domains, and relationships?
A. Logical
B. Physical
C. Application
D. Conceptual
Answer: D
Question 6.
Consider the Dept1_Parts and Dept2_Parts relations shown in the exhibit.
Which of the following SQL statements would create a set difference of the two relations with the widest variety of Structured Query Language dialects?
A. SELECT * FROM
Dept1_Parts
EXCEPT(SELECT
PartJD FROM
Dept2_Parts);
B. SELECT * FROM
Dept1_Parts MINUS
(SELECT Part_ID
FROM Dept2_Parts);
C. SELECT * FROM
Dept1_Parts
DIFFERENCE
(SELECT Part_ID
FROM Dept2_Parts);
D. SELECT * FROM
Dept1_Parts WHERE
Part_ID NOT IN
(SELECT Part_ID FROM
Dept2_Parts);
Answer: D
Question 7.
CORRECT TEXT
Consider the Information Engineering diagram shown in the exhibit. Building_ID, R_ID, Room_Count and Room_Num are integer numbers, whereas Bldg_Name, Location and Res_Name are all represented by variable-length strings with a maximum of 20 characters.
Which SQL statement best implements the RESIDENT relation shown in this diagram?
Answer: CREATE TABLE RESIDENT (
Room_Num, Res_Name, BuildingJD NOT NULL, FOREIGN KEY
R_ID NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
BuildingJDREFERENCES BUILDING(BuildingJD));
RoomJMum, ResJMame,
BuildingJD NOT NULL);
Answer: CREATE TABLE RESIDENT( RJD
INTEGER NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
Room_Num INTEGER, ResJMame
VARCHAR (20), BuildingJD INTEGER NOT
NULL);
Answer: CREATE TABLE RESIDENT( RJD INTEGER NOT NULL
PRIMARY KEY, Room_Num INTEGER, ResJMame VARCHAR (20),
BuildingJD INTEGER NOT NULL, FOREIGN KEY BuildingJD
REFERENCES BUILDING (BuildingJD));
Answer: Pending
Question 8.
Which term describes one or more database operations that are executed as a single unit?
A. Update
B. Transaction
C. Encapsulation
D. Operational group
Answer: B
Question 9.
Your enterprise is involved in planning a database project. The exhibit shows the result of one phase of the database design life cycle.
Which term best describes the diagram shown in the exhibit?
A. Information Engineering (IE) data model
B. Corporate data model
C. Database requirements model
D. ERD model
Answer: B
Question 10.
Consider the following relations shown in the exhibit.
Which of the following SQL statements would return the Customers2 relation from the Customers relation?
A. SELECT * FROM Customers
WHERE Satisfaction_Rate <= 80
OR Satisfaction_Rate >= 90;
B. SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE
Satisfaction_Rate IN (80 AND 90);
C. SELECT'FROM Customers
WHERE Satisfaction_Rate >= 80
AND Satisfaction_Rate <= 89;
D. SELECT * FROM
Customers WHERE
Satisfaction_Rate
BETWEEN (80, 90);
Answer: C
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Question 1.
Navisphere CLI is typically installed with what other software package?
A. Navisphere Manager
B. Host Agent
C. AccessLogix
D. PowerPath
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which two statements about Storage Area Networks (SANs) are true? (Choose two.)
A. SANs enable the sharing of storage resources via IP / Ethernet networking.
B. SANs enable the sharing of storage resources across a high speed, low latency, Fibre
Channel network.
C. SANs provide block level I/O access to storage resources.
D. SANs provide file level I/O access to storage resources.
Answer: B, C
Question 3.
Which three statements are correct about zoning with Brocade switches? (Choose three.)
A. Zoning configuration information is stored on the hosts.
B. Zone aliases are not required to define a zone.
C. A zone can be included in more than one zone configuration.
D. Each zone must be given a unique name.
E. Each device can be included in only one zone.
Answer: B, C, D
Question 4.
Which term is another name for hard zoning in Fibre Channel switches?
A. soft zoning
B. WWN zoning
C. port zoning
D. switch zoning
Answer: C
Question 5.
Where is the Host Agent privileged user list stored?
A. on the Storage Area Network (SAN) for central access
B. in an administrative share on the host server for host-to-host replication
C. both locally and remotely on the SAN
D. each Host Agent maintains its own local copy
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which utility should you use to add LUN management functionality to a server when using SAN Copy?
A. admhost
B. naviadm
C. admcopy
D. admsnap
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which three statements about a GigaBit Interface Converter (GBIC) are true? (Choose three.)
A. Single-mode optical can be used for long wavelength transmissions.
B. A GBIC can convert the SCSI protocol intoFibre Channel.
C. Multi-mode optical can be used for short wavelength transmissions.
D. Small form pluggable LC transceivers build upon the GBIC standard.
E. A GBIC terminates aFibre loop.
Answer: A, C, D
Question 8.
Which two components of a CX700 array do the standby power supplies connect to? (Choose two.)
A. The left and right power distribution units (PDUs)
B. Storage Processor Enclosure (SPE)
C. the first Disk Array Enclosure (DAE2-OS)
D. Disk Processor Enclosure (DPE)
Answer: B, C
Question 9.
Which three statements are correct about using SnapView? (Choose three.)
A. SnapView can take snapshots, or point-in-time copies of LUNs.
B. SnapView can make clones, or 100% duplicate copies of a LUN.
C. Snapshots can take mere seconds to create.
D. Snapshots are volume-level and thus able to restore specific files.
E. Snapshots may be created using theadmhost CLI utility.
Answer: A, B, C
Question 10.
What are four characteristics of World Wide Names (WWNs)? (Choose four.)
A. WWNs consist of a 128-bit value comprising a 64-bit node name and a 64-bit port name.
B. WWNs can be used in an IP NIC.
C. WWNs are used to route SAN data and provide zoning and failover functionality.
D. Each device has a pre-defined, unique address.
E. More than one WWN can exist in a single host if the host contains multiple Host Bus Adapters
(HBAs).
Answer: A, C, D, E
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Question 1. A company is deciding whether or not to monitor employees' e-mail. What type of ethical issue is involved? A. Accuracy B. Property C. Privacy D. Accessibility Answer: C Question 2. Collaborative filtering software is: A. Software that keeps track of users' movements to interpret their interests. B. Best for most endeavors. C. Illegal, but popular. D. Software that is user-controlled. Answer: A Question 3. Which of the following is not a form of push technology? A. Self-service delivery B. Direct delivery C. Search engine optimization D. Mediated delivery Answer: C Question 4. The most common online shopper is: A. 55 or older. B. 35 to 54 years old. C. 20 to 35 years old. D. Under 20 years old. Answer: B Question 5. When a Web user "clicks through" from one site to a second site, buys a product on the second site, and then the second site pays a commission to the first site for the referral, we call this process: A. Link referral. B. Banner commissioning. C. Affiliate marketing. D. Co-advertising. Answer: A Question 6. Notational money is: A. A financial transaction made without the use of paper documents. B. An electronic medium for making payments. C. Value stored and exchanged by formal authorization. D. A marker representing value. Answer: C Question 7. In which one of the following ways do Online Auction Sites like Ebay make money? A. By taking a percentage of each transaction B. By providing escrow services C. By charging for shipping and handling D. By providing payment services via Credit Card Answer: A Question 8. Jackie has an e-card that she waives at the turnstile to enter the subway. What type of smart card is she using? A. Credit card B. Contactless card C. Contact card D. Purchase card Answer: B Question 9. Which of the following is an example of a general purpose pure-play e-tailer? A. Store A does not have a physical location and sells a variety of products online. B. Store D has a physical location. A variety of products are sold. C. Store B does not have a physical location and sells a specific type of product. D. Store C has a physical location and a Web site. A variety of products are sold. Answer: A Question 10. Collaborative filtering software is: A. Best for most endeavors. B. Software that is user-controlled. C. Software that keeps track of users' movements to interpret their interests. D. Illegal, but popular. Answer: C
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Question 1. How many cache groups can be used in Transparent Cache Switching: A. 5 B. 4 C. 1 D. 3 E. 2 Answer: B Question 2. Session Capacity Threshold defines: A. The percent of remaining sessions available on the ServerIron B. The total number of sessions used on the ServerIron C. The total number of sessions that are configured on the real servers D. The total session capacity of the ServerIron Answer: A Question 3. Using show server real, if you see UNBND: A. The application is bound to the VIP B. The application port for the real server is not bound to the real server C. The application cannot be found D. The VIP is bound to the real server E. The application needs to be bound to the real server Answer: D Question 4. Using show server real, if you see UNBND: A. The application is bound to the VIP B. The application cannot be found C. The application needs to be bound to the real server D. The application port for the real server is not bound to the real server E. The VIP is bound to the real server Answer: E Question 5. Filters on the ServerIron configured for Server Load Balancing are: A. Set to drop any connections specified by the filter B. Applied to packets directed to the VIP C. Used to redirect packets to the Internet D. Set to drop traffic to or from specified ports Answer: B Question 6. When configuring real servers, there must be backup servers in order to have primary servers A. False B. True Answer: A Question 7. What is the default SLB behavior for Server Load Balancing for packets from the ServerIron to the real server? Choices: 1) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server a. Destination translates address from the VIP to the real serverIP b. Source translate the clients IP address 2) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server a. Destination translates address from the VIP to the real server IP b.Source leaves the clients IP address unchanged 3) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server a. Destination leave the clients IP address unchanged b. Source Translate the real server IP address into a VIP address 4) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server a. Destination Leave the real server IP address unchanged b. Source leaves the clients IP address unchanged A. 4 B. 2 C. 1 D. 3 Answer: B Question 8. Configuring a remote server as primary will include it: A. As the primary remote backup server B. As the primary backup server C. In the VIP balancing with the local servers D. As the server to access when all the locals have failed Answer: C Question 9. What ServerIron CLI command enables FWLB for TCP. A. ip policy 1 fw tcp 0 global B. ip policy 1 fw tcp 1 global C. ip policy 1 fw udp 1 global D. server fw-port 5 Answer: A Question 10. When configuring Hot Standby Redundancy, the configuration from one ServerIron can be copied to another ServerIron exactly except for: A. The management address and the MAC address B. The MAC address C. The sync-link address D. The management address Answer: D
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