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Braindumps for "1D0-425" Exam

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Braindumps for "642-142" Exam

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Braindumps: Dumps for 70-551 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "70-551" Exam

UPGRADE: MCAD Skills to MCPD Web Developer by Using the Microsoft .NET Framework

 Question 1.
You work as a Microsoft ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS528 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS528. All ASP.NET 1.1 Web applications hosted by IIS on ITCertKeys-WS528 are accessed on port 80.

You are required to develop a new ASP.NET inventory application named ITK_Invtry that will be integrated into ITCertKeys.com's existing e-Commerce Web site. You want to store all source files for the ITK_Invtry application in the C:\Inetpub\wwwroot\ITK_Invtry folder on TESTING-WS528. During development you must be able to access ITK_Invtry at the URL "http://localhost:80/ITK_Invtry". You need to configure the New Web site dialog box in Visual Studio 2005 to meet your requirements.

What should you do?

A. In the Location field, select File System and set the location to http://localhost/ITK_Invtry.
B. In the Location field, select HTTP and set the location to C:\Inetpub\wwwroot\ITK_Invtry.
C. In the Location field, select File System and set the location to C:\Inetpub\wwwroot\ITK_Invtry.
D. In the Location field, select HTTP and set the location to http://localhost/ITK_Invtry.

Answer: D

Explanation: 
When you select HTTP in the location field, Visual Studio 2005 will create and configure a Web application in IIS. The source files will be stored in folder associated with the Web application in IIS. By default this is a folder in C:\Inetpub\wwwroot.

Incorrect Answers:
A, C: When you select File System in the Location field, Visual studio allows you to create the Web application in a specified folder. However, you will not be able to access the application on port 80 as port 80 is used by IIS.
B: When you select HTTP in the location field, you must specify the URL for the project and not the path. The folder path must be configured in IIS.

Question 2.
You work as a Microsoft ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS528 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS528. You are developing a page named Process.aspx in a shopping cart Web application that will be integrated into ITCertKeys.com's existing e-Commerce Web site. The Process.aspx page allows customers to pay for purchases using their credit cards. The Process.aspx page contains a Button control that confirms the customer's payment and calls an external Web service that charges the customer's credit card. You must implement confirmation and prevent postback unless the customer confirms payment.

What should you do?

A. Set the OnClientCliIck property to a JavaScript statement.
B. Set the PostBackUrl property to a JavaScript statement.
C. Set the PostBackUrl property to the URL of a confirmation page.
D. Set the OnClientClick property to the URL of a confirmation page.

Answer: A

Explanation: 
The OnClientClick property allows you to override the client script that causes postback to the server. You need to use a JavaScript statement as the default action of the OnClick event of an HTML element is to submit the page. The JavaScript statement that will process the confirmation; if the customer declines the payment, the JavaScript statement will return a false to the control and postback will not occur.

Incorrect Answers:
B: The PostbackUrl property cannot be set to a JavaScript statement. It can only be set to
a URL. If it is set to a URL it will cause postback to that URL.
C: If you set the PostbackUrl property to the URL of a confirmation page as this cause the Button control to postback to the confirmation page. You must prevent postback.
D: You should set the OnClientClick property to a JavaScript statement that will process the confirmation without causing postback.

Question 3.
You work as a Microsoft ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS528 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS528. You are developing a product search page named Search.aspx for Web application that will be integrated into ITCertKeys.com's existing e-Commerce Web site. The Search.aspx page allows customers search for products that match specific criteria. The search criteria are implemented as CheckBox controls. The Search button is implemented as a Button control. You want the CheckBox controls to be cleared when the Search button is clicked.
What should you do?

A. Set the Checked property of each CheckBox to False in the designer.
    Set the EnableViewState property of each CheckBox to False in the designer.
B. Set the Checked property of each CheckBox to False in the Page_Load event handler if the 
    Search.aspx page's IsPostback property is True.
    Set the AutoPostback property of each CheckBox to False in the designer.
C. Set the Checked property of each CheckBox to False in the designer.
    Set the Checked property of each CheckBox to False in the event handler for the Search 
    button's Click event.
D. Set the EnableViewState property of each CheckBox to False in the designer. 
    Set the AutoPostback property of each CheckBox to False in the designer.

Answer: C

Explanation:
To ensure that the initial state of the CheckBox controls are clear, you must set the Checked property of each CheckBox to False in the designer. You should then set the Checked property of each CheckBox to False in the event handler for the Search button's Click event to reset the CheckBox controls to their initial state upon the Click event.

Incorrect Answers:
A: You should set the Checked property of each CheckBox to False in the designer to ensure that the initial state of the CheckBox controls are clear. But setting the EnableViewState property will not clear the CheckBox controls. The EnableViewState property determines whether the CheckBox controls should be visible or not.
B: Setting the Checked property of each CheckBox to False in the Page_Load event handler if the Search.aspx page's IsPostback property is True and the AutoPostback property of each CheckBox to False in the designer will clear the CheckBox controls whenever a postback occurs. You want the CheckBox controls to be cleared when the Search Button is clicked, not when a postback occurs.
D: The EnableViewState property determines whether the CheckBox controls should be visible or not. It does not clear the CheckBox controls. The AutoPostback property will clear the CheckBox controls whenever a postback occurs. You want the CheckBox controls to be cleared when the Search Button is clicked, not when a postback occurs.

Question 4.
You work as a Microsoft ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS528 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS528. You are developing a product search page named Search.aspx for Web application that will be integrated into ITCertKeys.com's existing e-Commerce Web site. The Search.aspx page allows customers search for products that match specific criteria. Once a product is located, you want an image of the product to be displayed. You want to use an Image control to display the image. You want to configure the Image control to display a description of the image if the image cannot be displayed in the customer's Web browser.

What should you do?

A. Set the ToolTip property of the Image control.
B. Set the ImageUrl property of the Image control.
C. Set the AlternateText property of the Image control.
D. Set the DescriptionUrl property of the Image control.

Answer: C

Explanation: 
The text entered in the AlternateText property is displayed if the image cannot be displayed in the customer's Web browser.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The text entered in the ToolTip property is displayed when the mouse hovers over the image. It is not displayed when the image cannot be displayed in the customer's Web browser.
B: The text entered in the ImageUrl property specified the path to the Image. It does not display a description when the image cannot be displayed in the customer's Web browser.
D: The text entered in the DescriptionUrl property is used when accessibility features are turned on. It does not display a description when the image cannot be displayed in the customer's Web browser.

Question 5.
You work as a Microsoft ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS528 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS528. You are developing a navigation application. You add an ImageMap control to a Web page named NYCity.aspx and set its ImageUrl property to the URL of an image that represents the street map of central New York. When a user Clicks on an area that represents a building, you want to display a street address for the building on the same page You want to configure the NYCity.aspx page and the ImageMap control to accomplish this task. 

What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate actions and arrange them in the correct order in the work area.
 

Answer:
 

Explanation:
You need to define a hotspot as a set of polygonal coordinates for each building on the ImageMap. You then need to handle the Click event for the ImageMap to capture user input. The Click event contains an ImageMapEventArgs parameter that contains a PostbackValue property that identifies the polygon. You should then set the PostbackValue to a value that will identify the address that needs to be displayed. 

Incorrect Answers:
Setting the HotSpotMode of either the ImageMap or PolygonHotSpot will treat these controls as hyperlinks but you want the data top be displayed on the same page. Therefore you do not need hyperlinks. You also don't need IPostbackEventHandler and IPostbackDataHandler as these raise server-side events based on client-side events.

Question 6.
You work as a Microsoft ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS528 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS528. You are developing a page named Products.aspx in a Web application that contains three DropDownList controls that are dynamically loaded from a SQL Server 2005 database file. The DropDownList controls represent a vendor list, a certification list, and an exam list. ITCertKeys.com customers use the Products.aspx page to select exams related to particular certifications on offer from a particular vendor. A Go button initiates the selection. Each DropDownList control has an associated RequiredFieldValidator control.

Whenever the customer selects a vendor, and the vendor offers certifications, then the customer must also select a certification if the. If the vendor only offers exams and not certifications, the certification list should remain hidden. Whenever the customer selects a certification, the customer must also select an exam. Validation error messages should only be displayed when the Go button is clicked. You need to set properties on the vendor DropDownList control.

What should you do?

A. Set the AutoPostback property to True and the CausesValidation property to False.
B. Set the AutoPostback property to False and the CausesValidation property to True.
C. Set the AutoPostback property to True and the CausesValidation property to True.
D. Set the AutoPostback property to False and the CausesValidation property to False.

Answer: A

Explanation: 
You need to set the AutoPostback property to True so that you can programmatically determine whether or not the certifications DropDownList control should be displayed. By default, validation occurs when a postback takes place. To prevent this, you should set the CausesValidation property to False.

Incorrect Answers:
B: If you set the AutoPostback property to False, you will not be able to determine if the certification DropDownList control should be displayed or not.
C: If you set the CausesValidation property to True then validation will occur when a postback takes place. Validation error messages are displayed whenever validation occurs.
D: If you set the AutoPostback property to False, you will not be able to determine if the certification DropDownList control should be displayed or not as postback will not occur. Validation will also not occur as it occurs when a postback takes place.

Question 7.
You work as a Microsoft ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS528 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS528. You are developing a page named Products.aspx in a Web application. You need to allow external vendors to insert product information into the Products.aspx page. You decide to implement this functionality by using a DropDownList control. You add the following code to the Products.aspx page. 
 
You need to ensure that the DropDownList control defaults to [None] and that [None] is the first item in the DropDownList.

What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Set the DataSourceID property of the DropDownList control to "".
B. Add the string "[None]" to the Items property of the DropDownList control.
C. Change the SelectCommand property SqlDataSource control to "SELECT [None], 
    [CategoryID], [CategoryName] FROM [Categories]".
D. Set the AppendDataBopundItems property of the DropDownList control to True.

Answer: B, D

Explanation: 
You must add a static item to the DropDownList in the Items property. You should then set the AppendDataBopundItems property of the DropDownList control to True to prevent DataBound items from overwriting the static item.

Incorrect Answers:
A: You cannot set the DataSourceID property of the DropDownList control to and empty string. This will prevent you from binding data to the DropDownList.
C: The SELECT statement lists database columns from which data must be selected. [None] is not a column in the database and should not be listed in the SELECT statement as it will cause the DataBound operation to return an error.

Question 8.
You work as a Microsoft ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS528 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS528. You are developing a chat forum for the ITCertKeys.com Web site. You are using ASP.NET 2.0 to develop the chat forum. You are developing a Web Form that allows a subscriber to alter enter their account details. The page contains the following code snippet. 
 
You need to programmatically hide the TextBox control based on other input.

What should you do?

A. Add a Runat="server" attribute to the TextBox control.
B. Declare _Description as a TextBox in the code-behind class.
C. Replace the 
element with , , and
elements. D. Replace the
element with a Panel server control. Answer: A Explanation: Code-behind processing occurs at the server therefore you need to add the Runat="server" attribute to the TextBox control. Incorrect Answers: B: Controls are automatically declared in the code-behind page in ASP.NET 2.0. Therefore you do not need to declare the control. C, D: The
element does not have a bearing on your ability to use the TextBox control in a code-behind class. Therefore there is no need to change the
element. Question 9. You work as a Microsoft ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com is a major supplier of Widgets for various affiliate online retail companies. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS528 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS528. You are developing a Web application that allows ITCertKeys.com's affiliates to manage their accounts at ITCertKeys.com. Because of the complexity and size of the data, ITCertKeys.com implements a staging environment and a production environment for their affiliates. The URLs staging and a production environments are stored in the section of the Web.config file. The section of the Web.config file is shown in the following exhibit: You write the following code to access the connection string from the current HttpContext object: You need to place the code in the appropriate event handler. What should you do? A. Place the codes in the Application_Start event handler. B. Place the codes in the Session_Start event handler. C. Place the codes in the Application_BeginRequest event handler. D. Place the codes in the Session_End event handler. Answer: C Explanation: Items in the HttpContext object are cleared after each request; therefore you need to repopulate the object after each request using the Application_BeginRequest event handler. Once the object is populated, it can be accessed from any page throughout the request. Incorrect Answers: A: The Application_Start event is raised only when the application starts. However, items in the HttpContext object are cleared after each request; therefore you need to repopulate the object after each request using the Application_BeginRequest event handler. B: The Session_Start event is raised only when the session starts. However, items in the HttpContext object are cleared after each request; therefore you need to repopulate the object after each request using the Application_BeginRequest event handler. D: The Session_End event is raised only when the session ends. However, items in the HttpContext object are cleared after each request; therefore you need to repopulate the object after each request using the Application_BeginRequest event handler. Question 10. You are employed as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. You are in the process of redeveloping the ITCertKeys.com Web application. You want to add a TreeView control to a Web Form named cisco.aspx. The following XML defines the site map data for ITCertKeys.com. You need to bind the TreeView control to the site map data so that users can navigate only within the CISCO section. What should you do? (Choose all that apply) A. To achieve this you need to set the StartingNodeUrl property of the SiteMapDataSource control to ~/cisco.aspx. B. You need to add a SiteMapDataSource control to the Web Form and bind the TreeView control to the Web Form. C. You need to ensure that the site map XML is embedded within the AppSettings node of the Web.config file. D. You need to add a SiteMapPath control to the Web Form and bind the TreeView control to the Web Form. E. You need to ensure that the site map XML is embedded within the SiteMap node of the Web.sitemap file. Answer: A, B, E Explanation: The TreeView control should be bound to a SiteMapDataSource. By default the SiteMapDataSource will extract its information from the web.sitemap file. The StartingNodeUrl property of the SiteMapDataSource can be used to restrict the SiteMap to only the marketing pages. Incorrect Answers: C: Putting the site map XML in the web.config file could be done. This will require defining a customer site map provider. This is not the ideal place for site map data. D: The SiteMapPath is not a site map provider which is what the TreeView needs to bind with. A SiteMapPath is a server control that can be used as an alternative to TreeView in order to display a site map in a more compact manner.

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Braindumps for "350-020" Exam

CCIE SP Optical Qualification

 Question 1.
What IE is not mandatory in a Q.931 Service msg?

A. Bearer capability
B. Channel ID
C. Message Type
D. Change Status
E. Call Reference

Answer: A

Question 2.
The purpose of Administrative Distance, as used by Cisco routers, is:

A. To choose between routes from different routing protocols when receiving updates for the 
    same network
B. To identify which routing protocol forwarded the update
C. To define the distance to the destination used in deciding the best path
D. To be used only for administrative purposes

Answer: A

Question 3.
What is the maximum PMD value of a 100km fiber segment if the cable is specified with 0.5ps/km ? (worst case)?

A. 0.005ps
B. .05ps
C. 5ps
D. 50ps
E. 500ps

Answer: C

Question 4.
What is the equivalent of 50 GHz spacing in DWDM in terms of nm?

A. 1.6 nm
B. 0.8 nm
C. 0.4 nm
D. 0.2 nm

Answer: C

Question 5.
Exhibit:
 

Router ITK1 has a 512K-access port into the frame relay cloud. Router ITK2 has 128K-access port into the frame relay cloud. The two routers are connected with symmetrical PVCs that are configured for 64K committed information rate (CIR). 

What Frame Relay Traffic Shaping map-class sub-command should be entered on Router A to prevent workstation A from overrunning the access port on Router B?

A. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 512000
B. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 512000
C. frame-relay traffic-rate 512000 64000
D. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 64000
E. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 128000

Answer: E

Question 6.
If a host sends a TCP segment with the RST flag set, it means:

A. The receiver should send all data in the reassembly buffer to the application receiving it 
    immediately.
B. The receiver should reset the session.
C. Any routers between the source and destination hosts should reset the state of the connection 
    in their buffers.
D. The receiver should make certain its send buffer is pushed onto the wire.

Answer: B

Question 7.
How many E1 channels can STM-1 frame transport?

A. 7
B. 21
C. 63
D. 84

Answer: C

Question 8.
BGP can implement a policy of 'Route Dampening' to control route instability.

What statement about route dampening is NOT correct?

A. A numeric penalty is applied to a route each time it flaps.
B. The penalty is exponentially decayed according to parameters, such as half-life-time.
C. The history of unstable routes is forwarded back to the sender to control future updates.
D. The route is eventually suppressed based on a configurable 'suppress limit'.

Answer: C

Question 9.
MPLS traffic engineering data is carried by:

A. Opaque LSAs or IS-IS TLVs
B. BGP MEDs
C. RTP or RTCP packets
D. MBGP

Answer: A

Question 10.
Exhibit:
 

In the diagram, if a resilient packet ring (RPR) is built between ML-series cards, ____ restoration exists on the ring, while the redundant connections to the 7609 rely on _____protection.

A. 50 ms, STP
B. STP, STP
C. STP, 1+1 APS
D. 50ms, 50ms

Answer: A


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Braindumps for "70-642" Exam

Windows Server 2008 Network Infrastructure, Configuring

 Question 1.
Your company has a single Active Directory forest that has an Active Directory domain named na.contoso.com. A server named Server1 runs the DNS server role. You notice stale resource records in the na.contoso.com zone. You have enabled DNS scavenging on Server1. Three weeks later, you notice that the stale resource records remain in na.contoso.com. You need to ensure that the stale resource records are removed from na.contoso.com. 

What should you do?

A. Stop and restart the DNS service on Server1.
B. Enable DNS scavenging on the na.contoso.com zone.
C. Run the dnscmd Server1 /AgeAllRecords command on Server1.
D. Run the dnscmd Server1 /StartScavenging command on Server1.

Answer: D

Question 2.
Your company has an Active Directory domain named ad.contoso.com. The company also has a public namespace named contoso.com. You need to ensure that public DNS zone records cannot be copied. You must achieve this goal without impacting the functionality of public DNS name resolutions. 

What should you do?

A. Disable the Notify feature for the contoso.com zone.
B. Disable the Allow - Read permission for the Everyone group on the contoso.com DNS domain.
C. Configure the All domain controllers in the domain zone replication option on ad.contoso.com.
D. Configure the Allow zone transfers only to servers listed on the Name Servers option on 
    contoso.com.

Answer: D

Question 3.
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The main office has a domain controller named DC1 that hosts a DNS primary zone. The branch office has a DNS server named SRV1 that hosts a DNS secondary zone. All client computers are configured to use their local server for DNS resolution. You change the IP address of an existing server named SRV2 in the main office. You need to ensure that SRV1 reflects the change immediately. 

What should you do?

A. Restart the DNS Server service on DC1.
B. Run the dnscmd command by using the /zonerefresh option on DC1.
C. Run the dnscmd command by using the /zonerefresh option on SRV1.
D. Set the refresh interval to 10 minutes on the Start Of Authority (SOA) record.

Answer: C

Question 4.
Your company has a single Active Directory domain. The company has a main office and a branch office. Both the offices have domain controllers that run Active Directory-integrated DNS zones. All client computers are configured to use the local domain controllers for DNS resolution. The domain controllers at the branch office location are configured as Read-Only Domain Controllers (RODC). You change the IP address of an existing server named SRV2 in the main office. You need the branch office DNS servers to reflect the change immediately. 

What should you do?

A. Run the dnscmd /ZoneUpdateFromDs command on the branch office servers.
B. Run the dnscmd /ZoneUpdateFromDs command on a domain controller in the main office.
C. Change the domain controllers at the branch offices from RODCs to standard domain 
    controllers.
D. Decrease the Minimum (default) TTL option to 15 minutes on the Start of Authority (SOA) 
    record for the zone.

Answer: A

Question 5.
Your company has a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008. Server1 runs the DHCP Server role and the DNS Server role. You also have a server named ServerCore that runs a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008. All computers are configured to use only Server1 for DNS resolution. The IP address of Server1 is 192.168.0.1. The network interface on all the computers is named LAN. Server1 is temporarily offline. A new DNS server named Server2 has been configured to use the IP address 192.168.0.254. You need to configure ServerCore to use Server2 as the preferred DNS server and Server1 as the alternate DNS server. 

What should you do?

A. Run the netsh interface ipv4 add dnsserver "LAN" static 192.168.0.254 index=1 command.
B. Run the netsh interface ipv4 set dnsserver "LAN" static 192.168.0.254 192.168.0.1 both 
    command.
C. Run the netsh interface ipv4 set dnsserver "LAN" static 192.168.0.254 primary command and 
    the netsh interface ipv4 set dnsserver "LAN" static 192.168.0.1 both command.
D. Run the netsh interface ipv4 set dnsserver "LAN" static 192.168.0.254 primary command and 
    the netsh interface ipv4 add dnsserver "LAN" static 192.168.0.1 index=1 command.

Answer: A

Question 6.
Your company has a domain controller named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008 and the DNS server role. A server named Server2 runs a custom application. You need to configure DNS to include the following parameters for the custom application:
Service
Priority
Weight
Protocol
Port number
Host offering this service

Which record should you create?

A. Host Info (HINFO)
B. Service Locator (SRV)
C. Canonical Name (CNAME)
D. Well-Known Service (WKS)

Answer: B

Question 7.
Your company has a main office and two branch offices. Domain controllers in the main office host an Active Directory-integrated zone. The DNS servers in the branch offices host a secondary zone for the domain and use the main office DNS servers as the DNS Master servers for the zone. Each branch office has an application server. Users access the application server by using its fully qualified domain name. You need to ensure that users in the branch offices can access their local application server even if the WAN links are down for three days. 

What should you do?

A. Increase the Expires After setting to 4 days on the Start of Authority (SOA) record for the zone.
B. Increase the Refresh Interval setting to 4 days on the Start of Authority (SOA) record for the 
    zone.
C. Configure the Zone Aging / Scavenging Properties dialog box to enable Scavenge Stale 
    resource records, and set the Refresh setting to 4 days.
D. Configure the Zone Aging / Scavenging Properties dialog box to enable Scavenge Stale 
    resource records, and set the No-refresh interval setting to 4 days.

Answer: B

Question 8.
Your company has a single Active Directory forest that has a domain in North America named na.contoso.com and a domain in South America named sa.contoso.com. The client computers run Windows Vista. You need to configure the client computers in the North America office to improve the name resolution response time for resources in the South America office. 

What should you do?

A. Configure a new GPO that disables the Local-Link Multicast Name Resolution feature. Apply 
    the policy to all the client computers in the North America office.
B. Configure a new GPO that enables the Local-Link Multicast Name Resolution feature. Apply 
    the policy to all the client computers in the North America office.
C. Configure a new GPO that configures the DNS Suffix Search List option to sa.contoso.com, 
    na.contoso.com. Apply the policy to all the client computers in the North America office.
D. Configure the priority value for the SRV records on each of the North America domain 
    controllers to 5.

Answer: C

Question 9.
Your company has multiple DNS servers in the main office. You plan to install DNS on a member server in a branch office. You need to ensure that the DNS server in the branch office is able to query any DNS server in the main office, and you need to limit the number of DNS records that are transferred to the DNS server in the branch office. 

What should you do?

A. Configure a secondary zone on the DNS server in the branch office.
B. Configure a stub zone on the DNS server in the branch office.
C. Configure a stub zone on the DNS server in the main office.
D. Configure a primary zone on the DNS server in the branch office.

Answer: B

Question 10.
Your company has a DNS server named Server1. Your partner company has a DNS server named Server2. You create a stub zone on Server1. The master for the stub zone is Server2. Server2 fails. You discover that users are not able to resolve names for the partner company. You need to ensure that users are able to resolve names for the partner company in the event that Server2 fails. 

What should you do?

A. Change the stub zone to a secondary zone on Server1.
B. Open the SOA record for the zone on Server2. Change the Minimum (default) TTL setting to 
    12 hours.
C. Open the DNS zone for the partner company on Server2. Create a new Route Through (RT) 
    record and a new host (A) record for Server1.
D. Open the primary DNS zone on Server2. Create a new Service Locator (SRV) record and a 
    new host (A) record for Server1.

Answer: B


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Braindumps for "70-121" Exam

Designing and Providing Microsoft Volume License Solutions to Small and Medium Organizations

 Question 1.
You need to propose the best licensing solution for the client computers at Culinary-Art, Ltd.

What should you propose?

A. Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) licensing.
B. Open Volume agreement.
C. Select License agreement.
D. Open Business agreement.

Answer: A

Explanation: 
Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) licensing provides the best discount level for desktop computers.

Question 2.
What additional information would you require before you can recommend the most appropriate licensing solution for the server computers at Culinary-Art, Ltd? (Choose TWO.)

A. When was the last server deployed?
B. Which server applications installed on the servers?
C. How the servers were originally licensed?
D. How many users and devices access each server application?

Answer: B, D

Question 3.
Which of the following represents the best licensing solution for Microsoft Windows and Microsoft Office?

A. Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) licensing.
B. Select License agreement.
C. Full Package Product (FPP)
D. Open Business agreement.

Answer: A

Question 4.
Which of the following desktop licensing solutions best suites Culinary-Art, Ltd's current purchasing model? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Obtain all licenses through an Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) channel.
B. Obtain Windows and Office licenses through an Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) 
    channel.
C. Obtain Windows and Office licenses through a Select License program.
D. Obtain all licenses through an Open Business agreement.
E. Obtain additional software product licenses through an Open Business agreement.
F. Obtain additional software product licenses through Full Package Product (FPP).

Answer: B, E

Question 5.
Which of the following represents the best software acquisition process for Culinary-Art, Ltd?

A. Obtains all server and client software through a single Independent Software Vendor (ISV) 
    Royalty Licensing program.
B. Obtains all server and client software through a single Volume Licensing agreement.
C. Obtains all server and client software through Full Package Product (FPP).
D. Allow each office to obtain its client software licenses under its own Open Business 
   agreement.
E. Allow each office to obtain its server software licenses under its own Select License 
    agreement.

Answer: B

Question 6.
Which of the following represent the best licensing solution to upgrade the current servers for the CAD/CAM software?

A. Obtain the required server SQL and Exchange license through an original equipment 
    manufacturer (OEM) channel.
B. Obtain the required server licenses and the current SQL and Exchange licenses through a 
    retail channel.
C. Obtain current server licenses from a retail channel.
D. Obtain current server licenses under a Volume Licensing program.

Answer: D

Question 7.
Which of the following would most require Culinary-Art, Ltd to change their licensing solution?

A. The upgrading of the server software.
B. Standardizing the client computers to run the same versions of Windows and Office.
C. Any possible company growth.
D. Merging the existing networks at the two companies.

Answer: A

Question 8.
Which of the following represents the best licensing solution for the client computers at Culinary-Art, Ltd?

A. Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM)
B. Open Volume licensing.
C. Full Package Product (FPP).
D. Enterprise Agreement.
E. Open Business licensing.

Answer: E

Question 9.
Which of the following represents the best licensing solution for the servers at Culinary-Art, Ltd?

A. Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM)
B. Open Volume licensing.
C. Full Package Product (FPP).
D. Enterprise Agreement.
E. Open Business licensing.

Answer: B

Question 10.
Which of the following would most require Culinary-Art, Ltd to change their software acquisition model?

A. The administration and support for the software and hardware at both companies.
B. Inadequate software asset management and the need to upgrade existing software.
C. The standardization of existing software.
D. Company growth and the merging the existing networks at the two companies.

Answer: B


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Braindumps for "HP0-286" Exam

HP OpenView

 Question 1.
How frequently should an LFSCAN be run on a system that is converted out to a relational database?

A. Once a Month
B. Once Every 6 Months
C. Once a Week
D. Never

Answer: D

Question 2.
Where would you find information on how to scale an environment for 450 concurrent users on Oracle using HP-UX?

A. In the knowledge Base in the Basic Server Sizing Worksheet
B. In the document database conversion and RDBMS support
C. On the Web Site in the compatibility matrix
D. In the document Installation Guide for HP-UX

Answer: A

Question 3.
Which field of the link record must match with the input of the field on the form in order to perform a fill action?

A. Target table
B. Source Field
C. Source table
D. Target Field

Answer: B

Question 4.
Where do you globally restrict the maximum number of logins that each user is allowed?

A. Contact record
B. Operator record
C. System Information Definition
D. Sc.ini file

Answer: C

Question 5.
Which method can be used to limit the records returned on a query at the database layer?

A. Stored Query
B. Append Query on a profile
C. Inboxes
D. Mandanten Security

Answer: D

Question 6.
Which two variables are invalid? (Choose two.)

A. $Second Wind
B. $SecondWind
C. $2ndWind
D. $Wind2
E. $Second Wind

Answer: C, E

Question 7.
What are the steps needed to adjust the shared_memory value in the sc.ini file?

A. Modify the parameter in the sc.ini file then save
B. Stop all clients, stop the server, modify the parameter, save, reboot the system, then restart 
    the server
C. Stop all clients, stop the server, modify the parameter, save then restart the server
D. Stop all clients,, modify the parameter in the sc.ini file then save

Answer: C

Question 8.
Which factor affects the key selected for a query in P4?

A. A sort order is specified
B. Record list is enabled
C. The partial.key capability word
D. The query is performed in the background

Answer: A

Question 9.
Which two types of unloads are valid? (Choose two.)

A. Dbdict
B. Binary
C. Formatted text
D. List
E. Ascii

Answer: B, C  

Question 10.
What feature allows you schedule the removal of unwanted data from the system?

A. Scheduled Delete
B. Purge/Archive
C. Data Vault
D. Scheduled Maintenance

Answer: B



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Braindumps for "HP0-918" Exam

HP Storage Data Protector 6.0 Fundamentals for Windows

 Question 1.
Regarding Disaster Recovery, What information does the Phase 1 start-up file (P1S) contain?

A. Information on how to format and install all disks within a system
B. Information about the logical tape device
C. Information about system registry
D. Information on drivers and software to be loaded

Answer: A

Question 2.
What is the default threshold for medium overwrites for linear tapes?

A. 250
B. 300
C. 350
D. 400

Answer: A

Question 3. 
The file demo.txt in the directory tree d:\demouser was created on January 4, 2003. It was modified on January 10, 2003. A full backup took place on January 5, 2003, followed by incremental backups on January 6,7 and 8. 

When browsing the internal database context, how many sessions will be available?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: D

Question 4.
What is accomplished by invoking the Data Protector Enhanced Automated Disaster Recovery Method?

A. The failed client system is automatically recovered from the latest backup
B. The call Manager replicates the cell database to a standby system
C. The Call Manger creates the file that is to be used by the CD-burner
D. The SRD file for a failed client is updated

Answer: C

Question 5.
A single tape device is used in a SAN and configured for multiple Data Protector clients.

Which option causes it to be recognized as a single device, requiring one drive extension license?

A. Multipath
B. Autopass
C. Direct Backup
D. Indirect backup

Answer: A

Question 6.
What will happen to an extra session that is started over the default or configured number of concurrent backups?

A. The extra session will fail and the backup will be lost
B. The session will be queued and started when others finish
C. All of the backups will start at the same time to avoid backup loss
D. The extra backups will be scheduled to start at a time configured in the global file

Answer: B

Question 7.
What must fist be done on a Windows NT cell manager before upgrading Data Protector to version 5.5?

A. Ensure that a Windows Installation server is installed
B. Ensure the current Data Protector version is at the highest patch level
C. Install the latest Windows NT service pack
D. Upgrade Windows NT to a higher Windows version

Answer: D

Question 8.
To make sure a library is not claimed by another SCSI initiator, which tool can be used?

A. uma
B. devbra
C. omnidlc
D. omnicheck

Answer: B

Question 9.
Which operations and security verifications are used in a Windows domain environment?

A. Secure Shell 2
B. Windows Active Directory
C. Windows Domain Verification
D. Data Protector internal protocol

Answer: D

Question 10.
Which hardware is automatically reconfigured by ASR (Automated System Recovery) if that hardware is replaced with a different type or size as part of the disaster recovery process?

A. Hard Drive
B. Video Card
C. Network Card
D. Host Bus Adapter

Answer: A



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Braindumps for "JN0-531" Exam

Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist

 Question 1.
You have configured the following on your device.
set address trust MyPC 10.1.1.5/32
set address untrust CorpNet 10.10.0.0/16
set policy from trust to untrust MyPC CorpNet any permit
set int tunnel.1 zone untrust
set int tunnel.1 ip unnumbered int bgroup1
set ike gateway GW address 1.1.1.1 outgoing-interface e0/1 preshare Secret sec-level standard
set vpn VPN gateway GW sec-level standard

The VPN is not working properly. What is the problem?

A. The policy needs to have the action tunnel.
B. The VPN needs to be bound to the tunnel interface.
C. The tunnel interface needs to be associated with the interface in the untrust zone.
D. The tunnel interface needs to be placed in the trust zone.

Answer: B

Question 2.
To which three ScreenOS components can a policy-based routing policy be bound? (Choose three.)

A. zone
B. virtual system
C. policy
D. interface
E. virtual router

Answer: A, D, E

Question 3.
Exhibit:
 

You work as an administrator at ITCertKeys.com. Study the exhibit carefully.

In the exhibit, what are two explanations for the output shown? (Choose two.)

A. The nsp card needs reseating.
B. The routing table requires reconfiguration.
C. Packets will be forwarded using the secondary wing as long as the primary is not ready.
D. The next hop device is failing to respond.

Answer: B, D

Question 4.
How many SNMP communities can be created in a ScreenOS device?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 8

Answer: C

Question 5.
You have taken your backup ScreenOS device out of production for some maintenance. The device is brought back online and rejoins the NSRP cluster. You determine that the two devices are out of sync. 

Which command will sync the devices and on which device should it be run?

A. set nsrp sync global-config save run on the Backup
B. set nsrp sync global-config save run on the Master
C. exec nsrp sync global-config save run on the Backup
D. exec nsrp sync global-config save run on the Master

Answer: C

Question 6.
What do you need to change in your VPN configuration to use certificates for authentication?

A. Replace the preshared key with the certificate name.
B. Use a custom set of Phase2 proposals, all beginning with rsa-.
C. Select PFS in Phase2, then select the certificate to be used.
D. Use a custom set of Phase1 proposals, all beginning with rsa-.

Answer: D

Question 7.
You have configured set nsrp vsd-group master-always-exist on your ScreenOS device.

What does this do?

A. This device will always be master in the NSRP cluster.
B. The vsd-group will always be homed to the master in the NSRP cluster.
C. There will always be a master device in the NSRP cluster.
D. The NSRP protocol will not initialize without a master.

Answer: C

Question 8.
Exhibit:
 
You work as an administrator at ITCertKeys.com. Study the exhibit carefully. In the exhibit, the firewall administrator at the Storefront is complaining that when the communication to the DataCenter1 fails, the preexisting transfers and applications are dropped when the traffic is switched to DataCenter2.

Which statement explains this behavior?

A. VPN monitor is misconfigured in the DataCenter2.
B. SYN checking is enabled in the tunnel.
C. Phase 1 and Phase 2 negotiations to DataCenter2 did not occur on time.
D. The weight value for the DataCenter2 is too high.

Answer: B

Question 9.
Which command allows you to verify active connections when Shared IKE ID is in use?

A. get users active
B. get xauth active
C. get ike xauth users
D. get auth table

Answer: B

Question 10.
Exhibit:
 
You work as an administrator at ITCertKeys.com. Study the exhibit carefully. In the exhibit, your ScreenOS device has a VPN configured using a tunnel interface in the untrust zone. The remote gateway is defined using a FQDN. The tunnel went down and has not reestablished as per the output in the exhibit. Your protected resources reside in the trust zone.

What are two reasons why the tunnel is failing to reestablish? (Choose two.)

A. One of the devices was modified so that the peer ID and local ID no longer match.
B. The Phase 1 preshared key was modified in one of the devices.
C. The policy used by this VPN was deleted.
D. The IP address of the remote peer changed and your DNS table has not updated with the new 
    address.

Answer: B, D


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Braindumps for "HP0-M18" Exam

HP LoadRunner Software

 Question 1.
What is an example of a stress test?

A. purchasing at anE.commerce site
B. updating orders on a client/server system
C. viewing upcoming flight itineraries on a flight reservation application
D. displaying the home page immediately after a marketing promotion has been run

Answer: D

Question 2.
When scheduling a scenario, which run modes are available in the Controller? (Select two.)

A. Group
B. Scenario
C. Duration
D. Global Schedule
E. Real-Life schedule
F. Run Until Complete

Answer: E, F

Question 3.
You want to control the delay between iterations. Where do you set this in the Run-time settings?

A. General: Pacing
B. General: Think Time
C. Network: Speed Simulation
D. Browser: Browser Emulation

Answer: A

Question 4.
Which level of concurrency identifies how many users are currently in the process of buying a ticket?

A. system
B. application
C. transaction
D. business process

Answer: D

Question 5.
What is the appropriate scenario outline if your quantitative goal is to attain 2,500 concurrent users for the Update transaction during peak time?

A. Load test should achieve 2,500 users only.
B. Script should define the Update transaction only.
C. Script should define the Update transaction, and the load test should achieve 2,500 users.
D. Script should define the Update transaction, and the load test should achieve 2.500 concurrent 
    users.

Answer: D

Question 6.
Which option in the Analysis tool allows you to see the results of two graphs from the same load test scenario in a single graph?

A. Drill Down
B. Apply Filter
C. Merge Graphs
D. Auto Correlate

Answer: C

Question 7.
What is the LoadRunner term for varying values defined in a placeholder that replaces the hard. coded values?

A. variable
B. constant
C. parameter
D. correlation

Answer: C

Question 8.
Which scenario run is recommended to set the Run-time setting to Standard Logging?

A. Debug
B. Full Load
C. Top Time
D. Scalability

Answer: C

Question 9.
What is the first indication of a performance problem?

A. The network delay time is above 15ms.
B. The DMG is not resolving the machine name.
C. The Web server's available memory drops below 1 GB.
D. The end userexpenences higherthan expected response times.

Answer: D

Question 10.
How can you validate that the LoadRunner Agent is running on the load generator?

A. Port 443 will be open.
B. The MlFW.exe process will be running.
C. The radar dish will appear in the system tray.
D. The load generator will be pinged using the name/DNS/IP.

Answer: C


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