|
Hello Guys send your new foundation dumps here. Regards,
|
dumps Needed!!!! plz help me thanks
|
Question 1.
What is the maximum number of delegates that may be assigned to a single employee?
A. Two
B. As many as are in the class assigned to the user.
C. One
D. Unlimited
Answer: D
Question 2.
How is the user count defined in Personal Data Keeper?
A. It is determined by the database server license.
B. Each User ID is considered one license.
C. Personal Data Keeper licenses are concurrent, not based on specific users.
D. Great Plains user licenses transfer to Personal Data Keeper licenses.
Answer: B
Question 3.
In order to install Project Time and Expense for Business Portal, which of the following must be true?
A. The installer must be a user in Great Plains.
B. The installer must have administrator rights to the SQL server being used.
C. The system must have registered Payroll applications.
D. The installer must be a Microsoft Business Solutions master certified technician.
Answer: B
Question 4.
What do Administrator privileges allow a user to do?
A. Perform inquiries on other users transactions.
B. Set up new users in Personal Data Keeper.
C. Override Manager or Supervisor settings for approvals.
D. Enter a timesheet for another employee.
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which of the following statements best describes offline support in Personal Data Keeper?
A. It uses the offline tables stored in the local Personal Data Keeper directory to store timesheets
and expense reports.
B. Creates timesheets and expense reports and saves them rather than submit them.
C. Uses Personal Data Keeper without also having Project Accounting open.
D. Uses Personal Data Keeper without selecting a project and cost category.
Answer: A
Question 6.
When using weekly timesheet reporting periods, which of the following is a true statement about Personal Data Keeper timesheets?
A. If a timesheet transaction has been started using a certain timesheet layout it cannot be
changed.
B. A single timesheet entered in the weekly layout can be changed to ate-based but all billing
notes A single timesheet entered in the weekly layout can be changed to ate-based but all
billing notes will be lost.
C. A single timesheet can be edited at any time using either the weekly or date-based layout.
D. The layout can be changed during the timesheet approval process.
Answer: C
Question 7.
If the Administrator component is NOT selected during installation, which of the following will be unavailable?
A. User/User Class Setup
B. System registration
C. Security options
D. Timesheet approval
Answer: A, B, C
Question 8.
Which role is necessary in order to add or remove users in Business Portal for use with Project Time and Expense?
A. Employee
B. Manager
C. Administrator
D. Back Office user
Answer: C
Question 9.
What does it mean when the Administrator Approvals box is marked in either of the transaction approval windows in Personal Data Keeper?
A. An Administrator is required to approve the transactions listed.
B. The user has entered the approval window using Administrator privileges.
C. The transactions listed have been approved by an Administrator already.
D. Administrators can ‘final approve’ a transaction even if two approvals are required.
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which of the following best describes how the account sources under Setup - Project – Project are used?
A. They are not used.
B. To keep track of the accounts.
C. They are the General Ledger account sources for any project transactions.
D. They are default General Ledger account sources for new projects.
Answer: D
|
Question 1. If a user creates a time code for sick time without pay in Attendance, what time type should be assigned to the time code? A. Benefit B. Absent C. Hourly D. Miscellaneous Answer: B Question 2. If a user creates a time code for sick time with pay in Attendance, what time type should be assigned to the time code? A. Benefit B. Absent C. Hourly D. Miscellaneous Answer: A Question 3. Which of the following is true about the applicant hire process in Human Resources? A. The applicant is added to the Employee file. B. The applicant is deleted from the applicant file. C. An employee ID must be entered when you hire the applicant. D. Some information about the applicant is transferred to an employee record. Answer: A, C, D Question 4. If an applicant is hired, which of the following information will the system transfer to their employee record? A. Skills B. Education C. Interviews D. Applicant User Defined information Answer: A, B Question 5. On the Setup Accruals window in Attendance, which of the following accrue By options should be used if all employees receive 40 hrs of sick time at the beginning of each year? A. Hr/Yr B. Interval C. Pay Period D. Post Once Answer: B Question 6. In the Attendance Transaction Transfer window, what does the checkbox indicate next to a transaction? A. The transaction needs to be posted. B. The transaction has been previously posted. C. The transaction has been voided. D. The transaction has been marked for posting. Answer: B Question 7. When pay periods are set up in Attendance, how many years need to be set up to avoid problems? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 5 Answer: C Question 8. How many applications can be entered into the system for an applicant? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. Unlimited Answer: D Question 9. Which of the following statements are true about Attendance? A. Attendance is optional to use for Payroll transactions. B. Attendance can be used as a “stand alone” system independent from Payroll. C. Attendance has to be used for Payroll transactions if Human Resources are loaded. D. If Attendance is being used, Payroll Mass Transaction Entry is disabled. Answer: A, B Question 10. When linking time codes in Attendance to pay codes in Payroll, which of the following statements is true? A. An “absent” time code should not be linked to a pay code. B. Time codes are linked to pay codes for W-2 processing. C. Time codes and pay codes are for information only. D. Time codes and pay codes with the same ID will be automatically be linked. Answer: A
|
Question 1.
In the Manufacturing Sales Order Prefs window (Setup > Sales > Sales Order Proc > Extras > Manufacturing Sales Order Prefs) what are the MFG Order Status choices for an MO created by entering a Sales Order?
A. Open or Released
B. Quote/Estimate or Open
C. Firmed or Hold
D. Hold or Complete
Answer: A
Question 2.
When configuring an item, what happens when an item option is selected that is excluded by an earlier option selection?
A. An alert message will be displayed, telling you that the item selections are incompatible and
the user can continue adding other options
B. An alert message will be displayed, telling you that the item selections are incompatible and
the user cannot continue adding other options
C. An alert message will not be displayed and the user can continue adding other options
D. An alert message will not be displayed and the user cannot continue adding other options
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which of the following Inquiry Windows will display MRP generated information? Choose the 4 that apply.
A. MRP View
B. MRP Workbench
C. MRP Quantity Pegging
D. MRP Item Inquiry
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question 4.
CRP Released View for employee and machine in the CRP View Window includes which of the following manufacturing orders?
A. Open
B. Complete
C. Quote
D. Released
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which of the following routing times are calculated on a per piece basis? Choose the 2 that apply.
A. Setup Time
B. Labor Time
C. Machine Time
D. Queue Time
Answer: B, C
Question 6.
When a work center has been entered and saved which of the following statements are true?
A. The work center is assigned as a default
B. The work center is automatically excluded from MPP calculations
C. An inventory site record has been created
D. The work center is automatically assigned to all items
Answer: C
Question 7.
What is the purpose of the BOM Security window?
A. Control who has access to the BOM Entry window
B. Ensure a bill of material will not be changed
C. Used to audit who made the last update to a BOM
D. Used to see who has a bill of material record currently in use or locked
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which of the following is a valid order policy in Manufacturing? Choose the 3 that apply.
A. Lot for Lot
B. Period Order Quantity
C. Manufacture Order Policy
D. Fixed Order Quantity
Answer: A, B, D
Question 9.
Which statement below best defines Fixed Quantity?
A. The quantity of the component item that is required for every manufacturing order, regardless
of the order quantity
B. The quantity of the component item that is required to make one finished good
C. The quantity of the finished good at the end of production
D. A fixed quantity can not be entered on the BOM
Answer: A
Question 10.
Before a bill of material can be used in manufacturing order entry, what dates will affect the use of this bill of material?
A. The system does not validate dates for bill of materials
B. The component in/out dates and MO end date
C. The BOM effective date and component in/out dates
D. The allocation dates on the pick list
Answer: C
|
Question 1.
Which of the following statements below are a part of the seven (7) steps on the Roadmap to Success for a Successful Software implementation? Choose the 2 that apply.
A. Make the implementation as simple as possible
B. Provide training only for the project team members during the implementation
C. Perform a thorough analysis of each department using the application
D. Always postpone any discussion regarding modifications until a later phase
Answer: A, C
Question 2.
When applying successful software implementation methodology, tools available to assist you in analyzing, planning and scheduling your implementation include (but are not limited to) which of the following? Choose the 2 that apply.
A. Concepts and Planning Guide
B. Project Definition Document
C. Technical Systems Survey
D. Statement of Work
Answer: A, D
Question 3.
Which of the following statements regarding PM Events is TRUE?
A. PM Events may be attached to multiple PM Schedules
B. PM Events may only be attached to one PM Schedule
C. PM Events may be attached to equipment records
D. PM Events may be attached to contracts
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which of the following statements is true regarding multi-currency and Contracts?
A. Contract Billing will follow the practice of retrieving the current exchange rate at each contract
billing only on monthly contracts where the create revenue option is marked.
B. Contract Billing will follow the practice of using the contract header’s exchange rate at each
contract billing for all monthly contracts.
C. Contract Billing will follow the practice of retrieving the current exchange rate at each contract
billing only on monthly contracts where the create revenue option is un-marked.
D. Contract Billing will follow the practice of using the contract line’s exchange rate at each
contract billing for all monthly contracts.
Answer: C
Question 5.
What does the status of PM Cancelled in the PM History window attached to an Equipment record indicate about a PM service call?
A. The PM service call was created and then deleted without ever being set to a completed status
B. The PM requirement was created in the Generate Edit List routine but was cancelled in the PM
Transactions edit list
C. The Service Call was created in the PM Transactions edit list, but was deleted in Service Call
maintenance
D. The PM Schedule was deleted from the contract and never generated
Answer: B
Question 6.
In which of the following documents should modifications be identified and documented?
A. In the Post Implementation Review
B. In the Statement of Work
C. In the Project Timeline
D. In the Requirements Analysis
Answer: B
Question 7.
Successful Software Implementation methodology recommends complex modifications and system integrations be completed at which of the following stages or phases of the entire project?
A. During the Analysis Phase
B. During Phase 2 of the Project
C. Implement prior to the “go live” of Phase 1
D. During Phase 1 of the Project
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which of the following standard Microsoft Dynamics GP features are supported by the Field Service Series? Choose the 3 that apply.
A. Multi-Bins
B. Lot-tracked inventory
C. Extended Pricing
D. Named Printers
Answer: A, C, D
Question 9.
In which dictionary are the original Field Service Series reports located?
A. Dynamics.dic
B. Reports.dic
C. FRMS949.dic
D. SRVCADV.dic
Answer: D
Question 10.
Which of the following statements about successful software deployment is TRUE?
A. Pilot everything and time-phase the implementation
B. Pilot everything only when all Field Service modules will be used/implemented
C. Implement one Field Service module in each phase.
D. Pilot everything only when integrations and customizations are present
Answer: A
|
Question 1.
What program do you use to set up SQL back up jobs?
A. SQL Profiler
B. Solomon Database Maintenance
C. Enterprise Manager
D. Service Manager
Answer: C
Question 2.
You wish to deploy Solomon in an environment with 34 concurrent users. Which Solomon edition needs to be installed?
A. Single-User Solomon Standard Edition
B. Multi-User Solomon Standard Edition
C. Solomon Enterprise Edition
D. Solomon Professional
Answer: D
Question 3.
Solomon’s access security functions include which of the following?
A. Controlling who can and cannot log into Solomon.
B. Enabling and disabling Microsoft Access database security functions.
C. identifying Solomon database users and groups.
D. Controlling who does and does not have access rights to certain Solomon windows.
Answer: A, C, D
Question 4.
Which of the following are key elements of the computer system inventory you should conduct before installing Solomon?
A. Document network interface card (NIC) data
B. Verify available RAM meets recommendations
C. Verify available hard drive space
D. Verif you have a backup keyboard
Answer: A, B, C
Question 5.
Which of the following cannot be installed from the Solomon CD(s)?
A. Seagate Crystal Reports
B. Solomon Tools for Visual Basic
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Solomon Kernel (SWIM)
Answer: C
Question 6.
Good implementation policies recommend a “pre-installation” process.
Which of the following should be included in a pre-installation process?
A. You can optionally activate Microsoft SQL Server’s referential integrity capabilities to extend
the referential integrity capabilities of Solomon.
B. Protect the data of any current accounting software that Solomon is replacing.
C. Verify adequate hardware and software resources to run Solomon.
D. Obtain the tools and resources used before, during and after the installation of Solomon
program files.
Answer: B, C, D
Question 7.
Which Microsoft versions of Windows are supported for a Solomon client installation?
A. Windows 95
B. Windows 2003
C. Windows XP
D. Windows 2000
Answer: B, C, D
Question 8.
What resources does the Solomon Kernel, Swimapi.dlI, interface with?
A. Customization Manager module
B. Application modules and report writers
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Internet Explorer
Answer: A, B, C
Question 9.
When consulting with a customer in regard to needed hard disk space for Solomon databases, which of the following responses would you choose?
A. A typical system and application database together will not require more than 100 MBs
B. A typical system and application database together will require a minimum of 1 GB required
C. A typical system and application database together need anywhere from 30 GBs to several
hundred GBs
D. A typical system and application database together need anywhere from 300 MBs to several
GBs
Answer: D
Question 10.
Which of the following can increase a Solomon Application database’s hard disk storage requirements?
A. The volume of transactions processed
B. The Solomon modules being used
C. Transaction detail retention settings
D. Installation of application help files
Answer: A, B, C
|
Question 1.
Which of the following are rules for Invoice Posting?
A. Specify the Accounts Receivable account that is used for posting.
B. Define the General Ledger postings when an invoice is posted using Invoice & Adjustment
Posting.
C. Determine whether transactions will post to the project, the General Ledger, or both.
D. Define whether retention is calculated and posted on the project.
Answer: B
Question 2.
For each Report ID in Invoice Maintenance, for example, BI010, nine others exist, for example BI011 through BI019. How are these reports used?
A. The existing BI010 can be customized and saved as BI011 through BI019 to allow for different
invoice formats.
B. Only the base report, BI010 is an actual report. BI011 through BI019 are empty Crystal Report
flies which must be created from scratch
C. The base reports, such as BI010, are used for invoices and the other reports BI011 through
BI019 are used for aging reports.
D. The base reports, such as BI010, are used for invoices created in Invoice & Adjustment
Maintenance and the other reports BI011 through BI019 are used for Scheduled Billings and
Construction Billing reports.
Answer: A
Question 3.
How is a previously posted Construction Billing Application reversed?
A. In Invoice Reversal & Duplication
B. By changing the status of the Application to In Process.
C. Construction Billing Applications cannot be reversed, but a correcting Application can be
issued.
D. By applying a credit memo in Accounts Receivable.
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which status will invoices generated by the Automatic Invoice creation process have?
A. In Process
B. Completed
C. Balanced
D. Posted
Answer: B
Question 5.
What does “Recap” in Invoice Format Maintenance refer to?
A. Subtotaling a section on the invoice.
B. Restating invoice line items without adding them into the invoice total.
C. Summarizing invoice transactions rather than showing them in detail.
D. Including the referenced sections in the invoice total.
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which is true about Billing Transaction Load?
A. It can be automated to run after Allocation Processor.
B. It is always an optional process.
C. It copies transactions from the Allocator to Flexible Billings.
D. It copies transactions from PJTRAN to PJINVDET.
Answer: A, D
Question 7.
How is the invoice date in Invoice Print used?
A. It informational only; the date used is actually the current date.
B. It assigned as the invoice date during Final Print but not for Preliminary or Reprint.
C. It assigned as the invoice date during Preliminary Invoice Print.
D. It informational only; the current date is assigned as the invoice date during Invoice &
Adjustment Posting.
Answer: B
Question 8.
Invoice Reversal & Duplication can duplicate an invoice from month to month.
What other process can generate a fixed billing amount each month?
A. Automatic Invoice Creation
B. Invoice & Adjustment Maintenance
C. Scheduled Billings & Revenue
D. Construction Billing
Answer: C
Question 9.
If part of a billing transaction is put on Hold in Invoice & Adjustment Maintenance what is the result?
A. The Hold Units and Amount are available the next time an invoice is created.
B. The Hold Units and Amount appear as an adjustment to the next invoice.
C. The invoice must be defined as adjustment doc type.
D. The Hold Units and Amount are written off to the adjustment account in Billing Rules.
Answer: A
Question 10.
If multiple line items in Invoice Format Maintenance use the same section number, they:
A. Will automatically be summarized into one line item when the invoice prints.
B. May be summarized on the invoice if the information for the selected Section Type is the
same.
C. Should use the same Subtotal, Recap and Section Descriptions.
D. Must have the same Account Category.
Answer: B, C
|
Question 1.
Deploying Virtual Machines from Templates Deploying a virtual machine from template generally refers to two steps:
A. The process of creating the template's disks and virtual hardware configuration, and running
the guest customization wizard
B. The process of creating a copy of the template's disks and virtual hardware configuration, and
running the guest customization wizard
C. After some onetime setup tasks are required in order to run the guest customization wizard,
the process of deploying and customizing virtual machines is seamless and efficient.
D. After some onetime setup tasks are required in order to run the host customization wizard, the
process of deploying and customizing virtual machines is seamless and efficient.
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
Deploying Virtual Machines from Templates
Deploying a virtual machine from template generally refers to two steps: The process of creating a copy of the template's disks and virtual hardware configuration, and running the guest customization wizard. After some onetime setup tasks are required in order to run the guest customization wizard, the process of deploying and customizing virtual machines is seamless and efficient.
Question 2.
Which four is NOT default Roles in Virtual Center? (Select 4)
A. No Access
B. Full Access
C. Read Only
D. Administrator
E. Admin (Read Only)
F. Virtual Machine Administrator
G. Datacenter Administrator
H. Virtual Machine Power User
I. Virtual Machine Full Access User
J. Virtual Machine User
K. Resource Pool Administrator
L. Resource Pool Read Only
Answer: B, E, I , L
Explanation:
ROLES
No Access
Read Only
Administrator
Virtual Machine Administrator
Datacenter Administrator
Virtual Machine Power User
Virtual Machine User
Resource Pool Administrator
Question 3.
Which three are NOT available Privileges within the Roles? (Select three)
A. Local Only
B. Global
C. Datacenter
D. Folder
E. Performance
F. Data Store
G. Scheduled Task
H. Network
I. Host
J. Virtual Center
K. Virtual Machine
L. Permissions
M. Resource
N. Alarms
O. Sessions
P. Privileges
Q. Permissions
Answer: A, J, P
Explanation:
PRIVILEGES
Global
Folder
Datacenter
Data Store
Network
Host
Virtual Machine
Resource
Alarms
Scheduled Task
Sessions
Performance
Permissions
Question 4.
Datacenters act as the namespace boundary for these objects.
You cannot have two objects (for example, two hosts) with the same name in the same datacenter.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
Datacenters act as the namespace boundary for these objects. You cannot have two objects (for example, two hosts) with the same name in the same datacenter, but you can have two objects with the same name in different datacenters.
Question 5.
You can VMotion between compatible hosts from two different datacenters, if managed by the same Virtual Center?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
Because of the namespace property, VMotion is permitted between any two compatible hosts within a datacenter, but even powered off virtual machines cannot be moved between hosts in different datacenters. Moving an entire host between two datacenters is permitted.
Question 6.
What is the maximum virtual disk size on a VMFS3 volume?
A. 250 GB
B. 512 GB
C. 1 TB
D. 2 TB
E. 2.6 TB
F. 3 TB
G. 3.6 TB
H. 4 TB
I. There is no maximum size.
Answer: D
Question 7.
During the installation of ESX Server, you decide to manually define the portioning scheme.
Which two are recommend minimum partition sizes? Select two.
A. /boot = 512 MB
B. Swap = 544 MB
C. / =2500 MB
D. /usr =2048MB
E. /etc =1500 MB
Answer: B, C
Question 8.
What are three requirements for a VMware HA cluster? Select three
A. name resolution between all hosts
B. identical type and quantity of CPUs in each host
C. access to shared storage from all hosts
D. access to the virtual machine networks from all hosts
E. Private Gigabit Ethernet network for all hosts.
Answer: A, C, D
Explanation:
Clusters Enabled for HA
For clusters enabled for HA, all virtual machines and their configuration files must reside on shared storage (typically a SAN), because you must be able to power on the virtual machine on any host in the cluster. This also means that the hosts must be configured to have access to the same virtual machine network and to other resources.
Each host in an HA cluster must be able to resolve the host name and IP address of all other hosts in the cluster.
To achieve this, you can either set up DNS on each host (preferred) or fill in the /etc/hosts entries manually (error prone and discouraged).
Question 9.
Exhibit:
You work as a administrator at ITCertKeys.com. In this scenario the server has not been modified from the default program.
Given the information shown in the exhibit, which three statements are true? Select three.
A. HBA Failover occlude
B. LUN has four paths
C. LUN is on an Active/Active array
D. Preferred Path is vmhba2:2:0
E. LUN is on an Active/Passive array.
Answer: B, D, E
Explanation:
Are the only other thing that make sense, but there is no asterisk next to the Active HBA.
Question 10.
How does ESX Server 3.x differ from VMware Server 1.x?
A. ESX Server 3.x supports multiple processors in a virtual machine and VMware Server 1.x does
not.
B. ESX Server 3.x supports Intranet and application servers in a production environment and
VMware Server 1.x does not.
C. ESX Server 3.x manages the virtualization server application remotely through a web based
interface and VMware Server 1.x does not.
D. ESX Server 3.x supports virtual switches with VLAN capabilities and VMware Server 1.x does
not.
E. ESX Server 3.x runs on top of Linux and VMware Server 1.x does not.
Answer: D
Explanation:
VMware Server does not support VLAN
Not A: VMware Server also supports SMP
|
Question 1.
Navisphere CLI is typically installed with what other software package?
A. Navisphere Manager
B. Host Agent
C. AccessLogix
D. PowerPath
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which two statements about Storage Area Networks (SANs) are true? (Choose two.)
A. SANs enable the sharing of storage resources via IP / Ethernet networking.
B. SANs enable the sharing of storage resources across a high speed, low latency, Fibre
Channel network.
C. SANs provide block level I/O access to storage resources.
D. SANs provide file level I/O access to storage resources.
Answer: B, C
Question 3.
Which three statements are correct about zoning with Brocade switches? (Choose three.)
A. Zoning configuration information is stored on the hosts.
B. Zone aliases are not required to define a zone.
C. A zone can be included in more than one zone configuration.
D. Each zone must be given a unique name.
E. Each device can be included in only one zone.
Answer: B, C, D
Question 4.
Which term is another name for hard zoning in Fibre Channel switches?
A. soft zoning
B. WWN zoning
C. port zoning
D. switch zoning
Answer: C
Question 5.
Where is the Host Agent privileged user list stored?
A. on the Storage Area Network (SAN) for central access
B. in an administrative share on the host server for host-to-host replication
C. both locally and remotely on the SAN
D. each Host Agent maintains its own local copy
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which utility should you use to add LUN management functionality to a server when using SAN Copy?
A. admhost
B. naviadm
C. admcopy
D. admsnap
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which three statements about a GigaBit Interface Converter (GBIC) are true? (Choose three.)
A. Single-mode optical can be used for long wavelength transmissions.
B. A GBIC can convert the SCSI protocol intoFibre Channel.
C. Multi-mode optical can be used for short wavelength transmissions.
D. Small form pluggable LC transceivers build upon the GBIC standard.
E. A GBIC terminates aFibre loop.
Answer: A, C, D
Question 8.
Which two components of a CX700 array do the standby power supplies connect to? (Choose two.)
A. The left and right power distribution units (PDUs)
B. Storage Processor Enclosure (SPE)
C. the first Disk Array Enclosure (DAE2-OS)
D. Disk Processor Enclosure (DPE)
Answer: B, C
Question 9.
Which three statements are correct about using SnapView? (Choose three.)
A. SnapView can take snapshots, or point-in-time copies of LUNs.
B. SnapView can make clones, or 100% duplicate copies of a LUN.
C. Snapshots can take mere seconds to create.
D. Snapshots are volume-level and thus able to restore specific files.
E. Snapshots may be created using theadmhost CLI utility.
Answer: A, B, C
Question 10.
What are four characteristics of World Wide Names (WWNs)? (Choose four.)
A. WWNs consist of a 128-bit value comprising a 64-bit node name and a 64-bit port name.
B. WWNs can be used in an IP NIC.
C. WWNs are used to route SAN data and provide zoning and failover functionality.
D. Each device has a pre-defined, unique address.
E. More than one WWN can exist in a single host if the host contains multiple Host Bus Adapters
(HBAs).
Answer: A, C, D, E
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.