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Question 1.
Which three are true statements about Calling Search Space?
A. Calling Search Space are ordered lists of partitions
B. Calling Search Space are assigned to devices, phones, and gateways
C. Calling Search Space are assigned to directory numbers and route patterns
D. Call manager looks through the caller's Calling Search Space when searching for the caller's
detailed number.
Answer: A, B, D
Reference:
Troubleshooting Cisco IP Telephony, ISBN: 1-58705-075-7, pages 469-473
Question 2.
Which of the following web browsers does the Administrative Reporting Tool (ART) support?
A. Mosaic 6.1
B. Opera 2.5
C. Netscape 4.5
D. Internet Explorer 5.0
Answer: C, D
Question 3.
Place an "M" next to Multiple site deployment issues and an "I" next to Individual Campus deployment issues.
Answer:
Question 4.
The Administrative Reporting Tool can be loaded on which server operating systems?
A. Unix
B. Windows 2000
C. Windows NT 4.0
D. MAC OS 10
Answer: A, B, C
Question 5.
Which three ART reports are scheduled, by default to run automatically once per month?
A. QoS summary
B. Traffic
C. Gateway
D. Call Report
E. Department bill
F. System Overview
Answer: A, C, F
References:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/voicesw/ps556/products_user_guide_chapter09186a00800c26df.html#1105819
Under Automatic Report Generation/Alert
Reference:
Troubleshooting Cisco IP Telephony, ISBN: 1-58705-075-7, pages 89-90 CMRs contain data such as packets sent and received, packets lost, and jitter for the duration of a call.
Question 6.
Which data are part of the information used to link a Call Detail Record (CDR) with its corresponding Call Management Record (CMR)?
A. ID of IP phone
B. ID of Call Manager server
C. Number of packets sent in call
D. Directory number of the source
E. The ID of the Gateway.
Answer: A, B, D
Question 7.
Where are Call Detail Record (CDR) and Call Management Record (CMR) data initially recorded?
A. Database of the publisher CallManager server.
B. Database of the registered CallManager server.
C. Application log of the publisher CallManager server.
D. Application log of the registered CallManager server.
Answer: A
Question 8.
On one end of a Frame Relay circuit is the Call Manager (CCM) server.
All of the phones connected to a particular router on the other end can register but cannot connect calls. What is the probable cause of this situation?
A. The Frame Relay interface is not set to duplex.
B. The router is not passing packets toward the CCM server.
C. An ACL is blocking either voice IP port or protocol access.
D. The subnet mask on the router located on the CCM side is set incorrectly.
Answer: C
Question 9.
What is the default value of Bc on a Cisco router?
A. 1/16 of CIR
B. 1/12 of Cir
C. 1/8 of CIR
D. 1/3 of CIR
Answer: C
Question 10.
What does a media stream between devices with the call manager environment utilize for its transport protocol?
A. SDL
B. RTP
C. SCCP
D. MGCP
E. OSPF
Answer: B
Reference:
Troubleshooting Cisco IP Telephony, ISBN: 1-58705-075-7, pages 56, 57
Question 11.
In trying to isolate a problem using CMRs which spreadsheet function is most helpful?
A. sort
B. edit
C. format
D. calculate
E. Insert
Answer: A
Question 12.
A budget analyst notices that long-distance charges have increased dramatically in the past month. Total calls have NOT increased.
What is a likely cause?
A. Calls are routing to the PSTN instead of the WAN link.
B. The route plan is sending local calls over long distance.
C. Off-net calls are being routed first to another cluster, causing higher costs.
D. Telephones at the remote site are using the long distance lines for local calls.
E. Telephones at the Local site are using the long distance lines for local calls.
Answer: A
Question 13.
When you export only one Call Detail Record (CDR) table at a time, in what format should the file be?
A. raw file
B. text file
C. csv file
D. spreadsheet
E. tab file
Answer: C
Question 14.
How does Call Manager determine if a person is finished dialing?
A. Call Manager connects as soon as the dialer matches a pattern or a route.
B. Call Manager waits for the inter-digit timeout and then begins call processing.
C. The IP phone sends an "end of string" to the Call Manager indicating dialing is complete.
D. The IP phone counts digits, and dials after customizable grouping of digits (i.e., 4, 7 or 10
digits dialed).
Answer: B
Question 15.
The switchover algorithms, Graceful and Immediate, decide when a telephony device will failover.
Place a G for Graceful switchover algorithm, and an I for Immediate switchover algorithm next to the appropriate algorithm property.
Answer:
Question 16.
Within the H.323 protocol, what is used to establish media capabilities?
A. H.225
B. H.245
C. H.261
D. G.263
E. G.711
F. G.723
G. G.726
Answer: A
Explanation:
The H.225 call signaling is used to establish a connection between two H.323 endpoints. The H.245 is used to exchange end to end control messages governing the operation of the h.323 endpoint.
Question 17.
You need to look at the call detail data to find a toll fraud caller. Where is the information found?
A. Call Manager Call Detail Record (CDR) table
B. Subscriber Call Manager Call Detail Record (CDR) table
C. Publisher Call Manager application Call Detail Record (CDR) log
D. Subscriber Call Manager application Call Detail Record (CDR) log
Answer: A
Question 18.
ITCertKeys’s long distance access code is 92855. They have a branch office with the number 928-54xx. How can they avoid the Cisco Call Manager (CCM) second dial tone from playing too
early?
A. Enter 92854xx in the dial plan.
B. Enter 92855xxxxxxxxxxxx in the dial plan.
C. Uncheck "Provide Outside Dial Tone" for the pattern 9285.
D. Check the "Provide Outside Dial Tone" for the pattern 92855.
Answer: C
Question 19.
Exhibit:
In the exhibit, DTMF relay is configured for which gateways? (Select all that apply.)
A. Catalyst 6000 FXS
B. Catalyst 6000 T1/PRI
C. Cisco IOS software-based
D. Non-Cisco IOS software-based
Answer: C
Explanation:
The catalyst 6000 T1 and FXS gateways enable DTMF relay by default and do not need additional configuration to enable this feature.
Page 10-26 CIPT troubleshooting.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps708/prod_module_installation_guide09186a00801787ab.html
Question 20.
On an incoming call, the setup message contains all the digits necessary.
The voice gateway does not perform subsequent digital collection. The voice gateway does not use digit-by-digit matching. Which statement is true?
A. The call is DID.
B. The call is not DID.
C. The call is not properly formed.
D. There is not enough information to determine if the call is DID.
Answer: A
Explanation:
On DID calls (also referred to as one-stage dialing), the setup message contains all the digits necessary to route the call and the router/gateway should not do subsequent digit collection. When the router/gateway searches for an outbound dial-peer, it uses the entire incoming dial string. This matching is by default variable-length. It is not done digit-by-digit because by DID definition, all digits have been received.
Source: http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/788/voip/in_dial_peer_match.html#topic8
Question 21.
Which two parameters do you need to verify on the IIS server's virtual web directory when performing backup recovery on a Cisco Unity Server? (Choose two)
A. Directory browsing is enabled in the Virtual Directory tab.
B. Anonymous Access is unchecked in the Directory Security tab.
C. Script Only permissions are selected under the execute permissions section.
D. Read and Execute permissions are selected under the execute permissions section.
E. The default web site is configured as an application.
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
The unity sever cannot be accessed from internet explorer.
Verify internet information server permissions.
Under execute permissions, Click Script only.
Under Anonymous Access and Authentication control click edit. Confirm that the Anonymous Access box is unchecked.
Page 10-40 CIPT troubleshooting.
Question 22.
Q .931 provides what?
A. Connection control for gateway connections.
B. Connection flow control for ISDN connections.
C. Connection control and flow control for ISDN connections.
D. Connection control and flow control for H.323 connections
Answer: B
Explanation:
NOT C,D - both say 'flow control'
NOT A - q.931 deals specifically with ISDN, not gateways in general.
Q.931 is ISDN's connection control protocol, roughly comparable to TCP in the Internet protocol stack. Q.931 doesn't provide flow control or perform retransmission... source:
http://www.freesoft.org/CIE/Topics/126.htm
Question 23.
In which two formats can the Cisco Call Manager (CCM) trace file be generated? (Choose two)
A. .rtf
B. .txt
C. .xml
D. .csv
E. .doc
F. .htm
Answer: B, C
Question 24.
The output of a network monitoring tool indicates that the average traffic bandwidth utilization is 50% and peak utilization is 85%
When can VoIP applications be added to this network?
A. There is insufficient information to answer this question.
B. They can be added now because this utilization meets the required capacity.
C. They can be added when redesigning the network drops the peak utilization below 85%.
D. They can be added when redesigning the network drops the average utilization below 45%.
Answer: D
Question 25.
What does Cisco Unity use a database caching mechanism?
A. Exchange 5.5
B. Windows 2000
C. Exchange 2000
D. SQL Server 2000
Answer: D
Question 26.
You receive a startup message saying that "At least one service or driver failed during startup"
What should you check?
A. Call Viewer
B. Event Viewer
C. Status Monitor
D. Cisco Unity SA
Answer: B
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Question 1.
What is the key advantage of implementing an IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller rather than a DS4000 only storage configuration for a Business Continuity/Disaster Recovery solution?
A. 1024 LUN consistency group support for Metro Mirror
B. Dynamic RAID Migration
C. Space EfficientFlashCopy
D. Dynamic Volume Expansion
Answer: A
Question 2.
The client already has LTO2 and LTO3 tape drives and cartridges, but is concerned that LTO4 drives are too expensive. The client is currently favoring SDLT as a solution.
What is the recommended response to this client?
A. Quantum manugactures LTO4 as well as SDLT
B. LTO4 can process the client's existing tape cartridge
C. IBM announced LTO4 in April 2007
D. SDLT is a single-hub cartridge technology
Answer: B
Question 3.
What is an advantage of IBM SAN Volume Controller (SVC) virtualization over an HP Enterprise Virtual Array virtualization?
A. SVC supports more RAID levels than HP EVA
B. SVC is a SAN virtualization at the network level
C. SVC is an IBMVirutalization solution for IBM Disks
D. SVC has a broader world-wide installation base than HP EVA
Answer: B
Question 4.
The client has installed an IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller to virtualize DS400 disk systems attached to a Windows 2003 Server.
Which method is recommended to confirm the appropriate multi-path driver is installed?
A. Issue the "datapath query adapter" command to confirm subsystem device driver (SDD) is
properly configured
B. Log in to the SAN Volume Controller master console
C. Issue the "powerpath" command to confirm both SVC and DS4000 are connected to each
other
D. Use DS4000 Storage Manager to verify that MPIO/DSM driver is running correctly
Answer: A
Question 5.
A client has reached maximum power capacity going into their data center which prevents further business growth. A new facility with greater power capacity will take 12 to 18 months to build.
From an IT industry perspective, what is a description of short-term business objective that deals with this crisis?
A. Additional UPS units can be used to avoid power outage issues
B. Data can be archived to tape and stored outside the data center
C. A raised floor can use perforated tiles to increase air flow
D. Computer Room Air Conditioning (CRAC) units can be added to reduce temperature
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which resource provides information about the general availability date for a new IBM System Storage product?
A. Announcement Letter
B. Sales Manual
C. Competeline
D. Interoperability Matrix or Guide
Answer: A
Question 7.
A new client currently has a multi-tier storage environment consisting of EMC DMX subsystems. They are dissatisfied with the high costs of TimeFinder and additional disks in the DMX systems.
Which solution would provide the lowest cost alternative for providing instant copies of the DMX LUNs for backups?
A. SVC withFlashCopy and a DS4700 with SATA drives
B. SVC withFlashCopy and a DS3400 with SATA drives
C. SVC withFlashCopy and a DS3400 and a DS3400 with Fibre Channel drives
D. N5600 Gateway withSnapShot feature with DS4800 Fibre Channel drives
Answer: B
Question 8.
A customer has a requirement for 8 TB if data to be stored on tape. The customer wants the most cost-effective automated LTO4 solution.
Which solution meets the customer's requirements?
A. TS2340
B. TS3200
C. TS3310
D. TS3100
Answer: D
Question 9.
On the IBM System Storage Web Site, under which category would you find information about IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller?
A. Network Attached Storage
B. Storage Area Network
C. Disk Systems
D. Software
Answer: D
Question 10.
An IBM System Storage DS4000 LUN connected to Linux server was dynamically expanded from 500 GB to 600 GB.
Which Linux command confirms the change was performed correctly?
A. Route -n
B. Fdasd -p
C. Iostat
D. Df -h
Answer: D
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