|
hi all plz help me , if someone have any question in 50-683 plz send me my email zohaib706@hotmail.com
|
Question 1.
Which statement is true regarding the EX-series file system?
A. Contents in the /var directory are automatically removed upon a successful software upgrade.
B. The file system must be cleaned manually after every upgrade.
C. Contents in the /var directory are automatically archived for future software rollbacks.
D. The file system must be cleaned manually before every upgrade.
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which two statements describe the EX 4200 switches? (Choose two.)
A. All EX 4200 switches support either partial or full Power over Ethernet (PoE) support.
B. The fan tray used for the EX 4200 switches is not field replaceable.
C. The EX 4200 switches support redundant load-sharing AC power supplies.
D. The EX 4200 switches can be interconnected to form a single virtual chassis.
Answer: C, D
Question 3.
Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what does the asterisk (*) indicate?
A. The interface is configure for PoE.
B. The interface receives untagged frames.
C. The interface is up and active.
D. The interface contains Layer 3 configuration.
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which Spanning Tree Protocol is enabled in the factory-default configuration?
A. STP
B. PVST
C. MSTP
D. RSTP
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which statement is true for configuring a link aggregation group?
A. No more than 10 member links can belong to a link aggregation group.
B. Link duplex mode and speed must match within a link aggregation group.
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 interfaces can be mixed when creating a link aggregation group.
D. Member links cannot span multiple member switches within a virtual chassis.
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which three statement describe benefits of bridging? (Choose three.)
A. Bridging allows mixed physical media types on a common LAN.
B. Bridging uses Layer 2 bridge tables to intelligently forward traffic towards its destination.
C. Bridging logically segments user groups based on administrative policy.
D. Bridging allows for the creation of multiple broadcast domains.
E. Bridging can reduce the number of collisions on a LAN.
Answer: A, B, E
Question 7.
When configuring a redundant trunk group (RTG) on an interface, which restriction would apply?
A. The interface must be configured as a Layer 3 interface with an assigned IP address.
B. The interface cannot be configured as a Layer 2 trunk.
C. The gratuitous-ARP-reply must be disabled on the interface.
D. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) cannot be configured on the interface.
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which two commands are valid for verifying NTP operation? (Choose two.)
A. show ntp status
B. show ntp associations
C. show ntp synchronization
D. show ntp server
Answer: A, B
Question 9.
What describes the way the JUNOS software evaluates a route against a policy?
A. The JUNOS software evaluates all terms in a policy sequentially. When it finds that the route
matches all criteria specified in the match clause of a term, it applies the actions specified in
the then clause and stops processing further terms.
B. The JUNOS software evaluates all terms in a policy sequentially. When it finds that the route
matches all criteria specified in the from clause of a term, it applies the actions specified in the
then clause and continues processing further terms if the accept action was specified.
C. The JUNOS software evaluates all terms in a policy sequentially. When it finds that the route
matches any criteria specified in the from clause of a term, it applies the actions specified in
the then clause and stops processing further terms.
D. The JUNOS software evaluates all terms in a policy sequentially. When it finds that the route
matches all criteria specified in the from clause of a term, it applies the actions specified in the
then clause and stops processing further terms.
Answer: D
Question 10.
Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, in which configuration hierarchy would the block-stuff filter be defined?
A. [edit firewall family vlan]
B. [edit firewall family ethernet]
C. [edit firewall family ethernet-switching]
D. [edit firewall family inet]
Answer: C
|
Question 1. What is the default role on a Cisco mesh access point? Select the best response. A. root access point B. mesh access point C. root bridge access point D. workgroup bridge Answer: B Question 2. Which AP combinations can support MAP or RAP roles in a mesh network using version 5.2? Select the best response. A. AP1252, AP1510, AP1522, AP1524 B. AP1232, AP1522, AP1524, AP1242 C. AP1131, AP1522, AP1242, AP1524 D. AP1252, AP 1522, AP1524, AP1242 Answer: C Question 3. Where is Ethernet bridged traffic terminated in a mesh network? Select the best response. A. WLC B. WGB C. MAP D. RAP Answer: D Question 4. Which two frequencies can be used for backhaul in a mesh solution using version 5.2? (Choose two.) Select 2 response(s). 2 A. 2.4 GHz B. 4.2 GHz C. 4.9 GHz D. 5.8 GHz Answer: C, D Question 5. What is the Cisco recommendation for maximum hop count and VLANs per sector in a mesh deployment? Select the best response. A. 4 hops, 10 VLANs B. 4 hops, 16 VLANs C. 5 hops, 10 VLANs D. 6 hops, 16 VLANs Answer: B Question 6. What is the first step to initially establish a mesh network? Select the best response. A. Configure the bridge group name. B. Enter the MAC address of the mesh access point on the Cisco WLC. C. Enable Ethernet bridging D. Enable VLAN tagging. Answer: B Question 7. AWPP utilizes which three parameters to determine the optimal path? (Choose three.) Select 3 response(s). A. best parent selection B. bridge group name C. ease value D. hop count E. parent selection F. signal-to-noise ratio Answer: C, D, F Question 8. What is the radio role of an AP1410? Select the best response. A. repeater B. root bridge C. root bridge with clients D. workgroup bridge Answer: B Question 9. Which radio role is available on the AP1310 but not on the AP1242? Select the best response. A. install mode B. non-root bridge C. repeater D. root bridge Answer: A Question 10. The Cisco recommended best practice for RSSI-based device tracking states that the tracked devices must be reliably detected by a minimum of how many APs? Select the best response. A. one B. two C. three D. four Answer: C
|
Question 1. Which type of vulnerability can occur when a developer exposes a reference to an internal implementation object, such as a file, directory, database record, or key, as a URL or form parameter? A. Cross-site Scripting B. Insecure Direct Object Reference C. Injection Flaw D. Cross Site Request Forgery Answer: B Question 2. After 30 minutes your scan stops with an out-of-session error. What is a possible cause of this error? A. Redundant path limit was too low. B. A parameter was not tracked. C. Flash parsing was turned off. D. Platform authentication was not configured. Answer: B Question 3. AppScan sent the following test HTTP request: GET /web/content/index.php?file=/../../../../../../../../etc/passwd%00 HTTP/1.0 Cookie: JSESSIONID=dqt0LSnfhdVyTJkCwTwfLQQSkTTGYX9D79tLLpT1yLQjVhSpZKP9!914376523; customerLanguage=en Accept: */* Accept-Language: en-US User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Win32) Host: www.ibm.com Although, there is no indication in the response about the existence of a password file, AppScan reported vulnerability with the following reasoning: Global Validation found an embedded script in the response (), which was probably injected by a previous test. The presence of this script in the site suggests that the application is vulnerable to which type of attack? A. Stored Cross-site Scripting B. Cross-site Scripting C. Namazu Path Traversal D. Directory Listing Answer: A Question 4. What information does difference displayed in the Request / Response tab provide? A. the difference between two tests B. how the vulnerability was resolved C. howAppScan constructed the test HTTP request D. how the Web application page has been modified from its previous version Answer: C Question 5. You are scanning a Web site in a pre-production environment. You notice that your scan is running very slowly and there are numerous communication errors. What would you do to resolve the problem? A. increase the number of threads and decrease the timeout limit B. decrease the number of threads and increase the timeout limit C. increase the number of threads and increase the timeout limit D. set the timeout to 0 for infinite timeout Answer: B Question 6. Which type of vulnerability allows an attacker to execute a malicious script in a user browser? A. Cross-site Scripting B. Injection Flaw C. Insecure Direct Object Reference D. Failure to restrict URL access Answer: A Question 7. Which statement is true about infrastructure vulnerabilities? A. They are caused by insecure coding and are fixed by modifying the application code. B. They are detected using application security scanners and exist in the Web application. C. They are known vulnerabilities and are fixed by modifying the application code. D. They exist in third-party components and are fixed by applying security patches. Answer: D Question 8. What does secure session management require? A. session tokens that are given long lifetimes B. session tokensthat are invalidated when the user logs out C. session tokensthat are persistent D. session tokens that are numeric Answer: B Question 9. Your site contains the following URL: http://www.mycompany.com/smb/default.jsp?page=wireless productID=65343, In this URL, the page parameter defines a unique page and the productID parameter defines a different product page, based on a template. How would you configure AppScan to thoroughly explore this site while avoiding redundant URLs? (Choose two.) A. ensure JavaScript Execute is turned on B. ignore the page parameter C. turn off Redundant Path limit D. track the page parameter E. Track theproductID parameter F. Ignore theproductID parameter Answer: C, F Question 10. You are scanning a Web application in a pre-production environment. During your initial assessment, you notice that some of the links are specified by IP and some by host name. Your starting URL contains an IP address, http://12.34.56.67/default.jsp. When the scan completes, you discover that it has not covered a significant portion of your Web application. What could be the reason? A. The host name is not added to the list of additional domains and servers. B. The scan is configured to use only one connection. C. There is no route to IP 12.34.56.67. D. You are not licensed to scan IP 12.34.56.67. Answer: A
|
Question 1.
HATS Web applications can be deployed to WebSphere Application Server running on which operating systems?
A. Windows, AIX, IBMi, z/OS, or Linux on z
B. IBMi or z/OS only
C. Linux on Systemi or System z only
D. Windows or Linux only
Answer: A
Question 2.
Text replacement can be defined at various artifact levels. What is NOT a valid level to define text replacement?
A. project level
B. rendering item level
C. screen customization level
D. transformation level
Answer: D
Question 3.
To help with debugging HATS applications on a test or production system, a display terminal window can be displayed.
Which statement is FALSE about the display terminal window?
A. Turning on the display terminal option can seriously affect performance or overload the server.
B. The display terminal functions can be turned on using the extended HATS application button
standard.
C. It is possible to interact with the host application using the host screen in the terminal window.
D. The display terminal functions can be turned on for any new host connections by selecting the
Enable Display Terminal box on the Trace Settings panel.
Answer: B
Question 4.
What happens when a user double-clicks an item in the HATS rich client Applications view?
A. A new instance of the selected application is opened.
B. The existing instance of the selected application is activated.
C. The user is prompted to update the connection settings for the selected application.
D. The user is shown a list of all running instances of the application.
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which widget allows manual entry of text and provides a valid value list?
A. Combo
B. List
C. Popup
D. Text input
Answer: C
Question 6.
Which statement is true about SSL connection security in HATS?
A. The connection from Web browser to application server can be encrypted using the SSL tab in
the connection editor.
B. An encrypted connection can be used without importing a certificate if the server certificate is
signed by a well-known certificate signer, such as Thawte.
C. An SSL-secured application can be tested offline using the host simulator facility.
D. 3270, 3270e, 5250, 5250W, and VT connections can be encrypted with SSL.
Answer: B
Question 7.
After creating a custom host component class, which action must be performed to ensure it functions properly at runtime?
A. store the new component in the /CustomComponent folder in the Navigator view
B. turn on Global Variable Overrides in Project Settings
C. enable the CustomComponent class in the style sheet
D. modify the WAR class loader policy of the HATS application
Answer: D
Question 8.
What is the scope of shared global variables in a rich client environment?
A. only instances of the same HATS rich client application
B. only instances of HATS rich client applications in the same EAR
C. all application instances running in the environment
D. Shared global variables are not available in a HATS rich client environment.
Answer: C
Question 9.
On which environment(s) are HATS Web applications, developed using the HATS Toolkit, supported to be deployed and run?
A. Eclipse RCP and Lotus (R) Expeditor Client
B. IBMWebSphere application server production runtime
C. IBM and non-IBM Portal Server production runtime
D. any J2EE-compatible application server available on the market
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which action will NOT disconnect the transformation connection when designing a HATS Web application?
A. requiring end users to press the Disconnect button on the HATS application keypad
B. using of theDisconnectOnClose parameter for a HATS portlet
C. configuring a session timeout for the Web application
D. using the Disconnect action on an application or screen customization event
Answer: B
|
Question 1.
Which choice is a valid stereotype for a record?
A. Array
B. CSV
C. ExternalType
D. Form
Answer: A
Question 2.
ProgramAcalls ProgramB. Both programs access a relational database.
What is the primary difference between the EGL system variables sqlLib.sqlData and sysVar.sqlData?
A. sqlLib.sqlData and sysVar.sqlData are interchangeable and always have the same values.
B. sqlLib.sqlData contains all the available information from the SQLCA; sysVar.sqlData only
contains the SQLCODE.
C. The scope ofsysVar.sqlData is local to each program; the scope of sqlLib.sqlData is global so
that both ProgramA and ProgramB can access the results of the most recent SQL I/O
statement regardless of which program the I/O occurred in.
D. There is no system variable namedsqlLib.sqlData.
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which statement demonstrates how to call a DB2 Stored Procedure passing three parameters and returning a result set?
A. callstoredProcedureName (parm1, parm2, parm3);
B. execute #sql {call storedProcedureName(parm1, parm2, parm3)};
C. openresultSetID with #sql {call storedProcedureName (:parm1, :parm2, :parm3)};
D. The current implementation for EGL only supports calling DB2 Stored Procedures for
Insert/Update/Delete.
Answer: B
Question 4.
Which EGL statement demonstrates the correct way to initialize a dynamic array of integers so that the first element has the value 3?
A. myArray INT =3;
B. myArray INT[] =3;
C. myArray INT[3];
D. myArray INT[3] =3;
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which EGL move statement is valid?
A. move RECORDA to RECORDBbyByte;
B. move RECORDA to RECORDBbyPosition;
C. move RECORDA to RECORDB withVAGenCompat;
D. move RECORDA to RECORDB for INDEX1 to INDEX2;
Answer: A
Question 6.
What is the BEST technique to retrieve SQL data in the situation where there might be hundreds of rows that satisfy the criteria for the WHERE clause?
A. An open statement with themultipleRows option
B. An open statement followed by a loop of get next statements to retrieve all the rows
C. A get statement with implicit SQL to retrieve all the rows into a dynamic array
D. A get statement with a customized SQL WHERE clause and set boundaries for the retrieve
using the SQL BETWEEN predicate
Answer: C
Question 7.
Which choice is ONLY supported in generated COBOL programs?
A. DL/I access
B. Text forms
C. BIRT reports
D. eliminatesystemdependentcode build descriptor option
Question 8.
Which statement is true about the linkage options part?
A. ThecallLink element provides details on how a call statement is to be implemented when
calling a particular program, but has no effect on generation for the called program.
B. ThefileLink element provides details on whether to use remote MQ queues.
C. ThetransferToProgram element provides details on how a transfer to program statement is to
be implemented when transferring control to a particular program.
D. ThetransferToTransaction element provides details on how a transfer to transaction statement
is to be implemented when transferring control to a particular transaction in transactional
environments such as CICS, but has no effect on generation of programs for nontransactional
environments.
Answer: B
Question 9.
An EGL application running in a stateless environment (Web, CICS, or IMS) has presented data to the user for update. What is the BEST way to update an SQL row containing many columns if there is a chance that some other user could change the data?
A. Reread the row before the update and ensure all columns are the same as before the data
was presented to the user
B. Reread the row andcompare some column that is known to be changed on every update (a
timestamp, for example)
C. Lock the row across the userthink time so no one else can change it
D. Just update the row as quickly as possible
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which method is used to create and update code templates?
A. click the Windows > Preferences > EGL menu
B. pressCtrl+T to bring up a template editor during an EGL edit session
C. right-click within an EGLedit session and then click the Create Template option
D. add the Template view to any perspective and then use the menus to create or update code
templates for this view
|
Question 1.
You see an amber light flashing on an EXP810 ESM. Where should you start to find information on how to handle the flashing amber light?
A. Recovery Guru
B. Major Event Log (MEL)
C. Storage Manager online help
D. Read Link Status counters related to the specific ESM
Answer: A
Question 2.
How often will a Windows operating system without multi-pathing software detect a target LUN?
A. Once per controller
B. Once per bus
C. Once per path
D. Once per port
Answer: C
Question 3.
Before opening a call with support on your DS5300, other than the serial number and description of the failure, what additional information should be expected? Outputs of:
A. Supportshow
B. Collect all support data
C. Health check
D. Config Show
Answer: B
Question 4.
A customer has attempted to migrate an existing 4 drive, RAID 1+0 array group to a RAID 6 Array group and been unsuccessful. Why is this?
A. You can't mix RAID levels on the same controller
B. RAID 6 is not supported on the DS5000 storage array
C. DS5000 storage arrays require 5 drives in an RAID 6 array group.
D. RAID 6 is a premium feature on the DS5000 and needs to be activated
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which different drive expansion modules can be attached to a DS5000 subsystem?
A. EXP810, EXP710
B. EXP5000 and EXP810
C. EXP5000, EXP100, EXP810
D. EXP5000, EXP810, EXP710
Answer: B
Question 6.
The global background media scan setting can be enabled to scan for media errors on the disk drives.
Which increment is used when configuring media scans?
A. Minutes
B. Hours
C. Days
D. Weeks
Answer: C
Question 7.
A customer finds that their storage administration coverage is too thin. They want to have their system call IBM when there is a critical alert.
Which configuration enables this capability?
A. RSM on any Linux Intel server
B. RsM on an IBM power system server
C. IBM Director running on an IBM server
D. Agent installed on a management server
Answer: A
Question 8.
A customer has ordered a DS4800 with four EXP810s. They will use 48 FC drives and 16 SATA drives.
Which configuration allows the DS4800 the highest bandwidth?
A. All SATA drive should be placed in one EXP810 as they will run slower.
B. Pairing EXP810 on redundant drive port pairs.
C. Each EXP810 should be on separate loops and contain 12 FC drives and 4 SATA drives.
D. All FC drives should be connected to the first channel on each controller to obtain the lowest
drive channel IDs
Answer: C
Question 9.
The DS4000 series uses the Automatic Drive Transfer (ADT) feature to allow mplicit?logical drive transfers between controllers. The DS4000 series uses the Automatic Drive Transfer (ADT) feature to allow ?mplicit?logical drive transfers between controllers.
What determines if ADT should be enabled?
A. HBA type
B. ESM firmware
C. Controller firmware version
D. Host multi-pathing software
Answer: D
Question 10.
The customer is considering expanding an existing Logical drive using the Dynamic Volume Expansion function in Storage Manager.
Which operating system, below does not support a volume expansion?
A. AIX
B. Windows Dynamic Disk
C. Netware
D. Solaris
Answer: D
|
Question 1. The total number of backend loops on a DS5300 storage server is _____. A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 Answer: D Question 2. Your customer has purchased a new DS4800 88A. They have used the SMdemo program to become familiar with Storage manager GUI, but they would like additional training on how to maintain this customer setup and maintained subsystem. Where would you direct them to find this additional training? A. Contact your IBM Business Partner B. Download IBM Redbooks C. Buy IBM education packs D. All of the above Answer: D Question 3. What does the "Recovery Guru" provide? A. Saves an IBMDS storage array configuration. B. Displays fault summary, fault details and recover procedures. C. Displays History log (MEL) D. Restores a saved IBM DS storage array configuration. Answer: B Question 4. A large animation company needs to purchase 50 TB of usable storage. They have specified that this storage be allocated in nine-disk RAID 5 LUNs (8 data disks and 1 parity) using 1 TB drives. They expect that they will need to grow to 200 TB and want to place this behind a single controller enclosure. What is the IBM subsystem that will support this configuration? A. DS4700 B. DS4800 C. DS5300 D. All of the above Answer: C Question 5. A Customer has the need to consolidate their data center to a single enterprise class storage platform. They currently have fibre channel and SATA technology in use today. They are expanding their environment and will require more than 200 disk drives when fully implemented in the course of the next 18 months for quick recovery volumes, HSM and TSM storage pools. What platform makes the most sense? A. DS4200 B. DS4700 Model 70 C. DS4700 Model 72 D. DS5300 Answer: D Question 6. A customer has 50TB of high speed storage and would like to hold a full copy of this on the same storage array. Which storage array would you need to suggest to support this configuration plus support a 20% capacity increase? A. DS3400 B. DS4700 model 70 C. DS4700 model 72 D. DS5000 Answer: D Question 7. The customer is undertaking a server consolidation program and will purchase an IBM BladeCenter to achieve this consolidation. The customer has 50TB of data to store as a result of this consolidation exercise. Which storage array would not support this configuration? A. DS3400 B. DS4700 model 70 C. DS4700 model 72 D. DS5100 Answer: A Question 8. DS5000 Storage Manager can discover and manage which storage systems? A. All IBM DS storage products B. IBM DS5000, DS4000, and DS3000 storage systems C. Only IBM DS5000 storage systems D. Any storage system Answer: B Question 9. In an SAN Volume Controller virtualized storage pool with both EMC and IBM storage arrays under its management. What function would you use to copy data from the EMC to the IBM storage array. A. Time Finder B. Volume copy C. SRDF D. Flashcopy Answer: D Question 10. Select the information you should acquire from the customer when developing a backup solution: A. Recovery Time Objective (RTO) B. Recovery Point Objective (RPO) C. Total Capacity D. All of the above Answer: D
|
Question 1.
What is the key advantage of implementing an IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller rather than a DS4000 only storage configuration for a Business Continuity/Disaster Recovery solution?
A. 1024 LUN consistency group support for Metro Mirror
B. Dynamic RAID Migration
C. Space EfficientFlashCopy
D. Dynamic Volume Expansion
Answer: A
Question 2.
The client already has LTO2 and LTO3 tape drives and cartridges, but is concerned that LTO4 drives are too expensive. The client is currently favoring SDLT as a solution.
What is the recommended response to this client?
A. Quantum manugactures LTO4 as well as SDLT
B. LTO4 can process the client's existing tape cartridge
C. IBM announced LTO4 in April 2007
D. SDLT is a single-hub cartridge technology
Answer: B
Question 3.
What is an advantage of IBM SAN Volume Controller (SVC) virtualization over an HP Enterprise Virtual Array virtualization?
A. SVC supports more RAID levels than HP EVA
B. SVC is a SAN virtualization at the network level
C. SVC is an IBMVirutalization solution for IBM Disks
D. SVC has a broader world-wide installation base than HP EVA
Answer: B
Question 4.
The client has installed an IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller to virtualize DS400 disk systems attached to a Windows 2003 Server.
Which method is recommended to confirm the appropriate multi-path driver is installed?
A. Issue the "datapath query adapter" command to confirm subsystem device driver (SDD) is
properly configured
B. Log in to the SAN Volume Controller master console
C. Issue the "powerpath" command to confirm both SVC and DS4000 are connected to each
other
D. Use DS4000 Storage Manager to verify that MPIO/DSM driver is running correctly
Answer: A
Question 5.
A client has reached maximum power capacity going into their data center which prevents further business growth. A new facility with greater power capacity will take 12 to 18 months to build.
From an IT industry perspective, what is a description of short-term business objective that deals with this crisis?
A. Additional UPS units can be used to avoid power outage issues
B. Data can be archived to tape and stored outside the data center
C. A raised floor can use perforated tiles to increase air flow
D. Computer Room Air Conditioning (CRAC) units can be added to reduce temperature
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which resource provides information about the general availability date for a new IBM System Storage product?
A. Announcement Letter
B. Sales Manual
C. Competeline
D. Interoperability Matrix or Guide
Answer: A
Question 7.
A new client currently has a multi-tier storage environment consisting of EMC DMX subsystems. They are dissatisfied with the high costs of TimeFinder and additional disks in the DMX systems.
Which solution would provide the lowest cost alternative for providing instant copies of the DMX LUNs for backups?
A. SVC withFlashCopy and a DS4700 with SATA drives
B. SVC withFlashCopy and a DS3400 with SATA drives
C. SVC withFlashCopy and a DS3400 and a DS3400 with Fibre Channel drives
D. N5600 Gateway withSnapShot feature with DS4800 Fibre Channel drives
Answer: B
Question 8.
A customer has a requirement for 8 TB if data to be stored on tape. The customer wants the most cost-effective automated LTO4 solution.
Which solution meets the customer's requirements?
A. TS2340
B. TS3200
C. TS3310
D. TS3100
Answer: D
Question 9.
On the IBM System Storage Web Site, under which category would you find information about IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller?
A. Network Attached Storage
B. Storage Area Network
C. Disk Systems
D. Software
Answer: D
Question 10.
An IBM System Storage DS4000 LUN connected to Linux server was dynamically expanded from 500 GB to 600 GB.
Which Linux command confirms the change was performed correctly?
A. Route -n
B. Fdasd -p
C. Iostat
D. Df -h
Answer: D
|
Question 1.
A manufacturing customer is not concerned about system failure, they believe heir 2 week manufacturing cycle allows for recovery. You wish to identify an opportunity for business esilience.
Which of the following is the impact of system failure?
A. Automated recovery capabilities
B. Redundant servers
C. Quality of Service
D. Resource utilization
Answer: C
Question 2.
Identifying each customer recovery and budget requirements is an important first step in a Business Resilience (BR) engagement. A customer determines they have anRTO of 2-6 hours.
Which of the following addresses this BR requirement?
A. Continuous availability, end to end automation
B. Rapid data recovery
C. Tape based backup and restore
D. Real time data and server replication
Answer: B
Question 3.
A fundamental driver for the efficiency of any server is the level of utilization that is achieved.
What are the typical current utilization levels for various processor types and what should be done to increase this utilization?
A. Mainframe 80%
B. Unix >50%
C. X86 >10%
D. Mainframe 100%
E. Unix >40%
F. X86 >10%
G. Mainframe >80%
H. Unix 15-25%
I. X86 <10%
J. Mainframe >80%
K. Unix >50%
L. X86 >20%
M. Application provisioning
Answer: C
Question 4.
Estimating resources can be the most difficult task in the performance-planning process.
What are the components that the NEDC Technical Leader should be primarilyinterested in?
A. CPU time, disk access rate, LAN traffic, amount of real memory
B. Disk access rate, number of simultaneous users, number of concurrent batch jobs
C. Paging rate, CPU time, networking bandwidth
D. CPU clock speed, operating system type and communication I/O
Answer: A
Question 5.
A large manufacturing customer datacenter has reached its physical limits. A Which of the following is the key element in the Active Energy Strategy green agenda?
A. IT Management solution to monitor IT Assets
B. Facility monitoring into single portal
C. Smart management of IT devices, cooling systems and virtualization of infrastructure
D. A full chargeback suite for usage and accounting
Answer: C
Question 6.
A securities trading bank has a critical performance issue. Peaks in trading behavior temporarily result in a huge number of orders which must be processed in time to avoid penalties.
Which of the following meets this immediate situation?
A. IBM SAN Volume Controller provides outstanding performance. Develop a virtualized
architecture with the customer to leverage caching properties to meet the
B. IBM server technology withCUoD
C. Analyze the business application; providing high performance solutions for a few peaks is not
cost
D. affective. Suggest your customer negotiate the service levels
E. Identify the real issue and develop the proper solution combining software, hardware and
services out of IBM comprehensive portfolio.
Answer: B
Question 7.
A prospect is confused with the multiple pillars (BR, EE, VC, and II) within the NEDC strategy. They are interested in virtualization and consolidation, but are concerned that too many pillars will result in a compromise and a poor solution.
Which of the following is an effective response?
A. The pillars are interrelated and should be implemented together for maximum benefit
B. NEDC Innovation Workshop will help them identify which pillars are most critical and create a
roadmap for implementation of one or more pillars
C. NEDC pillars should be implemented one at a time like most applications, combining them as
goals makes implementation very difficult
D. Select the most urgent with the highest ROI. Once a successful track record is established
other pillars should be implemented
Answer: D
Question 8.
Following successful implementation of a NEDC project, the customer is concerned all of the objectives were not achieved.
Which of the following would provide a check point for the project objectives for comparison?
A. NEDC Innovation Workshop
B. Scorpion study
C. Technical and Delivery Assessment
D. Team Solution Design
Answer: A
Question 9.
An IBM Solution Assurance Review (SAR) is conducted to facilitate which of the following?
A. Expectations and assignment of responsibilities for a project
B. Confirms appropriate IBM hardware configuration
C. Ensure proper stakeholder support within an organization
D. Qualifies the Business Partner for Special Bid Pricing
Answer: A
Question 10.
One important factor in developing any BR strategy is to determine the customer Recovery Point Objective.
Which of the following defines a business RPO?
A. RPO indicates how much data the business canhafford to recreate (or lose)
B. RPO denotes the time interval between an outage and when the remote servers are available
C. RPO is the length of elapsed time that the business has agreed they can afford to be without
their systems and critical business applications
D. RPO is the distance between the product data centers and the recovery site
Answer: A
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.