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1.Which of the following devices is used to connect a computer to the internet using telephone lines? a . Cable modem b . IRDA c . Modem d . Hub Answer: Modem 2.Which graphics format supports transparent backgrounds and animation? a . GIF89 b . JPEG c . PNG d . BMP e . GIF Answer: GIF89 3.What is WYSIWYG? a . Refers to any web design software b . Refers to an application that allows you to edit HTML using a graphical interface c . Refers to code-based editors d . None of the above Answer: Refers to an application that allows you to edit HTML using a graphical interface 4.Which network device can be used to translate between protocols or to connect dissimilar network technologies? a . Hub b . Bridge c . Multiplexor d . Gateway e . Modem Answer: Gateway 5.Which email protocol is used to send email to a destination? a . SNMP b . SMTP c . POP3 d . PPP Answer: SMTP
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Question 1.
Why should the interface command bridge vlan vlan# be executed upon creation of interfaces on a Cisco Content Services Switch (CCS) switch?
A. Bridging is turned OFF.
B. Bridging is turned ON, but is undefined.
C. All VLANs are initially bridged to VLAN 1.
D. Interfaces are shut off by default until bridged to a VLAN.
E. The CSS acts as a router, therefore routing must be turned ON.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Bridging an Interface to a VLAN
To specify a VLAN and associate it with the specified Ethernet interface, use the bridge vlan command. Enter an integer from 1 to 4094 as the VLAN identifier. The default is 1. All interfaces are assigned to VLAN1 by default.
The following list defines the maximum number of VLANs supported by the specific CSS models:
• CSS 11501 and CSS 11503 - A maximum of 256 VLANs per CSS and 64 VLANs per port
(FE or GE)
• CSS 11506 - A maximum of 512 VLANs per CSS and 64 VLANs per port (FE or GE)
When you specify the bridge vlan command, enter the word vlan in lowercase letters and include a space before the VLAN number (for example, vlan 2).
For example, to configure e1 to VLAN2 on the CSS 11501, enter:
(config-if[e1])# bridge vlan 2
Question 2.
Which statement is true about caching solutions currently on the Internet?
A. Caching solutions are used predominantly for video streaming.
B. Caching solutions are housed predominantly in Internet Service Provider data centers.
C. Caching solutions are housed both within enterprise environments and at Internet Service
Provider data centers.
D. Caching solutions only deliver static content and in no way deliver dynamic content to users on
the Internet today.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Cacheable Content
Cacheable content is typically static application data and can be associated with a file type and file extension.
Ensuring Fresh Content
A requirement for any caching system is the ability to ensure that users see the same content from a network cache as they would from the Web. Every Web page comprises several Web objects and each Web object has its own caching parameters, determined by content authors and HTTP standards (see the "HTTP Caching Standards" section). Thus, even a Web page with realtime objects typically has many other objects that are cacheable. Rotating ad banners and Common Gateway Interface (CGI)-generated responses are examples of objects that are typically noncacheable. Toolbars, navigation bars, GIFs, and JPEGs are examples of objects that are typically cacheable. Thus, for a given Web page, only a few dynamic objects need to be retrieved from the end server, while static objects can be fulfilled locally.
Caching Hierarchy
Because a Cisco Content Engine can be transparent to the client and to network operation, customers can easily place Content Engines in several network locations in a hierarchical fashion. For example, if an Internet service provider (ISP) deploys a Content Engine at its main point of access to the Internet, all of its points of presence (POPs) benefit, because requested content can be available at this main point of access without going through the Internet The figure depicts a typical caching hierarchy using Content Engines.
Caching Hierarchy
Client requests reach the Content Engine and are fulfilled from its storage. To further improve service to favored clients, ISPs can deploy Content Engines at each POP. Then, when a client accesses the Internet, the request is first redirected to the POP Content Engine. If the POP Content Engine is unable to fulfill the request from local storage, it makes a normal web request to the end server.
Upstream, this request is redirected to the Content Engine at the main Internet access point. If the request is fulfilled by the Content Engine, traffic on the main Internet access link is avoided, the origin web servers experience lower demand, and the client experiences better network response times.
Enterprise networks can apply this hierarchical transparent architecture in the same way.
Caching Hierarchy in Enterprise Solutions
Question 3.
Which two statements are true about cookies? (Choose two)
A. Cookies are accessible only by the client’s browser.
B. Cookies are kept by the client’s browser on the server.
C. Cookies are assigned by the server or load balancer.
D. Cookies are kept by the client’s browser on the client machine.
E. Session state is maintained by a cookie provided by the client.
Answer: C, D
Question 4.
Which of the following statements are true with regards to the CSM supported network topologies? (Choose two)
A. In the bridge mode, directly attached servers point to the CSM as the default gateway.
B. In router mode, directly attached servers point to the CSM as the default gateway.
C. The bridge mode between 2 VLANs implies that they are on different IP subnets.
D. The router mode between 2 VLANs implies that they are on different IP subnets.
E. Router and bridge modes cannot be configured simultaneously on the same module.
Answer: B, D
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Question 1.
Which configuration provides the mission-critical traffic class with a minimum bandwidth guarantee of 84 kbps and a maximum upper bandwidth limit of 96 kbps?
A. policy-map shape
class mission-critical
bandwidth 64
shape average 96000
B. policy-map shape
class mission-critical
bandwidth 96
shape average 64000
C. policy-map shape
class mission-critical
shape average 64000
shape peak 96000
D. policy-map shape
class mission-critical
priority 64
bandwidth 96
Answer: A
Question 2.
What is a PDLM (packet description language module) file?
A. It is used to enhance the list of protocols recognized by NBAR.
B. It is required file stored in the flash memory if the router when implementing classbased
marking using NBAR.
C. It is used to enable the NBAR MIB for sending SMNP traps when the traffic rate hits a
threshold.
D. It is used to store the application traffic statistics gathered by NBAR.
E. It is used to allow NBAR to search for a protocol using a port number other than the well-
known port.
F. It is a file stored in the flash memory of the router and is used to integrate NBAR operations
with auto-qos.
Answer: A
Question 3.
Given the above configuration, which two statements are correct? (Choose two)
A. All traffic not matching the well-known services class will be marked by the defaultclass to
DSCP 0.
B. All traffic not matching either the well-known or unknown-services class will be marked by the
default-class as DSCP 0.
C. All incoming DNS (port 53) traffic on Ethernet 0/0 will be marked af21.
D. All RTP applications (default ports 5004 and 5005) will be marked DSCP 1.
E. All Telnet (port 23) traffic exiting Ethernet 0/0 will be marked as af21.
Answer: C, D
Question 4.
What is the default trust mode on a Catalyst 2950 switch port?
A. trust cos
B. trust dscp
C. trust ip precedence
D. trust device cisco-phone
E. trust device cisco-router
F. untrusted
Answer: F
Question 5.
When LLQ is being configured, which IOS command is used to limit the traffic rate on the priority queue even when the other class queues are not congested?
A. priority
B. bandwidth
C. queue-limit
D. police
E. hold-queue
Answer: D
Question 6.
Note this exhibit is for questions 10-14
What will happen if the incoming bulk class traffic rate arriving at the fa0/0 interface is higher than the normal burst rate (CIR)?
A. Dropped
B. Marked as AF11 then transmitted
C. Marked as DSCP 0 then transmitted.
D. Queued in the excess token buckert.
E. Queued in the CBWFQ.
Answer: A
Question 7.
All traffic belonging to the class-default traffic class on the s0/0 interface will be queued by a class queue that uses which type of queuing?
A. FIFO
B. LLQ
C. WFQ
D. Round Robin
E. PQ
Answer: A
Question 8.
What will happen if the incoming mission-critical class traffic rate arriving at the fa0/0 interface is higher than the normal burst rate (CIR) but not exceeding the excess burst rate?
A. Dropped
B. Marked as AF31 then transmitted.
C. Marked as AF32 then transmitted.
D. Marked as AF33 then transmitted.
E. Queued in the CBWFQ.
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which type of traffic receives the least amount of guaranteed bandwidth when exiting the S0/0 interface?
A. ftp
B. http
C. telnet
D. citrix
E. sqlnet
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which type of software queue is used on the s0/0 interface?
A. LLQ
B. CBWFQ
C. FIFO
D. WFQ
Answer: B
Question 11.
With a queue depth at maximum threshold, its is desired that one out of every 512 packets be dropped. In this case, what is the number 512 known as?
A. Mark probability denominator
B. Congestive discard threshold
C. Minimum-drop threshold
D. Maximum-drop threshold
Answer: A
Question 12.
Which two of the following statements about CBWFQ are correct? (Choose two)
A. The CBWFQ scheduler provides a guaranteed amount of minimum bandwidth to each class.
B. CBWFQ services each class queue using a strict priority scheduler.
C. The class-default queue only supports WFQ.
D. Each CBWFQ traffic class is policed using a congestion aware policer.
E. Inside a class queue, processing is always FIFO, except for the class-default queue.
Answer: A, E
Question 13.
Which of the following configurations requires the use of hierarchical policy maps?
A. The use of class-based WRED within a CBWFQ class queue.
B. The use of a strict priority-class queue within CBWFQ.
C. The use of CBWFQ inside class-based shaping.
D. The use of nested class-maps with class-based marking.
E. The use of both the bandwidth and shape statements within a CBWFQ class queue.
Answer: C
Question 14.
An ECN-enabled packet arrives at a router with ECN WRED turned on. WRED determines the packet should be dropped.
What happens when the average queue length is between the minimum and maximum thresholds?
A. The packet is tail dropped.
B. The packet is forwarded without change in all cases.
C. The ECT and CE bits are set to 1 if not already set.
D. The ECT bit is set to 0 and the CE bit is set to 1 of not already set.
Answer: C
Question 15.
With the use of class maps to classify traffic, into which traffic class will the majority of the enterprise traffic typically be classified?
A. priority
B. bulk
C. mission-critical
D. transactional
E. class-default
F. scavenger
Answer: E
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Question 1.
A typical service contract provides advance replacement of hardware the next business day.
Under must warranties, advance replacement shipping is provided within _______ business days from the Return Material's Authorization (RMA).
A. 3
B. 7
C. 10
D. 14
Answer: C
Question 2.
What is a Cisco warranty?
A. the company's assurance that new parts will be delivered to the customer in fewer than ten
business days
B. the company's promise to customers that Cisco will be responsible for all repair and
replacement of products at the customer's site.
C. the company's assurance that the company will be responsible for the repair and replacement
of defective parts associated with equipment for an unlimited period of time.
D. the Cisco promise to customers that Cisco will be responsible for the repair and replacement
of defective parts associated with equipment during a designated (finite) period of time.
Answer: D
Question 3.
How can businesses, schools, or government organizations benefit from Cisco ACNS?
Select two.
A. by using the content engines for instruction detection
B. by compressing packets to improve WAN bandwidth
C. by accelerating SAP, student information systems and other intranet applications
D. by delivering live and on-demand video for salesforce readiness, distance learning or
communications
Answer: C, D
Question 4.
What are two components of a wide-area network (WAN)? Select two.
A. video-area networks (VANs)
B. local-area networks (LANs)
C. security-area networks (SANs)
D. metropolitan-area networks (MANs)
Answer: B, D
Question 5.
Which two devices are considered customer premises equipment (CPE) for digital subscriber line (DSL) systems? Select two.
A. DSL modem
B. DSL router
C. DSL Internet Protocol (IP) switch
D. "smart" DSL access multiplexer (DSLAM)
Answer: A, B
Question 6.
Cisco.com is a portal that provides customers access to________.
A. spare parts
B. unlimited software downloads
C. major upgrades for their CiscoWorks 2000 software
D. online product and technology information, interactive network management and diagnostic
tools, and empowering knowledge transfer resources.
Answer: D
Question 7.
Which component should you reduce collision issues on a large LAN?
A. host
B. switch
C. printer
D. repeater
Answer: B
Question 8.
A Layer-2/3 switch increases traffic efficiency on the network by combining some of the functionalities of ___________.
A. hubs and switches
B. switches and routers
C. switches and access points
D. switches and Gigabit Ethernet
Answer: B
Question 9.
How does a switch respond when it receives a message?
A. It reads the Layer-5 information and sends the message directly to the intended computer.
B. It reads the Media Access Control (MAC) address and sends the message directly to the
intended computer.
C. It reads the Layer-5 information and broadcasts the message to all the computers that are
connected to the switch.
D. It reads the Media Access Control (MAC) address and broadcasts the message to all the
computers that are connected to the switch.
Answer: B
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