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Question 1.
Which CLI mode allows for configuration of a Cisco IDS Sensor's interface IP information?
A. global configuration
B. Interface command-control
C. interface group
D. privileged exec
Answer: B
sensor1(config)#:interface command-control
sensor1(config)#:?
ip ... Configure IP information for the interface
Cisco Courseware 9-12
Question 2.
Which three specify the predefined rules for database maintenance in the Monitoring Center for Security? (Choose three.)
A. default pruning
B. default IP log pruning
C. default SNMP pruning
D. default Syslog
E. default audit log pruning
F. default SQL database pruning
Answer: A, D, E
Cisco Courseware 16-63
Question 3.
Why would an attacker saturate the network with "noise" while simultaneously launching an attack?
A. causes the IDS to fire multiple false negative alarms
B. an attack may go undetected
C. it will have no effect on the sensor's ability to detect attacks
D. to initiate asymmetric attack techniques
Answer: B
Cisco Courseware 3-24
Question 4.
Which signature parameter defines the response taken when an alarm is fired?
A. Alarm Traits
B. EventAction
C. AlramAction
D. EventTraits
Answer: B
Event Action - The action to perform when an alarm is fired:
Log
Reset
ShunHost
ShunConnection
ZERO
Cisco Courseware 13-18
Question 5.
Which three main categories of information can be monitored using Monitoring Center for Security? (Choose three.)
A. events
B. sensors
C. statistics
D. signatures
E. connections
F. notifications
Answer: A, C, E
Cisco Courseware 16-33
Question 6.
Which CLI command would permit remote network access to the IDS Sensor from network 10.1.1.0/24?
A. sensor(config)# access-list 100 permit 10.1.1.0.0.0.0.255
B. sensor(config-Host-net)# access-list 100 permit 10.1.1.0.0.0.0.255
C. sensor(config)# accessList ipAddress 10.1.1.0 netmask 255.255.255.0
D. sensor(config-Host-net)# accessList ipAddress 10.1.1.0 netmask 255.255.255.0
Answer: D
Cisco Courseware 9-31
Question 7.
When creating custom signatures using the TROJAN engines, which parameter values are required?
A. protocol
B. source/destination IP addresses
C. regular expression strings
D. these signatures cannot be created
Answer: D
You cannot create custom signatures with Trojan engies.
Cisco Courseware 13-73
Question 8.
The NM-CIDS is directly connected to the router's backplane via which interface?
Choose two.
A. the internal 100-Mbps Fast Ethernet port on the NM-CIDS
B. the external 100-Mbps Fast Ethernet port on the router
C. the internal 100-Mbps Fast Ethernet port on the router
D. the external 100-Mbps Fast Ethernet port on the NM-CIDS
Answer: A, C
Question 9.
Which Cisco IDS service allows external management applications to control and configure sensors?
A. Transaction Server
B. Event Server
C. IPLog Server
D. Sensor Server
Answer: A
Explanation:
TransactionSource is an application that forwards locally initiated remote control transactions to their remote destinations using the RDEP and HTTP protocols.
TransactionSource initiates either TLS or non-TLS connections and communicates remote control transactions to HTTP servers over these connections.
TransactionSource must establish sufficient credentials on the remote HTTP server to execute a remote control transaction. TransactionSource establishes its credentials by presenting an identity to the HTTP server on the remote node in the form of a username/password (basic authentication). Once authenticated, the requestor is assigned a cookie containing a user authentication that must be presented with each request on that connection.
Cisco Courseware 6-3
Question 10.
Upon restoring a sensor's configuration to default, which application settings are not set to default? Choose three.
A. IP address
B. netmask
C. allowed hosts
D. passwords
E. user accounts
F. time
Answer: A, B, C
Although time is not changed, time is NOT an application setting.
Cisco Courseware 17-17
Question 11.
What must be done when upgrading Cisco IDS appliance models IDS-4235 or IDS-4250 from Cisco IDS v3.x?
A. swap the command and control and monitoring interfaces
B. install the spare hard-disk derive
C. BIOS upgrade
D. No special considerations are required
E. Memory upgrade
Answer: C
Page 7-16 CIDS Courseware v4.0
Question 12.
How many sensing interfaces does the ID-4215 support?
A. 6
B. 5
C. 4
D. 1
Answer: B
Question 13.
Which CiscoWorks user role provides administrative access for performing all IDS MC operations?
A. root
B. administrator
C. service account
D. system administrator
E. network administrator
Answer: D
Page 11-24 CIDS Courseware v4.0
Question 14.
How many sensing interfaces are supported on the NM-CIDS?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. all router interfaces
Answer: A
Question 15.
Which IDS MC utility is used to create the IDS MC public key for SSH communications to the Sensor?
A. ssh
B. pulty
C. sshgen
D. keygen
E. puttygen
Answer: E
Explanation:
This document explains how to use the Key generator for PuTTY (PuTTYgen) to generate Secure Shell (SSH) authorized keys and RSA authentication for use on Cisco Secure Intrusion Detection System (IDS). The primary issue when you establish SSH authorized keys is that only the older RSA1 key format is acceptable. This means that you need to tell your key generator to create an RSA1 key, and you must restrict the SSH client to use the SSH1 protocol.
Cisco Courseware 12-6
Question 16.
Identify two basic steps in the configuration of VACLs for traffic capture on a Catalyst 6500 switch running IOS. (Choose two.)
A. Configure match clauses using the capture option.
B. Map the VLAN access map to a VLAN.
C. Use commit to save the VACL configuration.
D. Assign ports to receive capture traffic.
E. Crate VACL using the set security acl command.
Answer: B, D
Cisco Courseware 5-38
Question 17.
When enabling time schedules for archival of events with IDS Event Viewer.
Which three options are available? (Choose three.)
A. every N minutes
B. every N MB
C. every N hours
D. every N KB
E. every day at same time
F. every week on same day and time
Answer: A, C, E
Cisco Courseware 10-46
Question 18.
Which two Cisco IDS platforms provide integrated intrusion detection capabilities and target lower risk environments? (Choose two.)
A. IOS-IDS
B. Switch IDS module
C. PIX-IDS
D. Network appliances IDS
E. Host IDS
Answer: A, C
Cisco Courseware 4-11 (IOS)
Cisco Courseware 4-12 (PIX)
Question 19.
What is a primary reason for using the mls ip ids command to capture traffic instead of VACLs?
A. higher performance due to hardware-based multilayer switching
B. CBAC is configured on the same VLAN
C. Switch is running Catalyst OS; VACLs are only supported in IOS
D. Destination capture port is an IDSM; VACLs do not support IDSM
E. mls ip ids offers more granularity for traffic capture than VACLs
Answer: B
You cannot apply VACLs to the same VLAN in which you have applied an IP inspect rule for the Cisco IDS Firewall. (IP inspect rule is a CBAC feature -> mls ip ids can be used instead of VACLs to solve this problem)
Cisco Courseware 5-45, 5-48
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Question 1.
An account manager is meeting with a customer who is interested in a Cisco IP Communications solution. The customer needs to support a variety of analog devices, voice mail, auto attendant, and 200 users.
Which solution should the account manager discuss with this customer?
A. a full Cisco CallManager solution
B. a full Cisco CallManager solution with Cisco Unity
C. Cisco CallManager Express
D. Cisco CallManager Express with Cisco Unity Express
Answer: D
Question 2.
One of your potential customers has concerns about choosing a Cisco IP Communications solution because, according to the competition, IP telephony solutions cost more than they are worth.
Which strategy would be most appropriate to defuse this concern?
A. Unlike traditional office environments where voice and data are separate, Cisco IP
Communications supports the idea of a converged network where the telephony and IP
components are integrated.
B. An IP-enabled PBX inevitably reaches a point called the golden phone, at which an addition
requires more than just a phone. In fact, it requires a card to support the phone, and possibly a
new shelf of a cabinet to house the card. These upgrades end up being very costly and offer
the customer no flexibility to implement nonproprietary solutions in the future.
C. With low operating and capital costs, a Cisco IP Communications deployment will pay for itself
in 18 months on average and will provide an average annual savings per user of US$334. The
drivers of the ROI are determined by the unique network circumstances of the customer, such
as the speed of migration, the remaining life on the PBX, and the extent of the data upgrade.
D. Cisco IP Communications solutions are based on tested and verified designs that ensure rapid
ROI. Cisco or its IP telephony specialized channel partners can also customize these solutions
to meet business demands and realize cost savings resulting from existing equipment or
applications.
Answer: C
Question 3.
Organizations that embrace Cisco IP Communications solutions are able to interoperate with existing TDM systems and applications, as well as support which two traditional telephony networking standards? (Choose two.)
A. QSIG
B. BGP
C. SIP
D. TDM
E. DPNSS
Answer: A, E
Question 4.
The IT manager from a prospective client organization explains that their network is overloaded. The network has been in use since 2002 with minimal upgrades, and is composed of several different devices from different vendors. E.mail is slow, the voice.mail system is outdated, and employee productivity and responsiveness are suffering.
Given this scenario, which business driver is most appropriate to sell a Cisco IP Communications solution?
A. reduce operating costs
B. increase revenue generation
C. facilitate future expansion
D. reduce the number of employees
Answer: A
Question 5.
You require an easy-to-use, web.enabled tool to demonstrate to a prospective customer the benefits of a converged network in terms of productivity enhancements and real estate savings.
Which tool should you use?
A. Cisco ROI analysis
B. Cisco CNIC
C. business case from the industry of the prospect
D. customized hurdle rate analysis
Answer: B
Question 6.
An account manager is meeting with a service provider that has installed Cisco CallManager Express at a large number of its subscriber sites. The customer wants to maintain and troubleshoot Cisco CallManager Express remotely.
Which Cisco CallManager Express feature makes this possible?
A. CiscoWorks VPN/Security Management Solution
B. Cisco Network Analysis Module
C. commanD.line interface
D. CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor
Answer: C
Question 7.
Which two baseline discovery questions would be most appropriate to ask an IT manager? (Choose two.)
A. in how many locations do you have Cisco routers deployed?
B. Would installing Cisco IP Communications Express with other business systems reduce the
complexity of your IP infrastructure?
C. How many platforms do you intend to use for call processing and voice mail?
D. Do you anticipate growth in the number of employees over the next few years?
Answer: A, C
Question 8.
A potential customer has several global offices, including one in North America, two in France, and one in Germany. This prospect is investigating cost-effective voice mail and auto attendant, and has asked for your recommendation.
What application would best meet the needs of the customer?
A. Cisco Unity Express
B. Cisco Unity
C. customized XML applications
D. Cisco CallManager
Answer: A
Question 9.
How does a converged solution work?
A. Voice traffic is carried over a circuit-switched network, and data traffic is carried on an IP
network
B. Voice, video, and data are integrated onto a single IP network.
C. The network is comprised of proprietary timE.division multiplexing hardware and circuits.
D. The LAN is used for data traffic, and the WAN is used to integrate voice and video traffic
Answer: B
Question 10.
You work as the network administrator at Certpaper.com. Certpaper has several global offices, including one in Britain, two in North America, and three in Asia. The company needs to investigate cost-effective voice mail and auto attendant, and has asked for your recommendation.
What application would best meet the requirements of the company?
A. Cisco Unity Express
B. Customized XML applications
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Cisco Unified CallConnector Mobility
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Which statement about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express and Cisco Unified Communications Manager is correct?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is router-based and scales up to 24000 users.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is server-based and Cisco Unified Communications
Manager Express scales up to 300 users.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express is router-based and Cisco Unified
Communications Manager scales up to 240 users.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is server-based and scales up to 24000 users.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express is router-based and Cisco Unified
Communications Manager scales up to 30000 users.
Answer: E
Question 2.
A company's mission is to support its customers' technical needs. Its consultants work from home or on site. They must often work in teams to exchange information about new products and implementations. Choose the Cisco Unified Communications tool, features, and functions that will best support this company's goal.
A. Collaboration, bringing together voice, video, and web conferencing
B. Contact Center solutions, delivering intelligent contact routing, desktop and telephony
integration, and multichannel contact management
C. Unified Messaging, delivering every voice, email, and fax message into a single inbox
D. Presence, providing information about consultants, such as availability and busy status
Answer: A
Question 3.
An operations manager compares the cost of upgrading their current system to the cost of implementing a fully-featured Cisco Unified Communications system. She objects that the upgrade may not be justifiable.
Which two responses would most likely best answer to this objection? (Choose two.)
A. Seamlessly integrating your current PBX infrastructure with a full IP solution is the best way to
Stay ahead of the competition.
B. A Unified Communications solution will reduce more toll charges than an IP-enabled PBX.
C. The scalability of Cisco Unified Communications solutions will enable you to stay a step ahead
of the competition.
D. Simply enabling the current system may not accomplish these business objectives.
E. Accommodating unplanned growth and customer-driven changes can best be addressed with
a distributed PBX solution.
Answer: C, D
Question 4.
What are two features of Cisco Unity Express? (Choose two.)
A. support for 12 languages
B. full-featured voice mail
C. IBM Lotus Domino or Microsoft Exchange message store
D. scalable performance
E. deployment flexibility
Answer: D, E
Question 5.
A large chemical company with a limited capital expenditure budget is considering a much-needed investment in a converged IP network but is having trouble justifying the initial costs to management.
Which solution would you recommend?
A. purchase
B. lease
C. Cisco Unity Unified Messaging
D. IP-enabled PBX
Answer: B
Question 6.
A potential customer requests a reliable, cost-effective method of monitoring and evaluating the quality of voice in Cisco Unified Communications solutions. This customer needs a tool which continuously monitors active calls supported by the Cisco Unified Communications system and provides near-realtime notification when the voice quality of a call, represented as end-user experience expressed by a Mean Opinion Score, fails to meet a user-defined quality threshold.
Which of the following tools should an account manager propose?
A. Cisco netManager Unified Communications
B. Cisco Network Analysis Module
C. Cisco Voice Provisioning Tool
D. Cisco Smart Care Services
E. Cisco Unified Service Monitor, which includes Cisco 1040 sensors
Answer: E
Question 7.
Read the customer objection and select the two best answers. (Choose two.) Telecommunications manager: Everyone knows that Cisco is good at data, but you simply do not have voice experience. None of your account managers, systems engineers, or professional service people truly understands the voice environment.
A. I understand your concern, especially because we are so well known for data. In addition to
our data experience, we are also very familiar with the voice environment. In fact, we helped
invent voice technology.
B. I am glad you brought that up! It is true that at one time, we were focused more on data than
on voice. Today, however, Cisco has a large percentage of employees with voice experience.
C. Thank you for mentioning that point. Because our focus is on QoS, which is currently not
supported by the Internet, people often believe that Cisco has no voice experience.
D. That is a valid concern, and I would like to address it. While it is true that we are strong in the
data arena, we are also actively and aggressively investing in staff voice skills, and also
recruiting the finest voice professionals in the market. The strength of our voice team has
brought us a great deal of respect in the marketplace.
Answer: B, D
Question 8.
Based on the scenario below, what is the primary need of the finance manager? Account Manager: Have you considered the potential TCO savings that you can achieve with a Unified Communications upgrade?
Finance manager: To some degree, yes, but it sounds like a big investment, not only in terms of technology, but even more so in terms of staff and maintenance.
A. reduce operational costs
B. automate financial reports
C. increase revenue
D. increase the flexibility of revenue projections
Answer: A
Question 9.
A Cisco customer has a management team, each member of which has a number of needs. Operations manager:
Improve order processes
Improve the ability to make accurate forecasts
Finance manager:
Reduce the TCO of the existing IP communications infrastructure
IT manager:
Improve network reliability
Streamline the delivery of end-user support
Which business need would be the primary Cisco Unified Communications solution sales driver?
A. reduce the number of employees
B. reduce operating costs
C. increase revenue generation
D. facilitate future expansion
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which of the following features could not be implemented with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express?
A. XML applications
B. Auto-attendant capabilities
C. Integrated messaging
D. Cisco Unified Presence
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Which service is provided by Cisco SMARTnet?
A. investment protection with upgrade discounts
B. around-the-clock access to Cisco Technical Access Center
C. Cisco Learning Credits for IT staff development
D. service level agreements to ensure uptime requirements are met
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which service component within the prepare phase recommends the appropriate technology strategy to address a business requirement of the customer?
A. identifying what a customer requires from a proposed solution
B. analyzes the customers business requirements and recommends the appropnate Cisco
technologies to meet Business requirements
C. determining what end-user training a customer requires
D. addressing a customer's physical requirements
Answer: B
Question 3.
What best explains why the banking industry is ready to take advantage of an integrated network infrastructure?
A. Many banks are still connecting via dial-up.
B. Many banks need to consolidate departments and resources.
C. Many banks find themselves with an obsolete branch infrastructure
D. Many banks need back-office process streamlining.
Answer: C
Question 4.
A new client of yours is experiencing a growth spurt. The client's IT staff is making network changes manually and as a consequence, is extremely overworked.
You suggest the client implement a network management system, citing which important business benefit?
A. potential for outsourcing the IT staff
B. provision of an out-of-band management architecture
C. threat mitigation
D. reduction in network downtime
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which three of these service components are in the design phase? (Choose three.)
A. Account Qualification and Planning
B. Detailed Design Development
C. Staff Training
D. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development
E. Staging Plan Development
F. Site Readiness Assessment
Answer: B, D, E
Question 6.
Which three business requirements development activities are performed in the prepare phase before creating a technology strategy? (Choose three.)
A. identifying and assessing customer business requirements
B. documenting and categorizing customer business requirements in terms of performance,
availability, capacity and security.
C. producing a documented technology strategy
D. creating a bill of materials
E. presenting documented business requirements to a Customer and having the customer
validate them
F. completing a site survey
Answer: A, B, E
Question 7.
What is a Cisco industry initiative that uses the network infrastructure to enforce security policy compliance on all devices that are seeking to access the network?
A. Cisco Adaptive Threat Defense
B. Cisco Secure Access Control
C. Cisco Network Admission Control
D. Cisco Threat Defense System
Answer: C
Question 8.
Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series switches are attractive to medium-size campuses with growth opportunities due to the switches' enhanced security and which two other features? (Choose two.)
A. enhanced multilayer software image
B. connectivity to multiple types of WAN connections
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. QoS for converged networks
E. modular, customizable components
Answer: D, E
Question 9.
The Cisco UC520 provides integrated WLAN connectivity to mobile clients for which technology?
A. voice only
B. data only
C. Data and voice
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which three features does the Cisco UC520 support? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco unity Express
B. distributed routing
C. Storage Area Networks
D. analog devices
E. Telepresence
F- security firewall and VPN
Answer: A, D, F
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Question 1.
Which two of these statements describe why Cisco offers the security solution with the lowest operational cost? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco ensures third-party integration.
B. Cisco is able to meet PCI requirements.
C. Cisco solves the broadest suite of threats.
D. Cisco maximizes training costs for the IT group.
E. Cisco has established partnerships with all key players.
Answer: C, E
Question 2.
How does preliminary technical discovery benefit the customer?
A. A technology strategy is presented to the customer.
B. Information regarding an existing customer network is analyzed, which allows an appropriate
solution to be developed.
C. The account team analyzes and validates the business requirements.
D. Detailed technical requirements are defined and documented.
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which security management offering helps customers to readily and accurately identify, manage, and mitigate network attacks and to maintain network security compliance?
A. Cisco Security Agent
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco NAC
D. Cisco Network Assistant
E. Cisco Security MARS
Answer: E
Question 4.
What is one way that Cisco Security can decrease customer implementation costs?
A. by using the existing infrastructure
B. through dedicated security appliances
C. through better security management products
D. by reducing the number of people to train
Answer: A
Question 5.
How does the Cisco ASA with the CSC module protect the network? (Choose two.)
A. It blocks incoming e-mail and web threats.
B. It guarantees regulatory compliance.
C. It prevents network intrusion with an IPS.
D. It provides VoIP enhancements.
E. It prevents loss of sensitive information with integrated antivirus protection.
Answer: A, E
Question 6.
How does security technology assessment drive continuous improvements?
A. by recommending remediation measures, such as optimizing device configurations, planning
capacity, and resolving quality issues
B. by assessing the current state of the customer operations
C. by assessing the realization of ROI and other benefits of the security system
D. by defining project milestones
Answer: A
Question 7.
Why do end users need to be aware of the security policy?
A. Some security decisions are usually in their hands.
B. They need to be aware of every threat.
C. They should avoid responsibility for their actions.
D. They should understand the probability of every risk.
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which two of these choices describe how the secure network access solution provides value to the customer? (Choose two.)
A. permits a man-in-the-middle attack
B. makes mobility more cost-effective
C. provides an unencrypted solution
D. reduces the amount of equipment
E. allows for secure Internet browsing
Answer: B, D
Question 9.
How does the Cisco SDN relate to compliance?
A. It is point product-based.
B. It uses anomaly detection to secure a device.
C. It addresses a large majority of PCI requirements.
D. It uses IP protocol 50 (ESP) to securely communicate to network devices.
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which Cisco solution provides host protection against security violations by focusing on the behavior of the device?
A. Cisco PIX Firewall
B. NAC Appliance
C. host Analyzer
D. Cisco Security Agent
E. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance
Answer: D
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Question 1. What are two indicators that a customer should consider the installation of a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two.) A. want to provide employee wireless access B. want to provide unsecured wireless access C. need between two and three access points D. need one access point E. need more than four access points F. want to provide guest wireless access Answer: E, F Question 2. What resource would you recommend to a new Cisco partner for a variety of tools? A. Channel Incentive program B. Unified Communications for SMB C. Partner Central D. Steps to Success E. Instructions: Number of answers: 1 Answer: C Question 3. Which statement best describes what Cisco Smart Care Service provides? A. bundled, unlimited support with the purchase of any Cisco product B. bundled technical support and maintenance for Cisco networks C. fee-based add-on support and tech-to-tech assistance for Cisco products D. technical support, maintenance, and monitoring to Cisco networks Answer: D Question 4. Which two functions does Cisco Configuration Assistant provide? (Choose two.) A. call forwarding B. command line configuration C. wireless connectivity D. device discovery E. call routing configuration Answer: D, E Question 5. Increased productivity, minimized legal risks, and improvements in "green" operation can be easily linked to Cisco solutions in which technology area? A. on the destination network, between the server and a router B. security C. voice D. routing and switching E. eCommerce F. web collaboration Answer: E Question 6. For which of the following campus LAN areas is the Cisco Catalyst Express 500 Series Switch most suitable? A. backbone area B. distribution area C. core area D. access area Answer: D Question 7. Which Cisco support service product targets customers with up to 48 users on a network where voice communication is mission-critical to business operation? A. SMARTnet Partner Service B. Cisco Smart Foundation Service C. Cisco Technical Assistance Center D. Cisco SMARTnet for SBCS E. Cisco Smart Care Service Answer: D Question 8. In which areas do SMBs tend to require better products than found in retail stores? A. voice, intranet, and security B. security, voice, and wide-area networking C. wireless, intranet, and wide-area networking D. wireless, security, and voice Answer: D Question 9. What are three of the attributes sought in a target customer for Cisco Smart Foundation services? (Choose three.) A. 50 or fewer network devices B. comprehensive network-wide support requirements C. fewer than 250 network users D. network is not mission-critical to business E. network is considered mission-critical F. skilled on-site customer IT staff Answer: A, C, D Question 10. Which three characteristics are true of the ProtectLink Gateway product? (Choose three.) A. provides encryption between a browser and a web server B. provides web server content filtering C. is bundled in the SPS platform D. provides content filtering for e-mail E. blocks 97% of SPAM F. protects from spyware and phishing attacks Answer: B, D, F
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Question 1. What are two ways to test the LAN connectivity on the Cisco CE520? (Choose two.) Select exactly 2 answer(s) from the following: A. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Distribution VLAN from the Cisco UC520 console. B. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Voice VLAN from a device attached to the Cisco CE520 C. Ping default gateway from the Cisco CE520. D. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Data VLAN from a device attached to the Cisco CE520 E. Ping default gateway from the Cisco UC520. F. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Data Access VLAN from the Cisco UC520 console. Answer: B, D Question 2. Refer to the exhibit. What does "locking down" the router entail? A. disabling all the vulnerable services on the router. B. Disabling HTTPS access to Cisco SDM C. Shutting Down all the Router’s interfaces. D. Prohibiting console access to the router E. Preventing any alteration to the router’s running configuration Answer: A Question 3. What advantage does integrated messaging have over standard voice-mail systems? A. provides a toolbar to see the status of coworkers. B. provides text versions of your voice-mail messages. C. eliminates the need for a live operator to answer the phone. D. forwards voice-mail messages to your email at .wav files. Answer: D Question 4. How are voice and data devices organized in the LAN for the Smart Business Communications System? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following: A. by LAN switchport assignment B. by VLAN association C. by work group affiliation D. by WAN address Answer: B Question 5. Which Cisco support service product targets customers with up to 48 users on a network where voice communication is mission-critical to business operation? A. Cisco SMARTnet for SBCS B. Cisco Technical Assistance Center C. Cisco Smart Care Service D. Cisco Smart Foundation Service E. SMARTnet Partner Service Answer: A Question 6. Basic phone support, fee-based add-on support, and VAR tech-to-tech assistance are components of which support option? A. Smart Care Service B. Cisco Smart Foundation Service C. Cisco Small Business products support D. Cisco SMARTnet Service Answer: C Question 7. What are three functions of the NTP protocol? (Choose three.) Select exactly 3 answer(s) from the following: A. to connect to a reference source on the Internet B. to convert internal IP addresses to external IP addresses C. to install as an Intranet-based application D. to ensure that all network devices share a common time reference E. to provide routing functions at an ISR F. to aid in the collection of call detail records for billing Answer: A, D, F Question 8. Choose the two statements that apply to a typical SPA9000 Voice System setup in a SOHO or small business. (Choose two.) Select exactly 2 answer(s) from the following: A. Analog phones can be connected via the available analog phone ports. B. Connection to the PSTN can be provided using the POTS gateway. C. The base SPA9000 system allows for up to sixteen (16) IP phones to place or receive calls. D. The expanded SPA9000 system provides support for up to twenty (20) IP phones. E. A fax machine can be used by connecting to one of four (4) available analog phone ports. Answer: A, D Question 9. What service does the Cisco Services Accelerate Program offer to registered Cisco Channel Partners? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following: A. additional product information storage B. two new incentive programs C. ability to market Cisco technologies and solutions D. four levels of certification E. a training curriculum designed to increase services Answer: E Question 10. What are three functions provided by all ISR models in a SMB network solution? (Choose three.) Select exactly 3 answer(s) from the following: A. wireless connections B. modular upgrades C. QoS marking D. routing to WAN and Internet E. PoE F. VPN services Answer: C, D, F
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Question 1.
Horizontal cross-connect (HCC) is a term in networks for a wiring closet where the horizontal cabling connects to a patch panel which is connected by backbone cabling to the main distribution facility.
Which of the following is the maximum CAT3 length acceptable for a horizontal crossconnect?
A. 100 meters (328 feet)
B. 125 meters (410 feet)
C. 256 meters (840 feet)
D. 328 meters (1076 feet)
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which wireless technology permits communication to run at 2.4Ghz and up to 54Mbps?
A. 802.11b
B. 802.11a
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
Answer: C
Question 3.
John works as a network administrator of his company. He is noticing timeouts when a user logs in.
Which of the following would permit John to spread network authentication request traffic across multiple authentication servers?
A. Load balancing
B. Caching engines
C. QoS
D. Traffic shaping
Answer: A
Question 4.
What does the 10 stand for in 10Base-T?
A. Delay
B. Speed
C. Resistance
D. Length
Answer: B
Question 5.
Which of the following statements regarding FDDI (Fiber Distributed Data Interface) is TRUE?
A. FDDI uses CSMA / CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection) for media access
control.
B. FDDI consists of two counter rotating token rings.
C. FDDI has a maximum transmission speed of 54 Mbps.
D. FDDI has a maximum transmission distance of 1,000 meters.
Answer: B
Question 6.
Your company network has just been configured with a rogue WAP. Some workstations can??t access network resources. Why?
A. WAP DHCP is enabled
B. WEP is enabled
C. WAP gateway address is not configured properly
D. WEP key is not valid
Answer: A
Question 7.
A large company with five-thousand local users must make sure that all users could access needed Internet resources with the least amount of latency.
Which of the following will permit the network to maximize response time?
A. Install multiple DNSservers onsite
B. Install a DHCP server
C. Install an additional Application Server
D. Install multiple NICs
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which IEEE standard describes Thinnet?
A. 802.3a
B. 802.3ab
C. 802.3ae
D. 802.3u
Answer: A
Question 9.
A client workstation is unable to connect to the network due to having not been assigned an IP address.
Which server is MOST likely the problem?
A. DNS
B. WINS
C. DHCP
D. FTP
Answer: C
Question 10.
Look at the following items carefully, which is the approximate standard data transmission rate in both directions for a T1 line?
A. 1.54Mbps
B. 44.73Mbps
C. 6.31Mbps
D. 10.54Mbps
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Javier copies a file named "secret" from a folder named "restricted" to a folder named "open". Both folders reside on the same NTFS partition. What happens to the permissions on the file named "secret"?
A. The file inherits the target directory's permissions
B. The file loses its permissions and is assigned to the Everyone group
C. The retains the permissions it has before it was copied
D. The file is copied into the new directory and the old file is deleted, all permissions are retained.
Answer: A
Explanation:
On a copy, permissions are inherited from the target folder. However, if it was a move, then the permissions move with the file, as long as it is on the same partition.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The new permissions are inherited from the target folder. It is not assigned to the everyone group unless that is what the target folder permissions were set at.
C: Permissions are retained on a MOVE, not a COPY.
D: This is really a move operation, not a copy.
Question 2.
Which of the following steps is necessary to add a new device driver to a Linux machine?
A. Copy the device driver to the device driver directory.
B. Extend the Linux kernel by incorporating the device code.
C. Insert the device into the Linux system and allow the system to choose the device files from its
device directory.
D. Insert the cd-rom with the device driver into the machine Linux will detect it and prompt you
through installation.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The process of adding the device driver is done by extending the Linux kernel.
Incorrect Answers:
A: There are directories on Linux for source and executables, but moving code to these directories does not automatically install the device driver.
C: Linux does not currently provide this plug-n-play type of operation, the drivers must be explicitly added through commands to extend the kernel and make the device driver part of that extension.
D: Linux does not currently provide this plug-n-play type of operation, the drivers must be explicitly added through commands to extend the kernel and make the device driver part of that extension.
Question 3.
Nora is a site administrator for a large e-commerce site. She notices that the site is running slower and taking longer to process transactions.
What should Nora first do to trouble shoot the problem?
A. Identify any bottlenecks in the current system by using the site diagnostic tools such as web
trends.
B. Apply any necessary patches to the software running the site.
C. Monitor the CPU usage of the server running the site by using Windows NT performance
monitor.
D. Test the site using different connection speeds to verify whether the connection is running
more slowly.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The first thing to do is see what tasks are using the most CPU resources. In Windows NT, the Performance Monitor is the tool that will provide this monitoring.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The site diagnostic tools do not provide enough detail information for troubleshooting this problem. Since CPU processing performance needs to be monitored, a Operating System level tool ill b required.
B: Applying the patches may fix the problem, or make it worse. The first thing that should be done is to analyze the problem, and not just throw on fixes and other code HOPING that the problem may go away. Getting to know the problem helps to identify what is really wrong, and to apply the correct fix or course of action.
D: The observation that the site is running lower implied that the CPU had bottlenecks. Running at different communications speeds would only detect network bottlenecks, not CPU bottlenecks. There I no indication in this question that the network was being congested.
Question 4.
Ingrid is a Red Hat Linux system administrator. She is installing apache on her Linux server.
Which command should Ingrid execute to determine whether apache is already installed?
A. ps aus|grep apache
B. lynx apache
C. rpm -q apache
D. rpm -i apache
Answer: C
Explanation:
Red Hat Packet Manager (RPM) commands are used on Red Hat Linux. A query is issued to determine if apache is already there.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Running process status and a grep command (to search the active list) will not provide the information. If the apache server is running, then you caught it, but if the apache server is installed and not running, you will miss it.
B: There is no lynx command.
D: Although we need to run a RPM command, the -I form of the command does not provide the information we need.
Question 5.
Denise is the system administrator of a Linux system. She notices that whenever a specific process is running the performance of the system declines severely.
What can Denise do to learn exactly how the process affects her system?
A. Use the top program to see if the program is CPU-intensive.
B. Use performance monitor to monitor the process.
C. Kill the process and observe the result.
D. Use pine to check the process.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The TOP program will provide an interactive screen with information similar to the ps command, and will display performance statistics.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Performance monitor is a Windows term, and is not used in Linux. Performance tools available in Linux are: ps, top, and vmstat.
C: Killing the process will lose the necessary information on how the process degraded the system and affected it. Denise needs to see the effect, ad this has to be done while the task is running and still doing its damage.
D: Pine is a mail program, and does not provide performance checking.
Question 6.
Nadir installed a Perl script in the cgi-bin directory of his Linux system that is running apache server. NO significant modifications have been made to Apache server. He accesses a script named test.cgi via a web browser, but the script does not execute, and Apache server returns a 500 "Internal Server Error" message. Nadir executes the command is-al on the cgi-bin directory of the problem server. He learns that the permissions on test.cgi are 700, and that the file is owned by root.
Which command should Nadir enter to ensure that his Perl script will execute securely?
A. Chmod 711 test.cgi
B. Chmod test.cgi 100.
C. Chown apache test.cgi.
D. Chmod.test.cgi 711
Answer: A
Explanation:
The format is chmod xxx filename. 711 Allows full access to the owner, and read access to all others.
Incorrect Answers:
B: This is the wrong syntax of the command, and 100 would restrict the owner to read only and everyone else is still locked out.
C: Change owner will not correct the situation, it is a permission issue.
D: This is the wrong syntax of the command, the permission number 711 comes before the filename.
Question 7.
Stephen has been assigned to install two apache web servers. He only has hardware for one server. So he decides to create a virtual server to host the second site that he will host.
Which file should Stephen edit to set the virtual servers attributes?
A. Httpd.conf
B. Linux.conf.
C. Access.conf
D. Magic.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Directives for the Apache Web server are stored in the httpd.conf file.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Linux.conf doesn't hold virtual server attributes.
C: Access.conf is used for access control, to control which directories people can access.
D: Virtual server attributes are not saved in a Magic file.
Question 8.
Which of the following services is an example of a Mail Transfer Agent (MTA)?
A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
B. Post Office Protocol version3 (POP3)
C. Microsoft Outlook.
D. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Mail Transfer Agent is responsible for transmission of mail between servers. SMTP performs that function.
Incorrect Answers:
B: POP3 is a protocol used by a mail client to read mail off the server. It is not used for server to server mail transfer.
C: Microsoft Outlook is a Mail User Agent (MUA), which can be customized to use either POP3 or IMAP to read mail from the mail server.
D: IMAP is a protocol used by a mail client to read mail off the server. It is not used for server to server mail transfer.
Question 9.
Jim is configuring his new mail server but he can't remember the well-known port for SMTP.
What should Jim configure his mail server?
A. Jim should configure the server using port 80.
B. Jim should configure the server using port 25.
C. Jim should configure the server using port 23.
D. Jim should configure the server using port 24.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The well known port for SMTP is 25.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Port 80 is the well known port for HTTP
C: Port 23 is the well known port for Telnet.
D: Port 24 is not assigned as a well known port.
Question 10.
Frank is a system administrator for a large network. His company has a large DNS structure that he does not want to reveal to outsiders. He alters the SMTP headers of all messages so that his users appear to be sending mails from a different address.
What is the name of process that Frank implemented?
A. Aliasing.
B. Masquerading.
C. Forwarding.
D. Relaying.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Masquerading is the proper technical term for the process of changing SMPT headers to make the origins of the messages appear as if they came from a different source.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Aliasing allows the use of nicknames, the address itself is not hidden in this process, so Frank would not be able to hide anything but user information.
C: Forwarding will forward the messages, but the headers are preserved and Frank has not hidden anything.
D: Relaying is when an intermediate mail server, or hub, is used to pass mail from server to server. Headers are preserved, so nothing is hidden and the original IP addresses and domain names are exposed.
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Question 1. The goals for effective usability in an e-commerce site are to get customers to: A. find, compare and revisit. B. visit, learn and return. C. find, learn and review. D. visit, learn and purchase. Answer: D Question 2. Which of the following is the most effective way to build community with your online storefront? A. Provide a quantity discount. B. Generate an automatic order confirmation. C. Create an incentive-based program. D. Accept several different payment options. Answer: C Question 3. Which of the following is often used in place of photo identification and a signature whenever a credit card is used in an e-commerce transaction? A. Billing address verification B. Cookies deposited by the site's shopping cart C. The purchaser's public key D. Information verified by a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) company Answer: A Question 4. The details of an e-commerce site order can be kept in memory, stored on the visitor's computer or stored on the Web server. This ability to remember the details of an order is known as: A. persisting an order. B. profiling an order. C. tracking an order. D. filling the shopping cart. Answer: A Question 5. You are transitioning from a traditional "brick-and-mortar storefront that accepts credit cards to a new e-commerce storefront. Which payment method would be most appropriate during the transition? A. Cash on delivery (c.o.d.) B. Credit card with offline processing C. Advance payment using check or money order D. Open Buying on the Internet (OBI) Answer: B Question 6. Which of the following site creation models would be most appropriate for a site needing easy administration and implementation as well as minimal business owner control? A. Online instant storefront B. Mid-level offline instant storefront C. Mid-level online instant storefront D. High-level offline instant storefront Answer: A Question 7. Before you can conduct usability testing, you should: A. identify the most-traveled path of your site. B. publish your site to a production server. C. identify browser compatibility issues. D. identify your potential customers. Answer: D Question 8. You are planning to install a database server in a mission-critical environment. What is the best way to ensure continuous data availability and reliability? A. Install a multiprocessor server. B. Establish a strict security policy. C. Provide fail-over clustering. D. Install multiple hot-swappable hard disk drives. Answer: C Question 9. A customer has placed an online order. The order has been written to a database for processing and the customer's credit card has been charged. What is the last interaction with the customer during the order process? A. Redirect the customer to the home page. B. Send a confirmation e-mail message to the customer. C. Update the customer profile. D. Send a shipping notification via e-mail to the customer. Answer: B Question 10. Which of the following is the most effective option for detecting a site attack by someone who wants to modify your customer database? A. Using antivirus software B. Implementing a firewall C. Limiting the open ports on the system D. Using an intrusion detection system Answer: D
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