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Braindumps for "642-691" Exam

Any one mind send me dumps.

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Braindumps for "70-299" Exam

Implementing and Administering Security in a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Network

 Question 1.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. At ITCertKeys.com there are two Routing and Remote Access servers named ITCertKeys-SR12 and ITCertKeys-SR21. There is also an Internet Authentication Services server named ITCertKeys-SR15. The IAS server is set to provide accounting and centralized authentication of users connecting via ITCertKeys-SR12 and ITCertKeys-SR21. 

There are certain ITCertKeys.com network users who need to work from home. They will all require 24 hour access 7 days a week. It is your responsibility to create the appropriate remote access policies for ITCertKeys.com. To accommodate all the Remote access users you create a remote access policy that is configured to allow the Remote Users group the appropriate access to the VPN. For a while the network operated normally but certain remote users started complaining about not being able to access the VPN. You investigate and discover all the successfully connected users connected using a local user account located on ITCertKeys-SR15. You need to ensure that remote access is available whilst using the least amount of administrative effort.

What should you do?

A. Check whether ITCertKeys-SR12 and ITCertKeys-SR21 are set to support RADIUS 
    accounting and authentication
B. Add ITCertKeys-SR12 and ITCertKeys-SR21 to the RAS and IAS Servers group in Active 
    Directory
C. Promote the IAS server ITCertKeys-SR15 to a domain controller
D. Add ITCertKeys-SR15 to the RAS and IAS Server group in Active Directory

Answer:  D

Explanation: 
The IAS server requires being able to read all user objects attributes which can be achieved by adding ITCertKeys-SR15 to the RAS and IAS Servers group in Active Directory.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The scenario states that some users connect successfully. Thus it means that the Routing and Remote Access servers are configured properly.
B: These servers do not require being added to the RAS and IAS Servers group as they do not actually authenticate the user accounts.
C: This option will also achieve the scenario objective but requires too much administrative effort.

Question 2.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003. Half the client computers are portable computers, and the rest are desktop computers. The client computers are running a mix of Windows 2000 Professional Windows XP Professional. There are many ITCertKeys.com Sales department users that work out of the office due to the nature of their job description. These Sales department users require access to resources on ITCertKeys.com when out of the office. It is your responsibility to provide the Sales department users with access to the network. To this end you have five servers that are running with Routing and Remote Access services configured for VPN connectivity. All these servers are configured with the same remote access policy.

A new written security policy has recently been issued by the ITCertKeys.com management and consequently you had to reconfigure the policies on each of these servers. Because of the policy changes you received instruction to centralize the remote access policies to ensure that any future changes to the policies can be made once and applied to all remote access servers.

What should you do?

A. A Domain Group Policy to apply any changes should be configured.
B. The Routing and Remote Access servers must be configured to use Internet Authentication  
    Services (IAS).
C. An application directory partition must be implemented.
D. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) should be configured on all the Routing and Remote 
    Access servers.

Answer:  B

Explanation: 
IAS makes use of Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) to centralize policies, logging, and authentication services from a single location. This would be ideal under the circumstances of ever-changing policy application. 

Incorrect answers:
A: Remote policies are not stored in group policies. Thus configuring a Domain Group policy will not centralize the policies.
C: Implementing an application directory partition will not centralize remote access policies. These partitions are used to create a section of the Active Directory database for application specific data to control replication and not for centralization of remote policies.
D: EAP is an authentication protocol and is not used to centralize remote access policies.

Question 3.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and some run Windows 2000 Server and all client computers are laptop computers that run Windows XP Professional. At ITCertKeys.com there are two Routing and Remote Access servers named ITCertKeys-SR02 and ITCertKeys-SR05 respectively. The Routing and Remote Access servers are configured to accept connection requests through VPN and dial-up connections. The laptop client computers of the ITCertKeys.com domain currently make use of the MS-CHAP v2 protocol for authenticating to the network. A new ITCertKeys.com written security policy requires centralized remote connection authentications. The policy further states that all remote connections to the ITCertKeys.com corporate network authenticate using smart cards ensuring the data is encrypted with L2TP with IPSec. To this end you have received instruction from the CIO to comply with the security policy. You thus need to plan a new design for both VPN and dial-up connections.

What should you do?

A. An IAS server and VPN server must be added to the domain. ITCertKeys-SR02 and 
    ITCertKeys-SR05 and the new VPN server must be configured to use the IAS server for 
    authentication and make use of the EAP-TLS protocol for authentication on the IAS server
B. An additional VPN server must be added to the domain. ITCertKeys-SR02 and ITCertKeys-
    SR05 must be configured to use the new VPN server for authentication and make use of the 
    EAP-TLS protocol for authentication on the VPN server.
C. An additional IAS server and VPN server must be added to the domain. ITCertKeys-SR02 and 
    ITCertKeys-SR05 and the new VPN server must be configured to use the IAS server for 
    authentication and make use of the MS-CHAP v2 protocol for authentication on the IAS server.
D. An additional VPN server must be added to the domain. ITCertKeys-SR02 and ITCertKeys-
    SR05 must be configured to use the new VPN server for authentication and make use of the 
    MS-CHAP v2 protocol for authentication on the VPN server.

Answer:  A

Explanation: 
In the scenario you are required to use smartcards authentication and this will be achieved by adding the additional IAS server to the domain and configuring your Routing and Remote Access Service servers to use the added IAS server which should be configured to use EAP-TLS for authentication as this protocol supports the use of smartcards.

Incorrect Answers:
B: The problem with this implementation is that the authentication will not be centralized as the scenario state it is imperative authentication is centralized.
C: There is only one problem in this option and that's the use of MS-CHAP v2 as this protocol does not support smartcard authentication.
D: The problem with this implementation is that the authentication will not be centralized as the scenario state it is imperative authentication is centralized.

Question 4.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. ITCertKeys.com has its headquarters in Chicago and a branch office in Dallas. You are responsible for the management of the Routing and Remote Access services at ITCertKeys.com. You enable Routing and Remote Access on a server named ITCertKeys-SR05. You received a list of telephone numbers of those that are allowed to connect to the ITCertKeys.com network via remote access together with instruction from the CIO to configure ITCertKeys-SR05 to accept only connections from those numbers.

You need to configure ITCertKeys-SR05 to support Automatic Number Identification/Calling Line Identification (ANI/CLI). You then create a user account for each of the phone numbers on the list from which calls will be accepted. You then create a remote access policy to support these ANI/CLI connections. Now you just need to apply the policy.

What should you do?

A. Enable the Unencrypted authentication option on the Authentication tab of the remote access 
    profile for the policy.
B. Enable the Unauthenticated access option on the Authentication tab of the remote access 
    profile for the policy.
C. Enable the Encrypted authentication option on the Authentication tab of the remote access 
    profile for the policy.
D. Enable the MD5-challenge authentication option on the Authentication tab of the remote 
    access profile for the policy.

Answer:  B

Explanation: 
Because a user name and password are not going to be sent when an ANI/CLI connection is made, you need to allow unauthenticated access. Thus you should enable support for unauthenticated access on the Authentication tab of the remote access policy profile for the policy. Alternative you could also configure the User Identity setting for remote access policies in the registry to direct ITCertKeys-SR05 or IAS server to use the number from which the user is calling as the user identity.

Incorrect answers:
A: If you enable unencrypted authentication support then you will be allowing support for clients that use the Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) and this is not what is required in this scenario.
C: You enable encrypted authentication support to allow support for clients that use CHAP and MS-CHAP. This is not what is required in this scenario.
D: You do not need to enable support for MD5-challenge authentication.

Question 5.
You work as the network domain administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory forest named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains ten Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition computers and 1,200 client computers running Windows XP Professional. You are responsible for the management of security related settings and computer accounts in the domain. You need to define a custom security template to manage configuration settings for the computers. This custom security template will have to be imported into a Group Policy Object (GPO) that is linked to the domain. 

Which of the following Group Policy Object categories' related configuration settings can be managed using a security template? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Account policies
B. Disk Quotas
C. Event Log
D. File System
E. Windows File Protection
F. Local Policies
G. Registry
H. Group Policy
I. Restricted Groups
J. System Services

Answer:  A, C, D, F, G, I, J

Explanation: 
You can make use of a security template to manage the configuration settings for the following categories: Account policies, Event Log, File System, Local Policies, Registry, Restricted Groups, and System Services

Incorrect answers:
B: Disk Quotas management: i.e. defining and setting is done using the System\Disk Quotas portion of Administrative Template.
E: Windows File Protection enabling and management of its cache is done using the System\Windows File Protection portion of Administrative Template.
H: Group Policy is managed using the System\Group Policy portion of Administrative Template

Question 6.
You work as the network domain administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory forest named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains several Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition computers and 1,500 client computers running Windows XP Professional. You are responsible for the management of security related settings and computer accounts in the domain. You need to configure settings that are related to passwords, account lockout, and Kerberos. This custom security template will be imported into a Group Policy Object (GPO) that is linked to the domain. You must thus make use a of a security template node to accomplish the task.

What should you do?

A. Use the Event Log security template node.
B. Use the Local Policies security template node.
C. Use the Account Policies security template node.
D. Use the Restricted Groups security template node.

Answer:  C

Explanation: 
The Account Policies node of the Security template is used to configure password- account lockout-, and Kerberos settings.

Incorrect answers:
A: The Event Log node is used to configure settings for the application, security and system event logs and not to configure passwords, account lockouts or Kerberos. 
B: The Local Policies node is used to configure auditing, user rights and other security-related options and not passwords, accounts lockouts or Kerberos settings.
D: The Restricted Groups node is used to configure and manage the membership for specific security groups.

Question 7.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory forest that contains three domains named ITCertKeys.com, us. ITCertKeys.com and, uk. ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. The ITCertKeys.com domain and organizational unit (OU) structure is illustrated by the following Exhibit.
Exhibit:
 
Accounts department employees have user accounts in the us.ITCertKeys.com domain, Research and Development employees have user accounts in the uk.ITCertKeys.com domain, and all other users have user accounts in the ITCertKeys.com domain. Each domain has an OU named DC_OU that only contains the computer accounts of the domain controllers in that particular domain.
A new ITCertKeys.com security policy requires the following:
1. All Accounting department users must use complex passwords with a minimum length of ten characters.
2. These password restrictions should only affect the Accounting department users. You thus need to ensure that these requirements are successfully achieved. 

What should you do?

A. Create a GPO named PWRestrict.
    Link it to the DC_OU OU in the uk. ITCertKeys.com domain.
B. Create a GPO named PWRestrict.
    Link it to the ITK_Users OU in the ITCertKeys.com domain.
C. Create a GPO named PWRestrict.
    Link it to the DC_OU OU in the ITCertKeys.com domain.
D. Modify the appropriate password policy settings in the Default Domain Policy GPO.
E. Create a GPO named PWRestrict.
    Link it to the R&D OU in the uk. ITCertKeys.com domain.
F. Create a GPO named PWRestrict.
    Link it to the DC_OU OU in the us. ITCertKeys.com domain.
G. Create a GPO named PWRestrict.
    Link it to the Accounts OU in the us. ITCertKeys.com domain.

Answer:  D

Explanation: 
Three domain-wide account policy settings (Password Policy, Account Lockout Policy and Kerberos Policy) should be unique to the domain and should always be defined at the domain level. These settings are enforced by the domain controller computers in the domain, regardless of the container holding the domain controllers or the OU structure in the domain. Therefore, all domain controllers always retrieve the values of these user account policy settings from the Default Domain Policy GPO.

Incorrect Answers:
A, C, F: If you use these options, the settings you have configured will be overridden by those in the Default Domain Policy GPO.
B: Using this option would only apply the settings to users in this OU. Also, the settings you have configured will be overridden by those in the Default Domain Policy GPO.
E: There are no members of the Accounting department added to the RandD OU. This GPO will not affect these users.
G: The password policy settings are enforced on the domain controllers. While settings in a GPO linked at the OU level will apply to users or computers in the container, password policies should always be applied at the domain level so that the policy will be applied to all domain computers.

Question 8.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com with sites All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. All users and computers belong to the ITCertKeys.com domain. All file servers reside in an organizational unit (OU) named FileServers. Each file server hosts several shared folders, some of which contain confidential financial data. All domain users have permissions to access the information in the shared folders. You suspect that a domain user account has been used by a hacker to access confidential financial information stored on a file server named ITCertKeys-SR16. You need to determine which user account has been compromised. You plan to use auditing to track which users are logging on to the domain. However, your desire is not to examine large volumes of information to view logon attempts to domain resources. You want to use the least amount of disk space when you audit access to domain resources.

What should you do?

A. Configure a Group Policy Object (GPO) that enables the Logon Events audit policy for failure 
    auditing and success auditing. Link the GPO to the Active Directory container that contains 
    your domain controllers.
B. Configure a Group Policy Object (GPO) that enables the Logon Events audit policy for success 
    auditing. Link the GPO to the Active Directory container that contains your domain controllers.
C. Configure a Group Policy Object (GPO) that enables the Account Logon Events audit policy for 
    success auditing. Link the GPO to the Active Directory container that contains your domain 
    controllers
D. Configure a Group Policy Object (GPO) that enables the Account Logon Events audit policy for 
    failure auditing. Link the GPO to the Active Directory container that contains your domain 
    controllers.

Answer:  C

Explanation: 
The Account Logon Events policy setting is used to track which users are logging on to your domain. The Account Logon Events policy is enabled on domain controllers. Enabling success auditing will result in an entry being placed in the security log whenever a user makes a successful attempt to log on to the ITCertKeys.com domain by using a domain user account.

Incorrect Answers 
A: The Logon Events audit policy is used to audit logon attempts using local computer accounts. This policy will only log an event when a user logs on to a domain controller.
B: The Logon Events audit policy is used to audit logon attempts using local computer accounts. This policy will only log an event when a user logs on to a domain controller.
D: Enabling failure auditing will result in an entry being placed in the security log whenever a user makes an unsuccessful attempt to log on to the ITCertKeys.com domain by using a domain user account. You suspect that a domain user account is already being used to access domain resources.

Question 9.
You work as the senior network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. You have noticed that some unauthorized changes have been made to the registry of several computers. You suspect that one of your junior network administrators is changing the registry. You decide to:
1. Enable auditing to log all changes being made to the registry.
2. All attempts made to change the registry keys to be logged.
3. No other type of event to be included in your auditing effort.
4. Use Event Viewer to view all logged event entries.
You open the domain audit security policy and navigate to the audit policy settings under the Security Settings node. You then enable the Audit object access audit policy setting for failed events. When viewing the logged events, you discover though that there are no events logged for any successful changes made to the Registry. You want all events to be logged, and not only failed attempts to change the Registry. 

How should you configure the audit policy settings of the domain audit security policy?

A. Configure the Audit privilege use audit policy setting so that successful and failed events are 
    logged.
B. Configure the Audit directory service access audit policy setting so that successful and failed 
    events are logged.
C. Configure the Audit Policy change audit policy setting so that successful and failed events are 
    logged.
D. Configure the Audit object access audit policy setting so that successful and failed events are 
    logged

Answer:  D

Explanation: 
While you have enabled the correct audit policy setting in the Security Settings node, you have specified that only failed attempts to change the Registry be logged. You SHOULD configure the Audit object access setting if you want to track and log when a user accesses operating system components such as files, folders or registry keys. Because you need both successful and failed events logged, you should reconfigure the Audit object access audit policy setting so that both successful and failed events are logged.

Incorrect Answers:
A: You would configure the Audit privilege use audit policy setting to log when a user affects a user right.
B: The Audit directory service access policy audit policy setting logs events that pertain to when users access Active Directory objects which have system access control lists (SACLs). The Registry is not an Active Directory object. You should regard it as being computer specific.
C: The Audit Policy change audit policy setting is used to log changes that are made to the security configuration settings of the computer.

Question 10.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. Clive Wilson is a manager in the Human Resources department. Clive Wilson frequently accesses files that contain confidential information on ITCertKeys.com's employees. The files reside in several shared folders on his Windows XP Professional computer. Both Dean and employees working in the Human Resources department modify these files. Clive Wilson complains that this morning, when he attempted to access a file in one of the shared folders, the shared folders and files were deleted. You decide to use last nights backup to restore the files. You successfully restore the latest available backup of these files. You must immediately determine who the culprit is that deleted the files. You suspect that someone deleted Clive's files from across the network. You log on to Clive Wilson's computer. You want to configure local security policy, so that you can determine who connected to Clive's computer and deleted the files. You want to use Event Viewer to produce a listing of all logged entries.

What should you do? (Choose the two actions which you should perform. Each correct answer presents only part of the complete solution. Choose two answers that apply.)

A. Enable the Privilege Use - Success audit policy on Clive Wilson's computer. 
    Use Event Viewer to configure a filter that will list all entries produced by the audit policy.
B. Enable the Logon Events - Success audit policy on Clive Wilson's computer.
    Use Event Viewer to configure a filter that will list all entries produced by the audit policy.
C. Enable the Account Logon Events - Success audit policy on Clive Wilson's computer.
    Use Event Viewer to configure a filter that will list all entries produced by the audit policy.
D. Enable the Object Access - Success audit policy on Clive Wilson's computer.
    Use Event Viewer to configure a filter that will list all entries produced by the audit policy.

Answer:  A, D

Explanation: 
The Privilege Use - Success audit policy will allow you to see who deleted the files from Clive Wilson's computer, and also when these files were deleted. The Object Access - Success audit policy will let you know when an individual successfully accessed Clive Wilson's files. You can then use Event Viewer to configure a filter that will list all entries produced by the audit policy.

Incorrect Answers:
C: The Logon Events - Success and Account Logon Events - Success audit policies would not work because the question states that Clive Wilson's files were deleted from over the network. These policies would inform you on who logged on to the local computer, and whether a user account was compromised.
B: The Logon Events - Success and Account Logon Events - Success audit policies would not work because the question states that Clive Wilson's files were deleted from over the network. These policies would inform you on who logged on to the local computer, and whether a user account was compromised.


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Strata Green IT

 Question 1.
A small business currently has a server room with a large cooling system that is appropriate for its size. The location of the server room is the top level of a building. The server room is filled with incandescent lighting that needs to continuously stay on for security purposes. 

Which of the following would be the MOST cost-effective way for the company to reduce the server rooms energy footprint?

A. Replace all incandescent lighting with energy saving neon lighting.
B. Set an auto-shutoff policy for all the lights in the room to reduce energy consumption after 
    hours.
C. Replace all incandescent lighting with energy saving fluorescent lighting.
D. Consolidate server systems into a lower number of racks, centralizing airflow and cooling in 
    the room.

Answer: C

Question 2.
Which of the following methods effectively removes data from a hard drive prior to disposal? (Select TWO).

A. Use the remove hardware OS feature
B. Formatting the hard drive
C. Physical destruction
D. Degauss the drive
E. Overwriting data with 1s and 0s by utilizing software

Answer: C, E

Question 3.
Which of the following terms is used when printing data on both the front and the back of paper?

A. Scaling
B. Copying
C. Duplex
D. Simplex

Answer: C

Question 4.
Which of the following can conserve energy in a server room?

A. Sealing all potential cold air leaks
B. Installing additional cooling fans
C. Setting the temperature lower
D. Replacing the UPS with a generator

Answer: A

Question 5.
A user reports that their cell phone battery is dead and cannot hold a charge. 

Which of the following should be done when disposing of the old battery?

A. Recycle the battery.
B. Store the battery.
C. Place battery in a sealed plastic bag.
D. Disassemble the battery.

Answer: A

Question 6.
Which of the following needs to be recycled due to dangerous amounts of gas contained inside its housing?

A. CRT
B. Toner
C. Surge suppressor
D. LCD

Answer: A

Question 7.
Which of the following technologies allows a single piece of hardware to host multiple operating systems simultaneously?

A. Virtualization
B. SMTP servers
C. ThinNet clients
D. Terminal servers

Answer: A

Question 8.
A company would like to dispose of old toner units. 

Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate course of action to take?

A. Use an approved recycling program either through a vendor or local government agency.
B. Old toner disposal is the responsibility of the manufacturer. Call the appropriate number at the 
    respective company.
C. Toss the units into the trash. Toner cartridges are biodegradable.
D. Clean out the toner cartridges with warm water and place the clean units into the recycling 
    collection.

Answer: A

Question 9.
A large company has over 500 computers that currently stay powered on indefinitely. None of the systems are used after the company closes at 5 p.m. 

Which of the following would be the MOST effective way for the company to save on electricity usage?

A. Set the computers for automatic log-off after one hour of inactivity.
B. Institute a policy of either shutdown or sleep mode an hour after close.
C. Turn on the Wake on LAN functionality for all computers.
D. Schedule all patching to be done during work hours.

Answer: B

Question 10.
A small business currently has four separate servers, three of which perform low-overhead tasks with small memory footprints. 

How could the company BEST reduce power consumption among these four servers, while not sacrificing functionality?

A. Enable each server's Cool 'n' Quiet and/orSpeedStep functionality so that processing power is 
    conserved.
B. Enforce auto-shutdown routines on all four servers for after-hours power saving while the office 
    is closed.
C. Consolidate the four servers onto the best two, combining them logically by tasks and memory 
    consumption.
D. Consolidate the four servers onto the most powerful machine using virtualization.

Answer: D


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Network +( 2009 Edition) Exam

 Question 1
When surfing the internet, which layer of the OSI Model will result in a session time-out?

A. Layer 2
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 5
D. Layer 6

Answer: C

Question 2
A customer complains that when there is a phone call at home, the wireless on his notebook
computer will lost connection. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A. The cordless phones are plugged into the RJ-11 jack
B. The cordless phones are plugged into same outlet as the router
C. The cordless phones are2.4Ghz which interferes with wireless
D. The cordless phones are5.8Ghz which interferes with wireless

Answer: C

Question 3
If you want to use a 100BASE-T network to connect two servers and five workstations, which
physical topology will you use?

A. Star
B. Bus
C. Ring
D. FDDI

Answer: A

Question 4
In an RJ-11 connector, how many wire pairs can be used at most?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
2
D. 8

Answer: A

Question 5
Which term best describes a server that can be configured to block connections according to the
static address of a computer?

A. Kerberos
B. RADIUS
C. IP address filtering
D. MAC address filtering

Answer: C

Question 6
How many wires can be fit into RJ-11 connector at most?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Answer: B

Question 7
CAT 5 cable is a twisted pair (4 pairs) high signal integrity cable type. In a main distribution frame
(MDF), which is the highest transmission speed for a CAT5 network cable?

A. 1Mbps.
B. 10Mbps.
C. 100Mbps.
D. 1000Mbps.

Answer: C

Question 8
3
Which of the following operates at a maximum of 16 Mbps?

A. 10GBase-SR
B. 10Base-T
C. Token Ring
D. FDDI

Answer: C

Question 9
Which network device connects to a Telco T1 line at the boundary point?

A. Modem
B. ISDN adapter
C. NIC
D. CSU / DSU

Answer: D

Question 10
Which network component transmits packets through a wireless network?

A. WAP
B. NIC
C. CSU / DSU
D. WEP

Answer: A


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Braindumps for "000-100" Exam

Enterprise Technical Support for AIX and Linux

 Question 1.
A Power 570 is planned to run with a dual VIOS environment. The VIOS should be equipped for maximum resilience to provide LUN access to both VIO servers. 

What are the minimum requirements?

A. Two dual port adapters
B. Four dual port adapters
C. Four single port adapters
D. Two single port adapters

Answer: C

Question 2.
A customer is trying to configure a Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) on a Logical Port Host Ethernet (lp-hea) using mkdev -sea ento -vadapter ent2 -default ent2 -defaulted 1 and receive this response:
0514-040 Error initializing a device into the kernel. 

What can be the cause of this problem?

A. A SEA can only be created on a physical network adapter
B. Promiscuous mode on the virtual Ethernet adapter ent2 must be set to "On" from the HMC
C. Promiscuous mode on lp-hea entO must be set to "On" from the HMC
D. SEA must be a default VLAN other than 1

Answer: C

Question 3.
A customer has ordered a Power 570 with only 4 dual port fiber cards. Which configuration would allow 4 LPARs on this server to have multiple paths, with no single point of failure, for each SAN connection?

A. One VIO server mapping disks using dual virtual SCSI adapters from the 4 adapters
B. Dual VIO servers with 2 cards per server and mapping via virtual SCSI adapters
C. Assign each LPAR 2 fibre ports, each from a different fibre adapter
D. Assign each LPAR a fibre card and ensure each port is mapped to a separate fiber switch

Answer: B

Question 4.
A customer is migrating from dedicated LPARs to a virtualized environment utilizing PowerVM I/O features. They have created their profiles for their two virtual 10 (VIO) servers. The First VIO server is installed and running. When trying to DLPAR the DVD/ROM the task fails on the HMC. 

What is the probable cause?

A. /etc/hosts table on HMC is not configured
B. PowerVM key is not registered
C. Virtual I/O server does not support DLPAR
D. Networking is not configured

Answer: D

Question 5.
An AIX System administrator noticed that a TUNE_RESTRICTED error appeared in the error log.

What is the reason for this error?

A. A restricted tunable has been changed from the default value and the system was rebooted
B. A system attribute, pre610tune, was set to "true"
C. Someone tried to break the rule not to change /etc/tunables/nextboot
D. A restricted tunable has been changed from the default value

Answer: A

Question 6.
A customer has a Power 570 and has sent the following vmstat output to analyze:
Exhibit:
 

What should be recommend to the customer?

A. The system doesn't need additional hardware
B. The system needs additional network cards
C. The system needs additional memory
D. The system needs additional CPU

Answer: A

Question 7.
What command is used to create an application Workload partition?

A. crwpar
B. wparexec
C. mkwpar
D. mkappwpar

Answer: B

Question 8.
Which command should be used to permanently configure an additional network interface?

A. ifconfig
B. C smitty chinet
C. mkdev
D. Smitty mktcpip

Answer: B

Question 9.
Which command provides output for mixed page sizes?

A. mpstat
B. svmon -P
C. vmstat -o
D. lvmstat -m

Answer: B

Question 10.
Which tool is the most cost and time effective for specifying adapter placement on new orders?

A. Tivoli Provisioning Manager
B. System Planning tool + Workload estimator
C. System planning tool
D. HMC

Answer: C


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Braindumps for "1Y0-264" Exam

Citrix Presentation Server 4.5: Support Exam

 Question 1.
An administrator has implemented QoS (prioritization) to ensure that ICA traffic is prioritized appropriately. Session Reliability is using the default port.

What should the administrator check on the firewall to verify that Session Reliability will work?

A. TCP 1494 is opened for inbound traffic to the server.
B. TCP 2598 is opened for inbound traffic to the server.
C. TCP 1494 is opened for outbound traffic from the server.
D. TCP 2598 is opened for outbound traffic from the server.

Answer: B

Question 2.
Scenario: An administrator is attempting to restart one of the servers in a Presentation Server farm. However, the IMA Service fails with an error message that states:
"Setup Could Not Start The IMA Service."
To troubleshoot the issue in this scenario, the administrator should verify that the ____________.(Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)

A. server name has not been changed
B. startup type of the IMA Service is set to manual
C. WMI Service is started in the context of the administrator
D. print spooler service was started in the context of the system

Answer: D

Question 3.
An administrator received phone calls from users who are unable to bypass authentication when they log onto their disconnected sessions.

What is the reason for this issue?

A. NTLM v2 is not enabled in Active Directory.
B. The administrator did not enable the Streaming Client trust.
C. Smart Card authentication was not enabled on the Web Interface site.
D. The administrator did not set a policy for the application delivery method.

Answer: B

Question 4.
Users in different time zones have notified an administrator of a Presentation Server environment that the time displayed on their applications is incorrect.

How can the administrator correct this issue?

A. Configure the Client Time Zone (CTZ) rule.
B. Configure local time estimation for all users.
C. Enable the time zone rule for the server in the policy.
D. Disable the time zone rule Do not use client local time in the policy.

Answer: D

Question 5.
Scenario: Users are unable to log on to their desktops in a Presentation Server farm. The users all receive a message that states:
"You do not have access to logon to this session."

How can the administrator troubleshoot this issue?

A. Check the listener from the Presentation Server Console.
B. Check the settings on the listener port in the Terminal Services Configuration.
C. Look for the users' accounts in the User Summary Report in the Resource Manager node.
D. Look at the amount of sessions on the server in the Server Summary Report from the 
    Resource Manager node.

Answer: B

Question 6.
How can an administrator remove a server in a Presentation Server farm from the load balance table after an IMA Service failure?

A. Enable the appropriate Health Monitoring check.
B. Configure the IMA Service to run QFARM/LOAD upon failure.
C. Enable the Load Throttling rule within the Server Load Evaluator.
D. Change the Windows services dependencies of the IMA Service.

Answer: A

Question 7.
When restoring a backup of a Microsoft SQL data store database, what is the LAST thing that needs to be done to complete the restoration sequence?

A. Copy the DSN file to the new database server.
B. Verify that all servers are using the correct DSN.
C. Stop and restart the IMA Service on all servers in the farm.
D. Run the DSMAINT CONFIG command to change the IMA Service configuration on all servers 
    in the farm.

Answer: C

Question 8.
An administrator needs to deliver a video-based training application that is highly graphical on a server running Presentation Server.

What should be enabled to configure this type of application?

A. CPU optimization
B. Memory optimization
C. SpeedScreen Progressive Display
D. SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration

Answer: C

Question 9.
Scenario: An administrator just obtained a new server to add to a farm. Once the server is added to the farm it begins a trust query cycle. However, the cycle could not complete due to communication issues. 

Which component does the server need to communicate with to complete the trust query cycle?

A. Data store
B. Data collector
C. Summary database
D. Database connection

Answer: A

Question 10.
Scenario: Users at a small remote office report that ICA sessions are slow and sometimes drop, especially When large print jobs are running. The administrator plans to upgrade the WAN link later this year but is currently unable to do so. The administrator has already implemented Session Reliability. The next step the administrator should take is to______________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)

A. implement ICA Keep-Alive
B. adjust the bandwidth policies
C. select Auto Client Reconnect
D. prioritize the Print Manager Service

Answer: B



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Braindumps for "3M0-300" Exam

3Com Certified Security Specialist Final Exam v3.0

 Question 1.
Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code?

A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680

Answer: B

Question 2.
Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?

A. ISDN
B. Console
C. Serial WAN
D. 10/100 Ethernet

Answer: A

Question 3.
True or False: The Flexible Interface Cards (FICs) in the Router 6040 can be hot swapped.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A

Question 4.
True or False: The RPU can be hot swapped.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B

Question 5.
What kind of modules does the Router 5232 use?

A. SICs only
B. MIMs only
C. SICs and MIMs
D. SICs and FICs

Answer: B

Explanation:
 

Question 6.
Which of the following modules is a daughter card that fits onto the RPU2?

A. ATM
B. Enhanced Serial
C. Encryption Card
D. Memory Expansion

Answer: C

Question 7.
How many FIC slots does a Router 6040 have?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Answer: B

Question 8.
Which of the following features is available on both the RPU and the RPU2?

A. SFP Interface Slot
B. CF Memory Card slot
C. Gigabit Ethernet Interfaces
D. Power and Fan LED indicators

Answer: D

Question 9.
What does it indicate if the LEDs on the Power Supply of the Router 6000 are as follows? ALM (red) - OFF
RUN (green) ON
AC OK (red) - ON

A. Power is OFF or has failed
B. A Runtime error has occurred
C. Power is ON and voltage is normal
D. Power is ON but operating voltage is not within acceptable range

Answer: C

Question 10.
True or False, The Router 6080 Fans have two rotational speeds.
 

A. True
B. False

Answer: A


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Braindumps for "310-091" Exam

Sun Certified Business Component Developer for the Java Platform, Enterprise Edition 5

 Question 1.
Given the following stateful session bean:
10. @Stateful
11. @TransactionAttributefJransactionAttributeType. SUPPORTS)
12. public class VideoBean implements Video {
13. // insert code here
14. public void methodAO {}
15.}

Assuming no other transaction-related metadata, which code can be added at Line 13 to guarantee that business method methodA will execute only if invoked with an active transaction?

A. @TransactionAttributefJ
B. @TransactionManagement(TransactionAttributeType. CONTAINER)
C. @TransactionAttribute(TransactionAttributeType. MANDATORY)
D. @TransactionAttributeO"ransactionAttributeType.REQUIRES_NEW)

Answer: C

Question 2.
Given the following client-side code that makes use of the session bean Foo:
10. @EJB Foo beanl;
11. @EJB Foo bean2; //more code here
20. booleantestl = beanl.equals(beanl);
21. booleantest2 = beanl.equals(bean2);

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. If Foo is stateful, testl is true, and test2 is true.
B. If Foo is stateful, testl is true, and test2 is false.
C. If Foo is stateless, testl is true, and test2 is true.
D. If Foo is stateful, testl is false, and test2 is false.
E. If Foo is stateless, testl is true, and test2 is false.
F. If Foo is stateless, testl is false, and test2 is false.

Answer: B, C

Question 3.
Which statement about entity manager is true?

A. A container-managed entity manager must be a JTA entity manager.
B. An entity manager injected into session beans can use either JTA or resource-local transaction 
    control.
C. An entity manager created by calling the EntityManagerFactory.createEntityManager method 
    always uses JTA transaction control.
D. An entity manager obtained through resource injection in a stateful session bean can use a 
    resource-local EntityTransaction for transaction control

Answer: A

Question 4.
Which statement is true about the use of a persist operation in a transaction?

A. If a user persists a detached object it always becomes managed.
B. The persist operation on an entity always cascades to its related entities.
C. If a user persists a new entity with an existing primary key the transaction will fail.
D. If a user persists a managed entity an exception may be thrown by the persist operation.

Answer: C

Question 5.
A developer writes a stateless session bean with one local business interface and with container managed transactions. All business methods have transaction attribute REQUIRED. The bean has an injected field sessionCtx of the type SessionContext. 

Which two operations are allowed in a business method of the bean? (Choose two.)

A. sessionCtx. getEJBObject
B. sessionCtx.setRollbackOnly
C. sessionCtx. getMessageContext
D. sessionCtx. getBusinessObject
E. sessionCtx. getEJBLocalObject

Answer: B, D

Question 6.
A developer implements a session bean with a method doStuff which behaves differently depending on the caller's security role. Only users in security roles "ADMIN" and "USER" are allowed to call the method. Assume that there is no security-related metadata in the deployment descriptor. 

Which two, taken in combination, are appropriate to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

A. Annotate method doStuff with @PermitAII.
B. Annotate method doStuff with @RolesAllowed({"ADMIN","USER"})
C. If EJBContext.getCallerPrincipal returns role "ADMIN", implement the behavior for users in role 
    ADMIN.
D. If EJBContext.isCallerlnRole("ADMIN") returns true, implement the behavior defined for users 
    In role "ADMIN".

Answer: B, D

Question 7.
Which Java Persistence query uses the aggregate function correctly, assuming that chairs field is of type int?

A. SELECT ANY(r. chairs) FROM Room r
B. SELECT NEW Integer(MAX(r. chairs)) FROM Room r
C. SELECT r FROM Room r WHERE r.chairs > AVG(r.chairs)
D. SELECT c FROM Chair c WHERE LOCATE (c.type, lazyboy) > -1

Answer: B

Question 8.
Given:
11. ©Entity public class X{
12. @ld int id;
13. Y y;
14.}
A public class Y with NO Java Persistence annotations is defined in the same package.

Which statement is correct about these classes if NO other annotations and mapping descriptors are provided?

A. Class Y must be serializable.
B. Class Y must be marked as an entity.
C. The entity X is not defined correctly.The field y must be marked as @Lob.
D. Class Y must be accessed by a persistence application through a public interface.

Answer: A

Question 9.
A developer creates a stateless session bean. This session bean needs data from a remote system. Reading this data takes a long time. Assume that the data will NOT change during the lifetime of the bean and that the information to connect to the remote system is defined in JNDI.

Which statement describes how to manage the data correctly?

A. Read the data in the bean's constructor.
B. The data can only be read in the bean's business methods.
C. Read the data in a method which is annotated with @PrePassivate.
D. Read the data in a method which is annotated with @Post Activate.
E. Read the data in a method which is annotated with (5)PostConstruct.

Answer: E

Question 10.
An enterprise bean has security permissions set up using declarative security features. Under which two conditions can a client be guaranteed to have permission to invoke a business method on the enterprise bean? (Choose two.)

A. The Application Assembler has marked the enterprise bean method as unchecked.
B. The client's principal has been assigned a security role with permission to invoke the method.
C. The Application Assembler has set the security-identity deployment descriptor to run-as.
D. The Application Assembler has mapped all security role references using the role-link element.

Answer: A, B



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Braindumps for "310-092" Exam

Sun Certified Business Component Developer for the Java Platform, Enterprise Edition 5

 Question 1.
A developer wants to create a business interface for both local and remote usage. For performance reasons the remote interface should NOT be called by a client in the same JVM.

Which statement is required to accomplish this, assuming there is no deployment descriptor?

A. The business methods are defined in one interface which must be annotated with both @Local 
    and @Remote.
B. The business methods are defined twice in one interface. One method is annotated with 
    @Local and the other is annotated with @Remote.
C. The business methods are defined in a common interface by two other interfaces which are 
    annotated with @Local and @Remote respectively. The bean implements the super interface.
D. The business methods are defined in a common interface. It is extended by two interfaces, 
    annotated with @Local and ©Remote respectively. Both interfaces are implemented by the 
    bean class.

Answer: D

Question 2. 
A developer is creating an entity which is mapped to a table that has a primary key constraint defined on two character columns and would like to use mapping defaults as much as possible to simplify the code. 

Which two mapping options can be chosen? (Choose two.)

A. Usean @ld property that constructs a private field as a concatenation of two columns.
B. Use a separate class to map those two columns and use an @ldClass annotation to denote 
    The primary key field or property in the entity.
C. Use a separate @Embeddable class to map those two columns and use an @Embeddedld  
    annotation to denote a single primary key field or property in the entity.
D. Use a separate @Embeddable class to map those two columns and add two fields or  
    properties to the entity, each marked as @ld, that correspond to the fields or properties in the  
    embeddable class.
E. Use a separate class to map those two columns. Specify that class using @ldClass annotation  
    on the entity class. Add two fields or properties to the entity, each marked as @ld, that 
    correspond to the fields or properties in that separate class.

Answer: C, E

Question 3.
A developer maps the abstract entity class Account with concrete entity suB. Classes CreditCardAccount and SavingsAccount using the single table per class hierarchy strategy. 

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Instances of CreditCardAccount and SavingsAccount are stored in the same table.
B. All columns that correspond to fields declared in Account must be defined as nullable in the 
    database.
C. The fields declared in Account are stored in a different table than the ones declared in  
    CreditCardAccount and SavingsAccount.
D. All columns that correspond to fields declared in CreditCardAccount or SavingsAccount must  
   be defined as nullable in the database.

Answer: A, D

Question 4.
A developer writes an enterprise application and packages it into an .ear file. The application contains two persistence units defined at the .ear level with persistence unit names FooPU and BarPU. The application also contains an ejB. jar with one stateless session bean. 

Which code, when added to the stateless session bean class, injects an EntityManagerFactory at runtime?

A. @PersistenceUnit
    private EntityManagerFactory emf;
B. @PersistenceContext
    private EntityManagerFactory emf;
C. @PersistenceUnit(unitName="BarPU")
    private EntityManagerFactory emf;
D. @Resource(name="BarPU",type=EntityManagerFactory.class)
    private EntityManagerFactory emf;

Answer: C

Question 5.
Which two are true about EJB 3.0 exception classes? (Choose two.)

A. The javax.ejb.NoSuchEJBException is an application exception.
B. The javax.ejb.EJBException extends java.lang.RuntimeException.
C. The javax.ejb.EJBTransactionRequiredException is an application exception.
D. An application exception must NOT be a subclass of java.rmi.RemoteException.
E. The javax.ejb.EJBTransactionRolledbackException is an application exception.
F. Any subclass of java.lang.RuntimeException is always considered a system exception.

Answer: B, D

Question 6.
Which statement about the combination of mapping defaults, annotations, and XML descriptors is correct?

A. All mapping annotations must always be processed by the persistence provider.
B. Some annotations, like the @Entity annotation, must always be processed by the persistence 
    provider.
C. The mapping information for an entity class specified by annotations and in XML descriptors 
    must be distinct.
D. If multiple entity listeners are defined, the order in which they are invoked can be defined or 
    overwritten in the XML descriptor.

Answer: D

Question 7.
An Application Assembler is given the following stateless session bean:
10. @Stateless public class MyBean implements Mylnt {
11. @RolesAllowed("SECRET")
12. public void methodA(int x) {}
13. public void methodA(String y) {}
14. public void methodB(String z) {}
15.}
A deployment descriptor is also supplied, a portion of which reads as follows:
20. 
21. AGENT
22. 
23. MyBean
24. methodA
25. 
26. 

Which statement is true?

A. A client in any role will be able to access any of the methods.
B. A client in the role "AGENT" will be able to access any of the methods.
C. A client in the role "SECRET" will be able to access any of the methods.
D. A client in the role "AGENT" will be able to access methodB and methodA(String), but not 
    methodA(int).
E. A client in the role "SECRET" will be able to access methodA(int) and methodB, but NOT  
   methodA(String).

Answer: B

Question 8.
A User entity is in a onE. to-many relationship with a Book entity.
A developer writes a query to delete users that have a first name of 'Fred' or 'Ginger', and writes the following Java Persistence query language statement: 
DELETE FROM User u WHERE u.name IN ('Fred1, 'Ginger')

If the query fails with a PersistenceException, what can be the cause?

A. The syntax of the query is NOT correct.
B. The query causes a foreign key integrity constraint to be violated.
C. The database does NOT have any users with the name 'Fred' or 'Ginger'.
D. The entities corresponding to the users with the name 'Fred' or 'Ginger' are already being 
    managed by the persistence context.

Answer: B

Question 9.
A Java EE 5 application contains a session bean which uses a security role USER. A group called people is defined in an LDAP server. 

Which two define appropriate EJB role responsibilities? (Choose two.)

A. The deployer defines and configures the LDAP realm.
B. The system administrator defines and configures the LDAP realm.
C. The deployer maps the application role USER to the LDAP group people
D. The system administrator maps the application role USER to the LDAP group people.

Answer: B, C

Question 10.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. All types of enterprise beans can be transaction-aware
B. Typically, finE. grained objects, such as an employee record, should be remotely accessible.
C. The client view of any given enterprise bean will be consistent across all EJB 3.0 containers 
    without the need to recompile the bean.
D. As long as a given enterprise bean is NOT recompiled, its security attributes are guaranteed to  
    be consistent across all EJB 3.0 containers in which it is deployed.

Answer: A, C



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