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Braindumps for "50-681" Exam

Some Questions from ITCertKeys

 

Question 1.
DHCP (and BOOTP) options can be assigned at how many levels?

A. One Level
B. Two Level
C. Three Level
D. Four Level

Answer: C

Explanation:
DHCP (and BOOTP) options can be assigned at three levels:

Globally
At the subnet level
At the IP address level

Question 2.
What happens when a user's public key certificate expires?

A. The user's public key, private key, and digital signature are deleted.
B. The Certificate Authority automatically re-issues a public key certificate if the user is still active.
C. The public and private keys remain intact but can no longer be used to encrypt and decrypt
data.
D. The public and private keys can still be used for encryption but they are not guaranteed to be
authentic.

Answer: D

Question 3.
You have just run the REBUILD command on volume DATA. Which file does REBUILD copy errors and transactions to, and what is that file located?

A. DATA.NSS, located at the root of SYS.
B. DATA.RLF, located at the root of SYS.
C. DATA.RLF, located at the root of DATA.
D. DATA.NSS, located at the root of DATA.
E. VOLUME.NSS, located at the root of DATA.

Answer: B

Question 4.
What complimentary resources are available online through the Novell web pages? (Choose three)

A. Product documentation
B. Product support forums
C. Incident-based electronic support
D. Novell Software Evaluation Library
E. Limited access to Abend Analysis System

Answer: A, B, E

Question 5.
When installing NetWare 6, if you choose the express installation method, what size will volume SYS be?

A. 500 MB
B. 1 GB
C. 2 GB
D. 4 GB
E. 5 GB

Answer: D

Question 6.
From where can you access Schema Manager?

A. iMonitor
B. Console One
C. NWCONFIG.NLM
D. DSREPAIR.NLM
E. Server console prompt

Answer: B

Question 7.
Which security feature of NetWare prevents the time and date from being changed?

A. DSTRACE
B. Intruder lockout
C. SECURE CONSOLE
D. Console screensaver

Answer: C



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Braindumps for "646-563" Exam

Advanced Security for Account Managers Exam

 Question 1.
Which two of these statements describe why Cisco offers the security solution with the lowest operational cost? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco ensures third-party integration.
B. Cisco is able to meet PCI requirements.
C. Cisco solves the broadest suite of threats.
D. Cisco maximizes training costs for the IT group.
E. Cisco has established partnerships with all key players.

Answer: C, E

Question 2.
How does preliminary technical discovery benefit the customer?

A. A technology strategy is presented to the customer.
B. Information regarding an existing customer network is analyzed, which allows an appropriate 
    solution to be developed.
C. The account team analyzes and validates the business requirements.
D. Detailed technical requirements are defined and documented.

Answer: B

Question 3.
Which security management offering helps customers to readily and accurately identify, manage, and mitigate network attacks and to maintain network security compliance?

A. Cisco Security Agent
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco NAC
D. Cisco Network Assistant
E. Cisco Security MARS

Answer: E

Question 4.
What is one way that Cisco Security can decrease customer implementation costs?

A. by using the existing infrastructure
B. through dedicated security appliances
C. through better security management products
D. by reducing the number of people to train

Answer: A

Question 5.
How does the Cisco ASA with the CSC module protect the network? (Choose two.)

A. It blocks incoming e-mail and web threats.
B. It guarantees regulatory compliance.
C. It prevents network intrusion with an IPS.
D. It provides VoIP enhancements.
E. It prevents loss of sensitive information with integrated antivirus protection.

Answer: A, E

Question 6.
How does security technology assessment drive continuous improvements?

A. by recommending remediation measures, such as optimizing device configurations, planning 
    capacity, and resolving quality issues
B. by assessing the current state of the customer operations
C. by assessing the realization of ROI and other benefits of the security system
D. by defining project milestones

Answer: A

Question 7.
Why do end users need to be aware of the security policy?

A. Some security decisions are usually in their hands.
B. They need to be aware of every threat.
C. They should avoid responsibility for their actions.
D. They should understand the probability of every risk.

Answer: A

Question 8.
Which two of these choices describe how the secure network access solution provides value to the customer? (Choose two.)

A. permits a man-in-the-middle attack
B. makes mobility more cost-effective
C. provides an unencrypted solution
D. reduces the amount of equipment
E. allows for secure Internet browsing

Answer: B, D

Question 9.
How does the Cisco SDN relate to compliance?

A. It is point product-based.
B. It uses anomaly detection to secure a device.
C. It addresses a large majority of PCI requirements.
D. It uses IP protocol 50 (ESP) to securely communicate to network devices.

Answer: C

Question 10.
Which Cisco solution provides host protection against security violations by focusing on the behavior of the device?

A. Cisco PIX Firewall
B. NAC Appliance
C. host Analyzer
D. Cisco Security Agent
E. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance

Answer: D



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Braindumps for "70-547" Exam

Designing and Developing Web-Based Applications by Using the Microsoft .NET Framework

 Question 1.
You work as the Enterprise application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers in the domain run Windows Server 2003. The design of applications forms part of your responsibilities at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com operates as an examination Web site. 

You are developing a Web-based application for ITCertKeys.com. This application, upon completion, should allow users to take various online examinations. Every time a user takes on online test, you want the following business rules to be met: 
1. Display a congratulatory message when a user passes a test.
2. Display a motivational message when a user fails a test.
3. Display a different message when a user meets the minimum requirements for a test.

The following Exhibit illustrates the pseudo-code that you wrote to meet these requirements:

Exhibit:
if pass
display congratulatory message
else if meeting minimum requirements
display different message
else
display motivational message

What conclusion can you draw?

A. None of the requirements will be met.
B. All the requirements will be met.
C. All requirements, except the display of a different message when the user meets the minimum 
    requirements, will be met.
D. All the requirements, except the display of the motivational message when a user fails a test, 
    will be met.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
All the requirements for the application will be met. A different message will be displayed in the event of the user passing, failing or just meeting the minimum requirements for a test. If the user passes, then the congratulatory message will be displayed, if the user meets the minimum requirements then the different message will be displayed. Otherwise the user fails the test in which case the motivational message will be displayed.

Incorrect answers:
A: This is incorrect because this pseudo-code will yield the desired results.
C: This is only partly correct since the code will also result in the display of the different message 
    in case the user meets the minimum requirements of a test.
D: This is only partly correct since the code will result in displaying the motivational message in 
    case the user fails the test.

Question 2.
You work as the Enterprise application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers in the domain run Windows Server 2003. The design of applications forms part of your responsibilities at ITCertKeys.com. You are currently developing Web-based applications for ITCertKeys.com. 

One of these applications that you developed is destined to allow the user to display multiple lines in a TextBox control. Each of the lines in the TestBox control is concatenated into a single string. Each message in the TextBox control will consist of more than five lines. You now need to configure this Web-based application to meet these requirements. 

What should you do?

A. You should include calling the Concat method in the application using a String instance.
B. You should include calling the Append method in the application using a String instance.
C. You should include calling the Add method in the application using a StringBuilder instance.
D. You should include calling the Append method in the application using a StringBuilder 
    instance.

Answer: D

Explanation: 
The StringBuilder instance has a larger internal buffer to handle larger strings and since you will have at least five lines concatenated in the same string, you should make use of a StringBuilder instance to call the Append method. Strings are immutable and every time a string is concatenated, at least two strings are de-referenced, but stay in memory until Garbage collection. The StringBuilder, due to its larger internal buffer is capable of maintaining a large internal buffer and only extends the buffer than required to do so. This makes using the StringBuilder unstance for efficient.

Incorrect answers:
A: You should not make use of the String class as it is unable to modify its contents in place. The 
    String class will always return a new string when the contents are changed and this will result 
    in a drop in the performance.
B: This is partly correct since you need to call the Append method, however you should make use 
    of a StringBuilder instance and not the String instance.
C: This is incorrect as there is no such method named Add method. You need to make use of the 
    Append method when using the StringBuilder class.

Question 3.
You work as the Enterprise application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers in the domain run Windows Server 2003. There is only one Web server at ITCertKeys.com. The design of applications forms part of your responsibilities at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com operates as a manufacturing company.

You are currently developing Web-based applications for ITCertKeys.com. All the departments at ITCertKeys.com will have its own Web application for custom content and functionality that is department-specific. All these Web applications make use of third party .NET 1.1 components. These components are all shared by other Web applications within ITCertKeys.com.

You must meet the following requirements in your development of these Web-based applications:
1. The Web-based applications must require the shared components.
2. The Web-based applications must also require ASP.NET 2.0 features.

You should develop these applications with the least amount of developer effort and time. To this end you need to take a decision on how you will meet these requirements in your solution.

What should you do?

A. You should upgrade the shared components to .NET 2.0
B. You should enable directory browsing on the Web Server to access the shared components.
C. You should place the shared components in the same directory as the main Web application.
D. Since ASP.NET 2.0 Web applications are compatible with .NET 1.1 components you should 
    not do anything.

Answer: D

Explanation: 
The ASP.NET 2.0 and ASP.NET 1.1 runtime can run on the same machine without any additional configuration settings required. The ASP.Net 1.1 components can benefit from the performance options that are available in ASP.NET 2.0 and ASP.NET 2.0 applications can continue to communicate with the ASP.NET 1.1 components. Thus there is no need to do anything.

Incorrect answers:
A: There is no need to upgrade the shared components to ASP.NET 2.0. This option would not 
    be available if the components are third party and data access components should then be 
    redesigned to take full advantage of the ASP.NET 2.0 benefits. In fact it would be simpler 
    upgrading an ASP.NET 1.1 site to ASP.NET 2.0.
B: You should not enable directory browsing on the Web server because it can allow any user to 
    see the directory structure of your Web site. And furthermore, directory browsing will not allow 
    different versions of ASP.NET to run.
C: The shared components should not be placed in the same directory as the main Web 
    application. Merging the files into the same directory will create a problem with other Web 
    applications accessing the shared component.

Question 4.
You work as the Enterprise application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers in the domain run Windows Server 2003. The design of applications forms part of your responsibilities at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com operates as an online-retailer.

You are currently developing a Web-based application for ITCertKeys.com. This application will server as an order fulfillment application. Upon completion this application will allow the ITCertKeys.com users to enter a zip code into a TextBox control where they will be able to find all the packages that have been shipped to a particular geographical area. The application will take the TextBox value and construct a query similar to the one illustrated in the Exhibit below:

Exhibit:
SELECT * FROM Orders WHERE zip = '21006';
You now need to make sure that you mitigate the possibility of malicious code being inserted into the query strings passed to the SQL Server for parsing and execution.

What should you do?

A. You should use a RequiredFieldValidator control on the TextBox.
B. You should validate user input using stored procedures.
C. You should build Transact-SQL statements directly from the TextBox input.
D. You should concatenate user input from the TextBox.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
It is possible that malicious code can be inserted into user input variables that are concatenated with SQL statements and executed, i.e. the SQL injection attack. To prevent this from happening you should configure the Web-based application to validate all input prior to sending the request to the database by making use of least privilege accounts when accessing the database, and using stored procedures rather than dynamically constructed SQL when possible.

Incorrect answers:
A: You should not make use of the RequiredFieldValidator control on the TextBox. This will force 
    the users to enter a value for the zip code, but would not prevent malicious code from being 
    accepted as input.
C: You should not build the Transact-SQL statement directly from the TextBox input as it provides 
    a user with an opportunity to insert malicious code. And executing the Transact-SQL 
    statements directly from the TextBox input has to potential to harm your database.
D: You should not concatenate user input from the TextBox. The input from the TextBox control 
    should rather be validated prior to concatenation as invalidated concatenation input makes an 
    application susceptible to SQL injection attacks.

Question 5.
You work as the Enterprise application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers in the domain run Windows Server 2003. The design of applications forms part of your responsibilities at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com operates as a company that provides financial, investment and accounting services to its customers.

You are currently developing a Web-based application for ITCertKeys.com. This application will be used to maintain the investment account information for the ITCertKeys.com customers. This investment account information is sent as Extensible Markup Language (XML) documents from the Microsoft SQL Server 2005 database. Each XML document should contain customer feedback information. You want this application to allow you to contact the customers regarding the given feedback. 

Following are the requirements that should be met:
1. The Web-based application must retrieve each customer's contact details such as name, 
   address, and e-mail address from the XML document.
2. You must be allowed to determine which geographical area has the most customer complaints.
3. The customer data should remain in XML format.
4. You must maximize performance of the query.

You thus need to make a decision as to which approach you can use to query the SQL Server data to meet these requirements.

What should you do?

A. Query the SQL Server data using a SELECT statement with the FOR XML clause.
B. Query the SQL Server data using a SELECT statement that calls the DataType.Xml method.
C. Query the SQL Server data using a SELECT statement with an OPENXML function.
D. Query the SQL Server data using a SELECT statement with the OPENROWSET function.

Answer: C

Explanation: 
The OPENXML function can be used to query data from an XML document. It is also possible to convert the XML data, store it is a temporary table, then query the data, but this schlep will be eliminated using the OPENXML function and also you should not change the data from XML because the Web site data must remain in XML format. Thus the database should be queried with the SELECT statement with an OPENXML function.

Incorrect answers:
A: The FOR XML clause is used to format the results of a query in XML format. In this case you 
    need to query the data from an XML document. Thus this option is not required.
B: The DataType.Xml method returns an object that represents a specified data type, and will   
    thus not allow you to query the XML document directly.
D: The OPENROWSET function is used for querying remote data sources and this is not what is 
    required in this scenario.

Question 6.
You work as an ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS547 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS547. You are developing a Web-based client application for the ITCertKeys.com Web site. The ITCertKeys.com Web site sells subscriptions to courseware material. 

The Web application must allow users to browse subscription options, to purchase subscriptions, to add subscriptions to a wish list, to store bank account details, and to review products online. You must implement a standardized layout according to the company's branding on each page. The pages must also implement a daily advertisement above the main menu. The advertisement must be replaced every morning. You want to reduce the effort required to maintain the Web application.

What should you do?

A. Add an AdRotator control to each Web page and place the daily advertisement in the 
    Advertisement file.
B. Include the daily advertisement in a Master Page and set the masterPageFile attribute in the 
    Web.config file.
C. Create a User Control for the daily advertisement and add the User Control to each Web page.
D. Include the daily advertisement in a Template Page and bind each Web page to the Template 
    Page.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
Master Pages allows you to create a common layout for across all pages that the Master Page is bound to. You can either bind the Master Page to each page in the Page directive on each page, or in the masterPageFile attribute of the Web.config file. If the masterPageFile attribute of the Web.config file is set to the location of the Master Page, any changes made to the Master Page will be propagated to each Web page. This will reduce the effort required to maintain the daily advertisement.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The AdRotator control is used to rotate between various advertisements contained in an 
    AdvertisementFile. Advertisements are displayed on the basis on page impressions. It is 
    possible to have only one advertisement in the AdvertisementFile and to change the 
    advertisement every morning but this is not the purpose of the AdRotator control.
C: You could include the advertisement in a User control but you would need a Master Page to 
    standardize the layout of each page. It would therefore require less effort to add the 
    advertisement to the Master Page.
D: ASP.NET does not support a Template Page.

Question 7.
You work as an ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS547 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS547. You are developing a Web-based client application for the ITCertKeys.com Web site. The ITCertKeys.com Web site sells subscriptions to courseware material. The Web application must allow users to browse subscription options, to purchase subscriptions, to add subscriptions to a wish list, to store bank account details, and to review products online. You must implement a standardized layout on each page. You must also ensure that all controls maintain a consistent appearance according
to the company's branding.

What should you do?

A. Implement Themes and Master Pages.
B. Implement Web Parts and User Controls.
C. Implement User Controls and Profile properties.
D. Implement Web Parts and Master Pages.

Answer: A

Explanation: 
Master Pages allows you to create a common layout for across all pages that the Master Page is bound to. You can either bind the Master Page to each page in the Page directive on each page, or in the masterPageFile attribute of the Web.config file. Themes allow you to maintain a consistent appearance for the controls across Web pages, and entire Web application, or all Web applications on a server.

Incorrect Answers:
B: Web Parts allow users to customize content, appearance and behavior of Web pages, while 
    User Controls allow you to reuse code across Web pages. Neither is used to implement 
    consistent layout nor consistent appearance of controls.
C: Profile properties is a provider framework that stores settings for individual users, while User 
    Controls allow you to reuse code across Web pages. Neither is used to implement consistent 
    layout nor consistent appearance of controls.
D: Web Parts allow users to customize content, appearance and behavior of Web pages. It does 
    not implement consistent layout or consistent appearance of controls.

Question 8.
You work as an ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS547 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS547. ITCertKeys.com has it headquarters in Washington and branch offices in Miami, Dallas and San Francisco. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01 that is located at headquarters. ITCertKeys-DB01 hosts a database named ITK_Sales that stores sales information for the company. 

You are developing a Web-based client application for ITCertKeys.com. The Web application connects all branch offices to the ITK_Sales database. You need to develop a user interface that allows Sales personnel at each branch office to enter data regarding Returned goods. The Returned Goods data includes the customer's name, the product code, and the invoice number. You need to implement the appropriate user interface controls for entry of Returned Goods data.

What should you do?

A. Use a TextBox control for the customer's name, a TextBox control for the invoice number and 
    a TextBox control for the product code.
B. Use a DropDownList control for the customer's name, a DropDownList control for the invoice 
    number and a DropDownList control for the product code.
C. Use a DropDownList control for the customer's name, a TextBox control for the invoice 
    number and a DropDownList control for the product code.
D. Use a TextBox control for the customer's name, a TextBox control for the invoice number and 
    a DropDownList control for the product code.

Answer: C

Explanation: 
The main data that can be read from a database is the product code and the customer's name. You can implement a data bound DropDownList to display the product code and customer name. A TextBox is a free-form input box that can be used for the invoiced price.

Incorrect Answers:
A: While it is possible that all data can be entered in TextBox controls, it would be difficult to verify 
    the accuracy of the data. Allowing Sales personnel to select the appropriate customer name 
    and product code from a DropDownList would greatly reduce data input errors.
B: A DropDownList for a price range would be inappropriate.
D: While it is possible that the customer name can be entered in TextBox controls, it would be 
    difficult to verify the accuracy of the data. Allowing Sales personnel to select the appropriate 
    customer name from a DropDownList would greatly reduce data input errors.

Question 9.
You work as an ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS547 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS547. You are developing a Web-based client application for ITCertKeys.com. 

You want users of the Web application to input a date on the Web form regardless of their local date format. You add three DropDownList controls named Year, Month and Day to the Web application. You want the date entered through these DropDownList controls will be displayed on subsequent pages in the user's local date format.

What should you do?

A. Instantiate a DateTime object using the values from the DropDownList controls.
B. Instantiate a DateTime object using the values from the GetDate method.
C. Let the users select their location and set the CurrentCulture property of the executing thread 
    to the associated CultureInfo object.
D. Set the enableClientBasedCulture attribute in the Web.config file to true.

Answer: A, C

Explanation: 
You must instantiate a DateTime object that accepts the values that the user entered in the DropDownList controls. The user should then select his or her location from a DropDownList. This location must be used to configure the CurrentCulture property of the executing thread to the associated CultureInfo object.

Incorrect Answers:
B: You want the user to input a date into the Web Form. The GetDate method does not allow user 
    input.
D: The enableClientBasedCulture attribute takes the culture settings of the browser. Although this 
    will work, the culture settings in the browser may be misconfigured.

Question 10.
You work as an ASP.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses the Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2005 as their application development platform. You use a Microsoft Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys-WS547 as your development computer. Internet Information Services (IIS) is installed on ITCertKeys-WS547. You are developing a Web-based client application for the ITCertKeys.com Web site. The ITCertKeys.com Web site sells subscriptions to courseware material. Customers must be able to specify the term of subscription by specifying the start and end dates of their subscriptions in TextBox controls, and must specify their location in a DropDownList control. 

You must ensure that the values entered into the TextBox controls are dates that have not yet passed. You must also ensure that the start date is no more than 3 months in advance and that the end date is at least two weeks after the start date. Customers who want an open-ended subscription do not need to specify an end date. You decide to use RequiredFieldValidator controls to verify the start date TextBox control and the DropDownList control, and a RangeValidator control to verify the start date TextBox control.

Does your solution satisfy the requirements for this project?

A. Yes.
B. No, a RangeValidator does not verify the validity of a date.
C. No, a CompareValidator is required to verify the validity of the end date.
D. No, a CompareValidator is required to verify that the start date has not already passed.
E. No, a RequiredFieldValidator is required for the end date TextBox control.

Answer: C

Explanation: 
This solution does not meet requirements because it fails to ensure that the end date is at least two weeks after the start date. The RequiredFieldValidator verifies that a start date has been specified and that a location has been selected. The RangeValidator ensure that the start date has not already passed. You also need a CompareValidator to compare the end date to the start date and ensure that the end date is at least two weeks after the start date.

Incorrect Answers:
A: This solution does not meet requirements because it fails to ensure that the end date is at least 
    two weeks after the start date. The RequiredFieldValidator verifies that a start date has been 
    specified and that a location has been selected. The RangeValidator ensure that the start date 
    has not already passed. You also need a CompareValidator to compare the end date to the 
    start date and ensure that the end date is at least two weeks after the start date.
B: The RangeValidator ensure that the start date has not already passed and is therefore 
    required.
D: A CompareValidator compare the values in two controls. It can be used to ensure that the 
    values in the two controls are identical or are within a certain range of each other. It is not be 
    used to compare the value in the start date Text Box with the current date.
D: A RequiredFieldValidator should not be added for the end date TextBox control as customers 
    must be able to specify open-ended subscriptions. These customers will not enter an end date.



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Braindumps for "9L0-005" Exam

Apple Desktop Service Exam

 Question 1.
What precautions should be taken if a discharged CRT must remain exposed for any length of time?

A. You should perform a full set of video adjustments on the CRT.
B. You should reset the Power Manager Unit on the logic board.
C. You should remove the CRT from the computer or display assembly.
D. You should establish an ongoing lead between the CRT anode and ground.

Answer: D

Question 2.
Which of the following are visual and audible cues of a normal Mac startup sequence. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

A. Fans turn off.
B. Computer beeps three times.
C. Startup chime sounds.
D. Apple logo appears on display.
E. Flashing question mark appears on display.

Answer: C, D

Question 3.
Which of the following combination of Drive Module Status Lights and Drive Module Activity Lights should you look for before you can safely remove a module from an Xserve G5?

A. Status light ON, activity Light OFF
B. Both lights OFF
C. Status light OFF, activity light ON
D. Both lights ON

Answer: B

Question 4.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate question to ask FIRST, when gathering information from customers about a problem with their Apple product?

A. Did you turn off the computer improperly?
B. What operating system are you using?
C. Is this the first time you have had this problem?
D. What is the issue?

Answer: D

Question 5.
Why do you need to take precautions when disposing of CRT displays? SELECT TWO

A. CRT displays may contain hazardous materials.
B. CRT displays may present a fire hazard.
C. CRT displays may present a radiation hazard.
D. CRT displays may contain toxic gases.
E. CRT displays may implode if mishandled.

Answer: A, E

Question 6.
What does Apple recommend you do before replacing or installing any internal parts in an Xserve?

A. Remove all drive modules from the Xserve.
B. Remove the Xserve from its rack.
C. Press the System Identifier button.
D. Unlock all drive module bays.

Answer: B

Question 7.
Examine the exhibit. Will this application launch natively on a PowerPC-based Mac?
 

A. No
B. Yes

Answer: B

Question 8.
Which THREE of the following items are appropriate to use for ESD prevention? SELECT THREE

A. Wrist strap and cord
B. Static-shielding bags
C. CRT discharge tool
D. Grounded work mat
E. Metal work surface

Answer: A, B, D

Question 9.
Which THREE of the following are valid CRT safety rules? SELECT THREE

A. Touch the computer's metal chassis.
B. Wear safety goggles.
C. Don't work alone.
D. Remove any metal jewelry.
E. Connect the AC power cord.
F. Wear a grounded ESD wrist strap.

Answer: B, C, D

Question 10.
A Power Mac G5 fails to start up, and the status light on the front of the computer flashes three times. 

What does this indicate?

A. Firmware v3.0 upgrade required
B. Thermal failure
C. No RAM banks passed memory testing
D. No startup disk found

Answer: C



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Braindumps for "E20-095" Exam

EMC Technology Foundations-CAS

 Question 1.
What is the final step when retrieving an object in the Centera environment?

A. Centera receives request via the API over IP
B. Application authenticates request and delivers object
C. Centera authenticates request and delivers object
D. Application finds the Content Address and delivers object

Answer:  C

Question 2.
What is a characteristic of Centera?

A. OLTP storage array
B. Block level storage interface
C. Guaranteed content authenticity
D. File Structure management

Answer:  C

Question 3.
What is the first step or event when storing an object in a Centera environment?

A. Unique Content Address is calculated
B. Object is sent to Centera via Centera API over IP
C. Centera stores the object
D. Content Address is retained for future reference

Answer:  A

Question 4
What is a characteristic of a Content Address in a Centera?

A. Sequentially based
B. Filesystem based
C. Location-independent
D. Location-dependent

Answer:  C

Question 5.
What do VLANs reduce?

A. The amount of network traffic
B. The security in a network infrastructure
C. The number of network segments in the network infrastructure
D. The router traffic overhead in the network infrastructure

Answer:  D

Question 6.
What is a characteristic of Centera fixed content?

A. Expandable
B. Transaction Oriented
C. Short-term storage
D. Unalterable

Answer:  D

Question 7.
What is a characteristic of a Content Address in Centera?

A. Sequentially based
B. Globally unique
C. Filesystem based
D. Location-dependent

Answer:  B

Question 8.
In a Centera, what is a supported replication topology?

A. Loop
B. Bus
C. Star
D. Ring

Answer:  C

Question 9.
How many optical network ports are available on a NS500 DataMover?

A. 1
B. 4
C. 2
D. None

Answer:  D

Question 10.
What does the OSI Physical layer provide?

A. a reliable message stream to the user interface
B. address and routing for data
C. the media specification
D. data encapsulation

Answer:  C



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Braindumps for "E20-097" Exam

EMC Technology Foundations-Backup and Recovery

 Question 1.
Which NetWorker software must be installed on a host backed up using a NetWorker module?

A. Storage Node
B. Server
C. Management Console
D. Client

Answer: D

Question 2.
Which statement is true about Celerra Replicator?

A. Is a pointer based view of a Production File System
B. Is a point-in-time copy of a Production File System
C. Is implemented over campus distances only
D. Is bi-directional

Answer: B

Question 3.
What is a function of NetWorker?

A. Create replicas of mission-critical information on disk arrays
B. Manage capacity of front-end storage devices
C. Centralize and automate backup and recovery
D. Enable failover to remote servers

Answer: C

Question 4.
What is the purpose of a backup?

A. Prevent unauthorized access of data
B. Prevent data corruption
C. Restore the original data in the event of data loss
D. Allow multiple, simultaneous access of data

Answer: C

Question 5.
Replication Manager provides which additional capability over Replication Manager/SE?

A. Mount multiple replicas on the same mount host
B. Mount replicas to alternate hosts
C. Support Symmetrix arrays with TimeFinder
D. Store replicas on remote arrays using SAN Copy

Answer: C

Question 6.
What is the first step in a snapshot operation performed by a NetWorker Module?

A. Freeze application
B. Shut down application
C. Take snapshot
D. Flush buffers

Answer: A

Question 7.
Which operating systems are supported in Replication Manager?

A. Windows 2000, Windows 2003, Solaris, RedHat Linux, AS400
B. Windows 2000, Windows 2003, Solaris, RedHat/SUSE Linux, HP-UX, AIX, AS400
C. Windows 2000, Windows 2003, Windows XP
D. Windows 2000, Windows 2003, Solaris, RedHat/SUSE Linux, HP-UX, AIX

Answer: D

Question 8.
Which NetWorker Modules use snapshot technology?

A. OraSnap and PowerSnap
B. MicroSnap and SnapImage
C. OraSnap and MicroSnap
D. PowerSnap and SnapImage

Answer: D

Question 9.
You wish to create a consistent backup of a changing file system on an EMC CLARiiON.
Which NetWorker Module is used?

A. SnapImage
B. PowerSnap
C. SnapView
D. SnapCL

Answer: B

Question 10.
Which NetWorker resource is used to determine the backup level for a client?

A. Schedule
B. Client
C. Pool
D. Group

Answer: A


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Braindumps for "E20-535" Exam

Networked Storage - NS Implementation

 Question 1.
File system fs01 is 1 TB and quotas are not currently required. If this changes, however, configure quotas at a later time must not be affected. 

How do you satisfy this requirement?

A. Do not enable quotas when fs01 is created. Turn on quotas at off peak hours when enabling.
B. Enable quotas when fs01 is create. Then pause the quota service on the Data Mover.
C. Do not enable quotas when fs01 is created. Use the "param quotas BackgroundProcess=1" 
    parameter when they are enabled.
D. Enable quotas when fs01 is created. Do not set any quota limits.

Answer: D

Question 2.
You can access the hidden ".ckpt" directory, which is created by SnapSure, using which two of the following methods? (Choose two)

A. Append .ckpt to the path shown when mapping a network drive.
B. Enter the entire path into Start > Run > \\serverx\SnapSure\ckpt
C. Browse to the .ckpt directory using Windows Explorer
D. Type the entire path directly into the Address bar in Windows Explorer

Answer: B, D

Question 3.
Of the following, which three are NOT configuration rules for NAS System LUNs on an NS system? (Choose three)

A. LUNs within the System RAID Group must be owned alternatively by SPA and SPB
B. Celerra Control LUNs must be configured on a dedicated NAS 4+1 Raid5 group
C. LUNs in the System RAID Group must be divided into 2, 4 or 8 equal LUNs
D. LUNs within the System RAID Group are not restricted to SAN or NAS

Answer: A, C, D

Question 4.
 
ITCertKeys.com has two Celerras that are located in London and Boston. You need to develop A NAS solution that retains a copy of the Celerra data on a Sun server in Hong Kong, as well as an HP server in Sydney. 

Which is a suitable NAS solution that will satisfy ITCertKeys.com's requirements?

A. Symmetrix Remote Data Facility
B. Replicator
C. OnCourse
D. FarCopy

Answer: C

Question 5.
Windows users' home directories are configured on a Celerra CIFS server by using which procedure?

A. Configure the homedir file with the path for each domain user. Enable the home directory 
    option on the Data Mover. Create a directory in the correct location for each user. Edit the 
    profile of each existing user's account.
B. Configure the homedir file with the path for each domain user. Enable the home directory 
    option on the Data Mover. Export the appropriate path as the share name HOME. Edit the 
    profile of each users account.
C. Configure the homedir file with the path for each domain. Export the path as the share name 
    HOME. Enable the home directory option on the Data Mover. Edit the profile of each user's 
    account using the %user% variable.
D. Configure the homedir file with the path for each domain. Enable the home directory option on 
    the Data Mover. Create a directory in the correct location for each user. Edit the profile of each 
    user's account using the %user% variable.

Answer: A

Question 6.
Virtual Data Mover's root file system stores which of the following?

A. Usermapper configuration
B. NTP
C. FTP root directory
D. Local Groups

Answer: D

Question 7.
In which location would you find Internal User mapper?

A. at the Virtual Data Mover level
B. on the Control Station
C. at the physical Data Mover level
D. spread over all User mapper servers

Answer: C

Question 8.
Identify the components of this usrmap.cfg file entry by placing them in their appropriate positions.
 

Answer:
 

Question 9.
Network segments are isolated by which network component?

A. ISL
B. STP
C. LACP
D. VLAN

Answer: D

Question 10.
For high availability in a high application transaction environment, which of the following is recommended?

A. CIFS
B. FTP
C. TFTP
D. NFS

Answer: D


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Braindumps for "E20-570" Exam

Networked Storage CAS Specialist Exam

 Question 1.
A customer archives e-mail with many identical attachments. 

Which Centera feature will improve the efficiency of the storage?

A. GM naming scheme
B. Multiple Instance Storage
C. Single Instance Storage
D. Embedded Compression

Answer: C

Question 2.
How are objects replicated from one cluster to another?

A. Asynchronous
B. Synchronous
C. SnapLock
D. Adaptive copy

Answer: A

Question 3.
How does Centera manage replaced mirrored disk drives?

A. Centera mirrors objects but does not mirror hardware
B. Replacement disks and nodes must have the same size storage resources
C. Newly provisioned resources are always an even multiple of the drive being replaced
D. CenteraStar OS has the intelligence to mirror drives of any size

Answer: A

Question 4.
What is the purpose of block reclamation on the CUA?

A. Return free disk space
B. Perform data shredding
C. Perform data scrubbing
D. Defragment disks

Answer: A

Question 5.
What is needed to connect a second Centera rack to an existing rack?

A. Additional storage nodes
B. Root switch
C. Additional access nodes
D. Gigabit uplink module

Answer: D

Question 6.
How does the Centera guarantee the integrity and authenticity of content?

A. Digital Rights Management
B. Content addressing
C. Information Life Cycle Management
D. Retention period

Answer: B

Question 7.
What is the probability of a content collision using the GM naming scheme?

A. 6.02x10
    -23
B. 0
C. 4x10
    -41
D. 1x10
    -54

Answer: C

Question 8.
Which customer concern does privileged delete address?

A. Health Care regulations
B. Financial regulations
C. Non Repudiation requirements
D. Privacy requirements

Answer: D

Question 9.
What is the name of the process of writing data from the CUA to the Centera?

A. Write request
B. Write-back
C. Datawrite
D. Invalidate

Answer: B

Question 10.
Which operating systems can natively store information on a CUA?

A. Macintosh and UNIX
B. Win2K and OS390
C. Macintosh and OS390
D. Win2k and UNIX

Answer: D



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Braindumps for "E20-593" Exam

Backup & Recovery Implementation Exam

 Question 1.
Which network should be sized to accommodate backup data in an NDMP environment?

A. Public LAN
B. SAN
C. Private LAN
D. WAN

Answer: B

Question 2.
Your customer has accidentally removed a Client File Index(CFI). 

Which NetWorker command can you use to recover the CFI?

A. nsrd
B. nsrck
C. recover
D. mminfo

Answer: B

Question 3.
When configuring a remote tape library in NetWorker, what must you do before running jbconfig?

A. Verify the user running jbconfig is in the Administrator list
B. Configure a storage node resource for the remote storage node
C. Perform an inventory of the volumes in the tape library
D. Run inquire to create the device path names

Answer: A

Question 4.
The customer has a DL710 system, and wants to use the Auto Archive feature. The physical tape library has been connected to the disk library engine. 

What is the next step?

A. Perform a Rescan on the back-end ports
B. Run the Physical Library Wizard
C. Create a new SAN Client for the physical library
D. Run the Configuration Wizard

Answer: A

Question 5.
If a NetWorker client is backed up at an incremental level, at which level is its Client File Index (CFI) backed up?

A. 1
B. Incremental
C. 9
D. Full

Answer: C

Question 6.
You are setting up EMC Replication Storage group on a CLARiiON array for the RM use. 

What should be attached to this storage group?

A. RM Server
B. Source LUNs
C. RM Mount Host
D. Clone LUNs

Answer: D

Question 7.
What happens when a NetWorker advanced file type device fills up?

A. Specified save sets on the volume are immediately staged
B. An email is sent to the NetWorker administrator recommending that another volume be 
    mounted
C. Save streams going to the device hang until another volume becomes available
D. A NetWorker notification is performed

Answer: D

Question 8.
What is the major difference between a CLARiiON backup-to-disk and a CLARiiON Disk Library?

A. ATA disk
B. Scalable
C. Number of service processors
D. Disk-to-Disk replication

Answer: D

Question 9.
You have restored your customer's Replication Manager Solid database but the database remains corrupted. 

Which action should you take?

A. Rerun the restore script with the "/logdelete" switch
B. Restore the backup from tape and rerun the restore script with the "/logdelete" switch
C. Restore the backup from tape and rerun the restore script with the "/nologs" switch
D. Rerun the restore script with the "/nologs" switch

Answer: C

Question 10.
Which command do you use to change the browse and the retention times of a save set?

A. nsrmm
B. nsrls
C. nsrjb
D. mminfo

Answer: A


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Braindumps for "E20-616" Exam

Symmetrix Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist Exam

 Question 1.
What is the purpose of the SPS (Standby Power Supply) in a DMX 800?

A. Keeps the DAE up in the case both SPEs fail
B. Keeps the DAE up in the case of a failing SPE
C. Battery backup for loss of AC power
D. Provides DC to the SPEs

Answer: C

Question 2.
What is the number of vault drive slices for a 2-storage bay, fully configured storage system?

A. 128
B. 16
C. 64
D. 32

Answer: A

Question 3.
When replacing a FEBE board, what loss should be expected?

A. Loss of connectivity to hosts
B. Loss of M1 and M2 volumes
C. Loss of the DA dual initiator
D. There will be no disruption

Answer: A

Question 4.
Which command lists all the WWNs that are logged into port 1?

A. 8F,,,1
B. E7,,,1
C. A7,C,1
D. A1,,,1

Answer: A

Question 5.
If the SRDF link is up, what must be done first on the R1 side, to make the R2 devices write enabled?

A. Use F7 menu to enable R1 and R2 Read Write
B. Make Device(s) not ready (F7 menu) to allow Read Write
C. Run the FCC command from the source box, and then the FDD command
D. Suspend Links; R2 volumes will automatically become Read Write

Answer: B

Question 6.
Which PowerPath load balancing policy is used when I/O requests are distributed to each available path in turn?

A. Least I/O
B. Basic Failover
C. Round Robin
D. Request

Answer: C

Question 7.
How is the DMX3 internal server physically cabled?

A. Thru a internal cable to the XCM card
B. Rs232 cable to the EPO card
C. Thru the midplane in the system bay
D. Thru a cable trough in the frame to all of the directors

Answer: C

Question 8.
A Symmetrix 8000 single bay unit reports Fan Tach alarm 71. 

Which fan assembly would you replace to correct the error?

Exhibit:
 

A. None. This error is not a fan alarm.
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4

Answer: B

Question 9.
What are the maximum number of disks in a DMX2500 with a 30 disk loop?

A. 120
B. 480
C. 960
D. 240

Answer: B

Question 10.
Which type of protection is allowed for an EMC Snap VDEV volume in Enguinity 5670+?

A. RAID 3+1
B. RAID-1
C. RAID 7+1
D. RAID-10

Answer: B



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