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Has anyone out there sat this exam. I sat it a while ago and failed. I am struggling to find any free sample questions or dumps on this exam. Can anyone provide any constructive comments?
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Question 1.
The Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System (Cisco Security MARS) is an appliance-based, all-inclusive solution that provides unmatched insight and control of your existing security deployment.
Which three items are correct with regard to Cisco Security MARS rules? (Choose three.)
A. There are three types of rules.
B. Rules can be deleted.
C. Rules can be created using a query.
D. Rules trigger incidents.
Answer: A, C, D
Question 2.
Which three benefits are of deploying Cisco Security MARS appliances by use of the global and local controller architecture? (Choose three.)
A. A global controller can provide a summary of all local controllers information (network
topologies, incidents, queries, and reports results).
B. A global controller can provide a central point for creating rules and queries, which are applied
simultaneously to multiple local controllers.
C. A global controller can correlate events from multiple local controllers to perform global
sessionizations.
D. Users can seamlessly navigate to any local controller from the global controller GUI.
Answer: A, B, D
Question 3.
Which item is the best practice to follow while restoring archived data to a Cisco Security MARS appliance?
A. Use Secure FTP to protect the data transfer.
B. Use "mode 5" restore from the Cisco Security MARS CLI to provide enhanced security During
the data transfer.
C. Choose Admin > System Maintenance > Data Archiving on the Cisco Security MARS GUI to
perform the restore operations on line.
D. To avoid problems, restore only to an identical or higher-end Cisco Security MARS appliance.
Answer: D
Question 4.
A Cisco Security MARS appliance can't access certain devices through the default gateway. Troubleshooting has determined that this is a Cisco Security MARS configuration issue.
Which additional Cisco Security MARS configuration will be required to correct this issue?
A. Use the Cisco Security MARS GUI to configure multiple default gateways
B. Use the Cisco Security MARS GUI or CLI to configure multiple default gateways
C. Use the Cisco Security MARS GUI or CLI to enable a dynamic routing protocol
D. Use the Cisco Security MARS CLI to add a static route
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which two options are for handling false-positive events reported by the Cisco Security MARS appliance? (Choose two.)
A. mitigate at Layer 2
B. archive to NFS only
C. drop
D. log to the database only
Answer: C, D
Question 6.
What is the reporting IP address of the device while adding a device to the Cisco Security MARS appliance?
A. The source IP address that sends syslog information to the Cisco Security MARS appliance
B. The pre-NAT IP address of the device
C. The IP address that Cisco Security MARS uses to access the device via SNMP
D. The IP address that Cisco Security MARS uses to access the device via Telnet or SSH
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which statement best describes the case management feature of Cisco Security MARS?
A. It is used to conjunction with the Cisco Security MARS incident escalation feature for incident
reporting
B. It is used to capture, combine and preserve user-selected Cisco Security MARS data within a
specialized report
C. It is used to automatically collect and save information on incidents, sessions, queries and
reports dynamically without user interventions
D. It is used to very quickly evaluate the state of the network
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which two configuration tasks are needed on the Cisco Security MARS for it to receive syslog messages relayed from a syslog relay server? (Choose two.)
A. Define the syslog relay collector.
B. Add the syslog relay server application to Cisco Security MARS as Generic Syslog Relay Any.
C. Define the syslog relay source list.
D. Add the reporting devices monitored by the syslog relay server to Cisco Security MARS.
Answer: B, D
Question 9.
Here is a question that you need to answer. You can click on the Question button to the left to view the question and click on the MARS GUI Screen button to the left to capture the MARS GUI screen in order to answer the question. While viewing the GUI screen capture, you can view the complete screen by use of the left/right scroll bar on the bottom of the GUI screen. Choose the correct answer from among the options.
What actions will you take to configure the MARS appliance to send out an alert when the system rule fires according to the MARS GUI screen shown?
A. Click "Edit" to edit the "Operation" field of the rule, select the appropriate alert option(s), then
apply.
B. Click on "None" in the "Action" field, select the appropriate alerts, then apply.
C. Click "Edit" to edit the "Reported User" field of the rule, select the appropriate alert
option(s),then apply.
D. Click on "Active" in the "Status" field, select the appropriate alerts, then apply.
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which action enables the Cisco Security MARS appliance to ignore false-positive events by either dropping the events completely or by just logging them to the database?
A. Inactivating the rules
B. Creating system inspection rules using the drop operation
C. Deleting the false-positive events from the events management page
D. Creating drop rules
Answer: D
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Question 1.
You are the network consultant from Your company. Please point out two requirements call for the deployment of 802.1X.
A. Authenticate users on switch or wireless ports
B. Grant or Deny network access at the port level, based on configured authorization policies
C. Allow network access during the queit period
D. Verify security posture using TACAS+
Answer: A, B
Question 2.
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a dynamic routing protocol for use in Internet Protocol (IP) networks. An OSPF router on the network is running at an abnormally high CPU rate. By use of different OSPF debug commands on Router, the network administrator determines that router is receiving many OSPF link state packets from an unknown OSPF neighbor, thus forcing many OSPF path recalculations and affecting router's CPU usage.
Which OSPF configuration should the administrator enable to preent this kind of attack on the Router?
A. Multi-Area OSPF
B. OSPF stub Area
C. OSPF MD5 Authentication
D. OSPF not-so-stubby Area
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which one of the following Cisco Security Management products is able to perform (syslog) events normalization?
A. Cisco IME
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco ASDM
D. Cisco Security MARS
Answer: D
Question 4.
Can you tell me which one of the following platforms has the highest IPSec throughput and can support the highest number of tunnels?
A. Cisco 6500/7600 + VPN SPA
B. Cisco ASR 1000-5G
C. Cisco 7200 NPE-GE+VSA
D. Cisco 7200 NPE-GE+VAM2+
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which two methods can be used to perform IPSec peer authentication? (Choose two.)
A. One-time Password
B. AAA
C. Pre-shared key
D. Digital Certificate
Answer: C, D
Question 6.
Cisco Security Agent is the first endpoint security solution that combines zero-update attack protection, data loss prevention and signature-based antivirus in a single agent. This unique blend of capabilities defends servers and desktops against sophisticated day-zero attacks and enforces acceptable-use and compliance policies within a simple management infrastructure.
What are three functions of CSA in helping to secure customer environments?
A. Control of executable content
B. Identification of vulnerabilities
C. Application Control
D. System hardening
Answer: A, C, D
Question 7.
Cisco Secure Access Control Server (ACS) is an access policy control platform that helps you comply with growing regulatory and corporate requirements.
Which three of these items are features of the Cisco Secure Access Control Server?
A. NDS
B. RSA Certificates
C. LDAP
D. Kerberos
Answer: A, B, C
Question 8.
Observe the following protocols carefully, which one is used to allow the utilization of Cisco Wide Area Application Engines or Cisco IronPort S-Series web security appliances to localize web traffic patterns I the network and to enable the local fulfillment of content requests?
A. TLS
B. DTLS
C. WCCP
D. HTTPS
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which one is not the factor can affect the risk rating of an IPS alert?
A. Relevance
B. Attacker location
C. Event severity
D. Signature fidelity
Answer: B
Question 10.
For the following items, which two are differences between symmetric and asymmetric encryption algorithms? (Choose two.)
A. Asymmetric encryption is slower than symmetric encryption
B. Asymmetric encryption is more suitable than symmetric encryption for real-time bulk encryption
C. Symmetric encryption is used in digital signatures and asymmetric encryption is used in
HMACs
D. Asymmetric encryption requires a much larger key size to achieve the same level of protection
as asymmetric encryption
Answer: A, D
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Question 1. DRAG DROP
Drop
Answer:
Question 2.
Which of the following configurations requires the use of hierarchical policy maps?
A. the use of nested class-maps with class-based marking
B. the use of a strict priority-class queue within CBWFQ
C. the use of class-based WRED within a CBWFQ class queue
D. the use of CBWFQ inside class-based shaping
E. the use of both the bandwidth and shape statements within a CBWFQ class queue
Answer: D
Explanation:
Class-based weighted fair queuing (CBWFQ) extends the standard WFQ functionality to provide support for user-defined traffic classes. By using CBWFQ, network managers can define traffic classes based on several match criteria, including protocols, access control lists (ACLs), and input interfaces. A FIFO queue is reserved for each class, and traffic belonging to a class is directed to the queue for that class. More than one IP flow, or "conversation", can belong to a class. Once a class has been defined according to its match criteria, the characteristics can be assigned to the class. To characterize a class, assign the bandwidth and maximum packet limit. The bandwidth assigned to a class is the guaranteed bandwidth given to the class during congestion. CBWFQ assigns a weight to each configured class instead of each flow. This weight is proportional to the bandwidth configured for each class. Weight is equal to the interface bandwidth divided by the class bandwidth. Therefore, a class with a higher bandwidth value will have a lower weight.
By default, the total amount of bandwidth allocated for all classes must not exceed 75 percent of the available bandwidth on the interface. The other 25 percent is used for control and routing traffic. The queue limit must also be specified for the class. The specification is the maximum number of packets allowed to accumulate in the queue for the class. Packets belonging to a class are subject to the bandwidth and queue limits that are configured for the class.
Question 3.
In a managed CE scenario, the customer's network is supporting VoIP and bulk file transfers.
According to the best practices, which QoS mechanisms should be applied on the WAN edge CEPE 56-kbps Frame Relay link on the CE outbound direction?
A. LLQ, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
B. CBWFQ, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
C. WRR, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
D. WRR, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
E. LLQ, CB-WRED, CB-Policing, and CB-TCP and CB-RTP header compressions
F. CBWFQ, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, CB-Policing, and FRTS
Answer: A
Explanation:
1. WRED can be combined with CBWFQ. In this combination CBWFQ provides a guaranteed percentage of the output bandwidth, WRED ensures that TCP traffic is not sent faster than CBWFQ can forward it.
The abbreviated configuration below shows how WRED can be added to a policy-map specifying CBWFQ:
Router(config)# policy-map prioritybw Router(config-pmap)# class class-default fair-queue
Router(config-pmap-c)# class prioritytraffic bandwidth percent 40 random-detect
The random-detect parameter specifies that WRED will be used rather than the default tail-drop action.
2. The LLQ feature brings strict Priority Queuing (PQ) to CBWFQ. Strict PQ allows delay-sensitive data such as voice to be sent before packets in other queues are sent. Without LLQ, CBWFQ provides WFQ based on defined classes with no strict priority queue available for real-time traffic. For CBWFQ, the weight for a packet belonging to a specific class is derived from the bandwidth assigned to the class. Therefore, the bandwidth assigned to the packets of a class determines the order in which packets are sent. All packets are serviced fairly based on weight and no class of packets may be granted strict priority. This scheme poses problems for voice traffic that is largely intolerant of delay, especially variation in delay. For voice traffic, variations in delay introduce irregularities of transmission manifesting as jitter in the heard conversation. LLQ provides strict priority queuing for CBWFQ, reducing jitter in voice conversations.
LLQ enables the use of a single, strict priority queue within CBWFQ at the class level. Any class can be made a priority queue by adding the priority keyword. Within a policy map, one or more classes can be given priority status. When multiple classes within a single policy map are configured as priority classes, all traffic from these classes is sent to the same, single, strict priority queue.
Although it is possible to queue various types of real-time traffic to the strict priority queue, it is strongly recommend that only voice traffic be sent to it because voice traffic is well-behaved, whereas other types of real-time traffic are not. Moreover, voice traffic requires that delay be nonvariable in order to avoid jitter. Real-time traffic such as video could introduce variation in delay, thereby thwarting the steadiness of delay required for successful voice traffic transmission.
When the priority command is specified for a class, it takes a bandwidth argument that gives maximum bandwidth in kbps. This parameter specifies the maximum amount of bandwidth allocated for packets belonging to the class configured. The bandwidth parameter both guarantees bandwidth to the priority class and restrains the flow of packets from the priority class. In the event of congestion, policing is used to drop packets when the bandwidth is exceeded. Voice traffic queued to the priority queue is UDP-based and therefore not adaptive to the early packet drop characteristic of WRED. Because WRED is ineffective, the WRED random-detect command cannot be used with the priority command. In addition, because policing is used to drop packets and a queue limit is not imposed, the queue-limit command cannot be used with the priority command.
Question 4.
Refer to the partial router configuration. Which two of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Regardless of destination IP address, all traffic sent to Mac address 1.2.3 will be subject to
policing
B. All traffic from a server with the IP address of 147.23.54.21 will be subject to policing.
C. Any IP packet will be subject to policing.
D. The class-map class1 command will set the qos-group value to 4 for all IP packets.
E. Only those packets which satisfy all of the matches in class1 and class2 will be subject to
policing.
F. The configuration is invalid since it refers to a class map within a different class.
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
The class-map command is used to define a traffic class. The purpose of a traffic class is to classify traffic that should be given a particular QoS. A traffic class contains three major elements, a name, a series of match commands, and if more than one match command exists in the traffic class, an instruction on how to evaluate these match commands. The traffic class is named in the class-map command line. For example, if the class-map cisco command is entered while configuring the traffic class in the CLI, the traffic class would be named cisco.
Switch(config)# class-map cisco Switch(config-cmap)#
match commands are used to specify various criteria for classifying packets. Packets are checked to determine whether they match the criteria specified in the match commands. If a packet matches the specified criteria, that packet is considered a member of the class and is forwarded according to the QoS specifications set in the traffic policy. Packets that fail to meet any of the matching criteria are classified as members of the default traffic class and will be subject to a separate traffic policy
The policy-map command is used to create a traffic policy. The purpose of a traffic policy is to configure the QoS features that should be associated with the traffic that has been classified in a user-specified traffic class. A traffic policy contains three elements: Policy Name Traffic class specified with the class command QoS policies to be applied to each class The policy-map shown below creates a traffic policy named policy1. The policy applies to all traffic classified by the previously defined traffic-class "cisco" and specifies that traffic in this example should be allocated bandwidth of 3000 kbps. Any traffic which does not belong to the class "cisco" forms part of the catch-all class-default class and will be given a default bandwidth of 2000 kbps. Switch(config)# policy-map policy1 Switch(config-pmap)# class cisco Switch(config-pmap-c)#
bandwidth 3000 Switch(config-pmap-c)# exit Switch(config-pmap)# class class-default
Switch(config-pmap-c)# bandwidth 2000 Switch(config-pmap)# exit
Question 5.
In an unmanaged CE router implementation, how does the service provider enforce the SLA?
A. by marking on the CE to PE link and using CBWFQ and CB-WRED on the PE to P link
B. by marking on the CE to PE link and using class-based policing on the PE to P link
C. by using class-based policing on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate
D. by using class-based random discard on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate
Answer: C
Explanation:
In an unmanaged Router Implementation, Service provider can enforce SLA By using class based policy on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate.
Question 6.
When configuring a Cisco Catalyst switch to accommodate an IP phone with an attached PC, it is desired that the trust boundary be set between the IP phone and the switch.
Which two commands on the switch are recommended to set the trust boundary as described? (Choose two.)
A. mls qos trust device cisco-phone
B. switchport priority extend trust
C. mls qos trust cos
D. no mls qos trust dscp
E. mls qos trust extend [cos value]
F. mls qos cos 5
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
mls qos trust [ cos ] :
B y default, the port is not trusted. All traffic is sent through one egress queue. Use the cos keyword to classify ingress packets with the packet CoS values. The egress queue assigned to the packet is based on the packet CoS value. When this keyword is entered, the traffic is sent through the four QoS queues. Normally, the QoS information from a PC connected to an IP Phone should not be trusted. This is because the PC's applications might try to spoof CoS or Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) settings to gain premium network service. In this case, use the cos keyword so that the CoS bits are overwritten to value by the IP Phone as packets are forwarded to the switch. If CoS values from the PC cannot be trusted, they should be overwritten to a value of 0.
Question 7.
According to the best practices, in a service provider network, which statement is true as related to the QoS policy that should be implemented on the inbound provider (P) to provider (P) router link?
A. In the DiffServ model, all ingress and egress QoS processing are done at the network edge
(for example, PE router), so no input or output QoS policy will be needed on the P to P link.
B. Class-based marking should be implemented because it will be needed for the class-based
queuing that will be used on the P router output.
C. Traffic policing should be implemented to rate-limit the ingress traffic into the P router.
D. Because traffic should have already been policed and marked on the upstream ingress PE
router, no input QoS policy is needed on the P to P link.
Answer: D
Question 8.
DRAG DROP
Drop
Answer:
Question 9. HOTSPOT
HOTSPOT
Answer:
Explanation:
Question 10.
A Frame Relay interface has been configured for adaptive shaping with a minimum rate of 15 kbps. The current maximum transmit rate is 56 kbps. If three FECNs are received over the next 4 seconds, what will be the maximum transmit rate after the last FECN has been received?
A. 10 kbps
B. 37 kbps
C. 7 kbps
D. 15 kbps
E. 28 kbps
F. 56 kbps
Answer: F
Explanation:
User specified traffic shaping can be performed on a Frame Relay interface or sub-interface with the traffic-shape rate command. The traffic-shape adaptive command can be specified to allow the shape of the traffic to dynamically adjust to congestion experienced by the Frame-Relay provider. This is achieved through the reception of Backward Explicit Congestion Notifications (BECN) from the Frame Relay switch. When a Frame Relay switch becomes congested it sends BECNs in the direction the traffic is coming from and it generates Forward Explicit Congestion Notifications (FECN) in the direction the traffic is flowing to. If the traffic-shape fecn-adapt command is configured at both ends of the link, the far end will reflect FECNs as BECNs. BECNs notify the sender to decrease the transmission rate. If the traffic is one-way only, such as multicast traffic, there is no reverse traffic with BECNs to notify the sender to slow down. Therefore, when a DTE device receives a FECN, it first determines if it is sending any data in return. If it is sending return data, this data will get marked with a BECN on its way to the other DTE device. However, if the DTE device is not sending any data, the DTE device can send a Q.922 TEST RESPONSE message with the BECN bit set.
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Question 1.
You accidentally initiated an abort sequence. As a consequence, your SPARC-based SYSTEM WENT INTO THE prom MODE.
Which two actions disable the default keyboard abort sequence? (Choose two)
A. detach serial console device
B. run the kbd -a disable command
C. run the eeprom command to disable KEYBOARD_ABORT
D. in PROM mode, change the value of keyboard to disable
E. edit / etc/default/kbd to change the value of the variable KEYBOARD_ABORT to disable
Answer: B, E
Question 2.
Your x86-based system with Solaris 10 OS installed on it is not booting correctly. You think the problem might be that a BIOS setting is not correctly configured.
What should you do to abort the boot process and reboot into the BIOS configuration menu?
A. While holding down the reset button, you power cycle the system.
B. You press the middle mouse button, When the screen times out, you enter the BIOS
configuration menu and examine the BIOS settings.
C. You press the stop-A keys then typ reset-all. You reboot directly into the BIOS configuration
menu and examine the BIOS settings.
D. You press the Ctrl-Alt-Del keys and reboot the system, or press the reset button. When the
screen tells indicates the key to enter the BIOS, you press it and examine your BIOS settings.
Answer: D
Question 3.
Given:
ap: : sysinit:/sbin/sutopush -f/etc/iu.ap
sp: : sysinit:/sbin/soconfig -f /etc/sock2path
smf: :sysinit:/lib/svc/bin/svc.startd >/dev/msglog 2<>/dev/msglog /dev/msglog 2<>/dev/msglog
Which two statements are true? (choose two)
A. This file must be read by the process inetd.
B. When booting this system, svc.startd will start.
C. This is a part of the content of the /etc/inittab file
D. This system starts/lib/svc/bin/svc.startd for run level 1.
E. When this system gets the powerfail signal, svc.startd will be respawned.
Answer: B, C
Question 4.
There is a problem on a SPARC-based system that has several permanent, customized device aliases . The system's use of these aliases needs to be temporarily disabled, so that when the problem is cleared, they can be enabled without having to redefine them.
Which sequence of OBP commands temporarily disables the customized device aliases defined on the system?
A. use-nvramrc=false
reset
B. use-nvramrc?=false
reset
C. setenv use-nvramrc? false
reset
D. setenv use-nvramrc? = false
reset
Answer: C
Question 5.
An x86-based laptop has just had Solaris 10 OS installed. The graphics configuration has NOT been automatically detected and it is running without graphics.
Which program can you run to create an Xsun configuration file?
A. /user/X11/bin/Xserver
B. /user/dt/bin/xsession
C. /usr/x11/binxorgconfig
D. /usr/openwin/bin/kdmconfig
E. /usr/x11/bin/xorg -configure
Answer: D
Question 6.
The SPARC-based workstation system in your accounts department need their PROMs upgraded. Some of the systems fail to upgrade.
What is the cause?
A. The patch is corrupt.
B. The systems do not have enough memory
C. The write protect jumper has not been set correctly.
D. The system is running an earlier version of Solaris OS.
Answer: C
Question 7.
A SPARC-based system does not boot and displays the message:
"Timeout waiting for ARP/RARP packet"
Which three actions should you take to check the boot environment of the system? (Choose three)
A. check if the frame buffer is working properly
B. check if the NVRAM alias net is set properly
C. check if the NVRAM alias boot-file is set properly
D. check if the PROM variable boot-device is set properly
E. check if the PROM variable local-mac-address?
Answer: B, D, E
Question 8.
You receive a complaint from a user who is unable to use the SSH service to access the user's lab system. You use a serial line to get in and check the SSH service. The svcs output is shown in the exhibit.
What has caused the disruption of the SSH service?
A. The service is disabled.
B. The contract_id is missing
C. There is no "next state" defined
D. One of the dependencies has NOT been met.
Answer: D
As you can see /network/physical is disabled
One of dependencies has not been meet therefore ssh not running
So right answer is D
Question 9.
A SPARC-based system, but you are not sure of the physical path information;
Which OBP command shows you this information/
A. printenv
B. probe-all
C. show-devs
D. prtdiag -v
E. probe-scsi-all
Answer: C
Question 10.
As system administrator, you are asked to shut down the Apache HTTPD service that is running on a development server. You run the svcs grep apache command, and receive this output.
Legacy_run Feb_02 1RC:/ETC/RC3_D/S50APACHE
Based on this output, which two statements are tru?
A. This service is managed by LRC.
B. This service is NOT managed by SMF
C. Any legacy_run state can NOT be manually shut down.
D. In order to shut down this service, you need to execute the shutdown script in the /tc/init.d
directory
E. In order to shut down this service, you need to execute the following shutdown script svcadm –
v disable /etc/init.d/s50apache
Answer: B, D
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Question 1. Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to create extended distance consistent point in time copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B? A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 3 hours D. 4 hours Answer: B Question 2. What is a remote replication solution for EMC CLARiiON storage systems? A. MirrorView/A B. SnapView C. SRDF/AR D. TimeFinder Answer: A Question 3. Which represents a common implementation of a storage network with limited scalability? A. CSMA/CD B. Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop C. Store and Forward D. Switched Fabric Answer: B Question 4. Identify the E Port and Edge switch in the SAN Core/Edge exhibit. A. 1 and 6 B. 4 and 5 C. 7 and 5 D. 6 and 3 Answer: A Question 5. What is the process that writes physical address information to a disk? A. Concatenating B. Formatting C. Partitioning D. Striping Answer: B Question 6. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of a company is 4 hours. Which statement is true in the event of a disaster? A. Must be able to restart their network within 4 hours B. Must be able to restart their servers within 4 hours C. Must be able to resume production within 4 hours D. No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost Answer: D Question 7. Which technology is designed for storage of fixed content data? A. CAS B. DAS C. NAS D. SAN Answer: A Question 8. In SAN, if the primary concern is cabling flexibility, what method of zoning should be employed? A. Hard Zoning B. Mixed Zoning C. Port Zoning D. WWN Zoning Answer: D Question 9. A disk has Cylinder Head Sector (CHS) values of 1000, 4 and 25. What address range will be used for the Logical Block Address (LBA) values for this disk? A. 0 - 49,999 B. 0 - 99,999 C. 1 - 50,000 D. 1 - 100,000 Answer: B Question 10. Which key requirement of the Data Center infrastructure addresses the concern of data on storage systems being accessible 24X7? A. Availability B. Manageability C. Performance D. Scalability Answer: A
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Question 1.
The customer's Centera is using CentraStar 3.0. A third-party vendor implemented an application and requested that a virtual pool and profile be created on the Centera. The application fails in its attempt to write to the Centera.
What is a possible problem?
A. CE + is enabled so no data can be written to the Centera
B. PEA tile was never provided to the application
C. Replication wasn't turned on
D. Storage pool creation not completed
Answer: B
Question 2.
What is the maximum number of nodes in a Gen 4 Centera Cube?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: C
Question 3.
Clips need to be migrated from the default pool to a virtual pool.
An access profile has already been created. Sequence the following steps to migrate clips:
1) Grant the profile access to the pool
2) Create application virtual pool
3) Start migrating pool mappings
4) Set the home pool for the access profile
5) Create pool mapping
A. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
B. 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
C. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
D. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
Answer: A
Question 4.
What is an "unbundled" cluster?
A. Flexible solution where the customer chooses any configuration of hardware or software to
deploy
B. Hardware only solution where the software is provided by the customer
C. Software only solution where the hardware is provided by the customer
D. Solution where the customer provides the rack in which the cluster is installed
Answer: D
Question 5.
What does SDK Failover enable with the default setting?
A. If a C-Clip cannot be found on the primary cluster, then the request goes to the secondary
cluster
B. If the communication is interrupted to the primary Centera, all data is rewritten to the
secondary Centera
C. If the pool has reached its defined quota then data is written automatically to the default pool
D. In case of a disk failure, data is written automatically to a node connected to the other power
rail
Answer: A
Question 6.
How do you launch the CUA Monitor?
A. Connect Monitor and keyboard directly to the CUA node and launch web services
B. Start a http session to the IP-address of the CUA using port 16000
C. Start a https session to the IP-address of the CUA using port 7227
D. Starting a SSH session to the IP address of the CUA and use the function "M" in the menu
Answer: C
Question 7.
Click the exhibit button.
Which button, in the diagram, is used to start the CLI from within Centera viewer?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
Question 8.
What are the available Centera replication topologies in addition to Uni-Directional and Bi- Directional?
A. Chain and Inward Star
B. Multipoint to Point and Chain
C. Point to Multipoint and Link
D. Ring and Star
Answer: A
Question 9.
A new customer has been testing their Centera in Governance mode. They have specified retention periods ranging from 0 days to 7 years. They would now like to erase the cluster and put it into production.
How can the customer remove the test data from the cluster?
A. Customer can issue a reset cluster command from the CLI
B. Customer can switch the cluster off for 24 hours to delete all data
C. Customer can use the privileged delete command to remove the data
D. Can not be done. data remains on the cluster
Answer: C
Question 10.
With which enterprise backup solutions does CASbar work?
A. NDMP compatible systems
B. NDMP systems with DMA capabilities
C. Systems capable of mounting a UNIX file system
D. Systems capable of mounting a windows file system
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Exhibit:
According to the exhibit, R1/BCV on Symm321 and R2 on Symm654 is pair 1, and R1/BCV on Sym654 and R2 on Symm987 is pair 2.
Which of the following commands is utilized for the control SRDF device operations on these two pairs?
A. Symrdf -bcv symrdf brbcv
B. syumrdf symrdf -rbcv
C. Symrdf Jcv symrdf -rdf -bcv
D. Symmir -rdf Jcv symrdf -rbcv
Answer: A
Question 2.
To simultaneously provide Read-Write acc4ess to both the R1 and R2 Volumes of the mydg device group, which SRDF symcli command would be used?
A. symrdf mydg spilt
B. symrdf mydg failover
C. symrdf mydg suspend
D. symrdf mydg spilt -concurrent
E. symrdf mydg suspend - concurrent
Answer: A
Question 3.
You Use Timefinder Snap to issue the following command:
Symnsnap list havedevs
Which two of the following statements best describes the output? (Choose two)
A. Percent full of the active Snap Session is shown.
B. The Symmetrix volumes associated with the Snap Save Devices are listed.
C. Percent full of the Save Devices is shown.
D. Lists the virtual devices associated with the Snap savedev device group.
E. Lists the active Snap Sessions.
Answer: B, C
Question 4.
TimeFinder consistent splits are created by using which two items? (Choose two)
A. Resource Pak
B. Symmetrix integration Utilities (SIU)
C. PowerPath
D. Enginuity Consistency Assist (ECA)
E. Persistent Storage Manager
Answer: C, D
Question 5.
A device group with SRDF source devices would be created by using which of the following SYMCLI commands?
A. symcreate namedg type RDF1
B. symdg create namedg -type RDF1
C. symdg create namedg type REGULAR
D. symdg create namedg type RDF1
Answer: D
Question 6.
DRAG DROP
As an instructor at ITCertKeys.com, you are required to match the correct ECC agents with the tasks on the left, by placing them in the space provided on the right. (NOTE: agents may be used more than once.)
Answer:
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
For the following, you need to match the Symmetrix device type with the replication technology that it employs. Options may be used more than once.
Answer:
Question 8.
What are the three features of SRDF/A, if cache and bandwidth are suitably configured? (Choose three)
A. Seconds of data exposure.
B. Unlimited distance.
C. No performance impact.
D. Some performance impact.
E. Hours of data exposure.
F. Limited distance.
G. No data exposure.
Answer: B, C, G
Question 9.
How can the Fibre Channel Buffer Credits, needed for a given distance, be calculated quickly?
A. By multiplying the circuit distance in kilometers by 1.6.
B. By dividing the circuit distance in kilometers by 2.
C. By dividing the circuit distance in miles by 2.
D. By multiplying the circuit distance in kilometers by 2.
Answer: B
Question 10.
Exhibit:
In the exhibit above, the SRDF primary mode of operation is Synchronous, there is no secondary mode selected and the SRDF link is ready. While Production work on Host A is in progress, both local mirrors of the R1 Volume fail.
What will happen in this situation?
A. The Symmetrix will automatically change the status of the R2 Volume to write-enabled and
Production work an continue form Host B.
B. Production work can continue from Host A but new write operation cannot be perform.
C. Production work can continue from Host A without interruption. All new writes will accumulate
as invalid tracks from the R1 Volume.
D. Product ion work form Host A will fail. The application should be restarted form the Disaster
Recovery Host B.
Answer: C
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Question 1.
Select the two Connectrix MDS Models that are Multiprotocol (iSCSI / FCIP Storage Services Module) Ready? (Choose two)
A. MDS 9140
B. MDS 9120
C. MDS 9509
D. MDS 1032
E. MDS 9216
Answer: C, E
Question 2.
For what reason is having BCVs attached to the R2 devices at the remote site in a SRDF/A configuration recommended?
A. To preserve a consistent copy of data at the remote site before a split operation.
B. To mirror R2 devices for backup purpose in a disaster recovery scenario.
C. To preserve extra tracks that would not fit into the cache of R2's COVD devices.
D. To preserve a consistent copy of data at the remote site before a resynchronization operation.
Answer: D
Question 3.
EMC Replication Manager supports which three of the following features? (Choose three)
A. Provides incremental establish and restore functionality on CLARiiON storage arrays.
B. Exploits the incremental establish and restore capabilities of TimeFinder on Symmetrix storage
systems.
C. Automates tape backup based user specified schedule.
D. Restore automatically take advantage of the CLARiiON array's Protected Restore feature.
E. Performs TimeFinder Snap on Symmetrix Storage Systems.
Answer: A, B, D
Question 4.
DRAG DROP
You are an instructor at ITCertKeys.com and they enquire as to how you created a recoverable copy of data, using TimeFinder. By way of explanation, arrange the tasks in the order you carried it out.
Answer:
Question 5.
ITCertKeys.com's storage administrator wants to synchronize one device pair within a TimeFinder device group.
Which of the following command will achieve this objective?
A. symrdf namedf incremental BCV dev 0b3
B. symdev namedg full establish BCV dev 0b3
C. symmir namedg incremental BCV dev 0b3
D. symmir namedg full establish DEV003 BCV dev 0b3
Answer: D
Question 6.
The ControlCenter's interaction with its components can be described by what three statements?(Choose three)
A. The ECC Store retrieves real-time data requested by the Console.
B. The repository maintains current and historical data relating to EMC ControlCenter.
C. ControlCenter commands are passed over a TCP/IP network from the Console periodically
directly to the Agents.
D. The EMC ControlCenter Server provides most of the common services, which tie the
infrastructure together.
E. The Console relies on the EMC ControlCenter Server for information.
Answer: B, D, E
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
As an instructor at ITCertKeys.com, you are required to match the correct ECC agents with the tasks on the right, by placing them in the space provided on the left. (NOTE: agents may be used more than once.)
Answer:
Question 8.
Which two are Symmetrix Host Adapters that is supported by Powerpath4.2? (Choose two)
A. iSCSI
B. Fibre
C. Ficon
D. ESCON
E. SCSI
Answer: B, E
Question 9.
Which of the following are three Operating systems that support PowerPath pseudo devices? (Choose three)
A. SUN Solaris
B. HP-UX
C. Linux
D. AIX
E. Windows 200/2003
Answer: A, C, D
Question 10.
DRAG DROP
You are an instructor at ITCertKeys.com and they ask you to match the control center component pairs with the given maximum recommended network latency times, bearing in mind that these latency times may be used more than once.
Answer:
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Question 1.
CLARiiON metaLUN expansion is best described by which statement?
A. Only a cancatented metaLUN can be expanded
B. A metaLUN cannot be expanded
C. A metaLUN can be expanded
D. Only a striped metaLUN can be expanded
Answer: C
Question 2.
DRAG DROP
In your capacity as the Storage administrator at ITCertKeys.com, you are required to arrange the tasks necessary to assign a LUN to a host, in the Navisphere GUI, into the correct sequence?
Answer:
Question 3.
Multihoming and cluster support with EMC ControlCenter can be described by which two of the following statements? (Choose two)
A. The ControlCenter installation program requires manual input to specify the multiple interface
connections
B. Multihoming is typically used for LAN traffic management
C. ControlCenter supports Adapter Teaming (Grouping network adapter ports for a connection to
a single physical segment)
D. ControlCenter is supported on hosts that have multiple network interface cards (NICs) or one
NIC with multiple interface connections
E. Multihoming is optional if you plan to install ControlCenter with Cluster Support
Answer: D, E
Question 4.
Assuming that zoning is already configured, which two tasks should you carry out after completing SDR operation in a Fibre Channel switched environment? (Choose two)
A. Set the new device state to" Write Disabled".
B. Perform LUN masking
C. Reconfigure the host to recognize the new devices that are available for access
D. Set the new device state to not ready.
Answer: B, C
Question 5.
When a ControlCenter Store is overloaded, which are two possible actions that you should consider taking?
A. Add a ControlCenter Store
B. Add a ControlCenter Server
C. Add ControlCenter Master Agents
D. Distribute Data Collection Policies (DCPs)
E. Increase the frequency of the Data Collection Policies (DCPs)
Answer: A, D
Question 6.
What would cause the Free Space view in the ControlCenter Console not to work?
A. You need to customize the Console to make it work
B. Free Space view is a report in StorageScope, it is not a view in the Console
C. The ARM License is not installed
D. You have to install a Service Pack
Answer: C
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
Match the appropriate agent with the corresponding object that it manages.
Answer:
Question 8.
You are an administrator at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com is planning a ControlCenter 5.1.2 that must meet the following requirements:
Support for 12 medium size Symmetrix arrays.Storage Agents for Symmetrix on production hosts.Support for redundant Storage Agents for Symmetrix.WLA Archiver.
To meet these requirements, what is the minimum number of Symmetrix agents you should deploy?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 10
D. 6
Answer: B
Question 9.
What is the projected database space required for 1 Terabyte of scanned data when you are sizing the VisualSRM database server?
A. 1.3 GB
B. 0.5 GB
C. 0.8 GB
D. 3.5 GB
Answer: A
Question 10.
Within the ControlCenter Console, what are the four kinds of Workload Analyzer-related Data Collection Policies that you can configure and enable? (Choose four)
A. WLA Summary
B. WLA Revolving
C. WLA Analyst
D. WLA Daily
E. WLA Retention
F. WLA Scheduled
Answer: B, C, D, E
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