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i require important dumps from 642-424.
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Question 1.
An entity beans class contains the following method signature:
public Integer ejbCreate (int partNum, String partDescription,
float partCost, String partSupplier) throws CreateException
Which statement is true of the beans ejbCreate() method?
A. AnejbPostCreate() method with the same number and types of parameters must be present in
the beans remote interface.
B. An ejbPostCreate() method with the same method signature must be present in the beans
home interface.
C. An ejbPostCreate() method with tne same numoer and types of parameters must be present in
the beans class.
D. An ejbPostCreate() method with the same method signature must be present in the beans
class.
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which choice defines the term isolation when used to describe the properties of a transaction?
A. Isolation guarantees that a transaction will either result in a new valid system, or the system
will be restored to its original state.
B. Isolation guarantees that a committed transaction will persist despite any type of system
failure.
C. Isolation guarantees that logically related operations are dealt with as a single unit.
D. Isolation guarantees that transactions running at the same time will not have access to each
others partial results.
Answer: D
Question 3.
An EJB client invokes a create() method. An EJB container instantiates an enterprise bean as the result of this method call. The bean is then held in a pool awaiting a method invocation.
To which type of enterprise bean does this process refer?
A. BMP entity bean
B. CMP entity bean
C. Stateless session bean
D. Stateful session bean
Answer: C
Question 4.
A finder method in an entity bean is written to find more than one primary key.
Which statement correctly describes the invocation of this type of ejbFind...() method?
A. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the home object allocates a bean instance
and invokes the corresponding ejbFind...() method. The home object instantiates a remote
object for each primary key, with a collection of remote references returned to the client.
B. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the home object allocates a bean instance
And invokes the corresponding ejbFind...() method. The home object instantiates a collection
of remote objects for each primary key, with individual remote references returned to the client.
C. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the remote object invokes the corresponding
ejbFind...() method. The remote object then returns a collection of remote references to the
client.
D. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the home object allocates a bean instance
and invokes the corresponding ejbFind...() method. The home object instantiates a collection of
primary key references and returns them to the client.
Answer: A
Question 5.
The ejbRemove() method for an enterprise bean contains the following line of code:
prepStmt = dbConn.prepareStatement ("DELETE FROM MyTable WHERE MyKey = ?");
What type of enterprise bean might this be?
A. Stateful session bean
B. BMP entity bean
C. CMP entity bean
D. Stateless session bean
Answer: A, B, D
Question 6.
Which statement correctly describes CMP entity beans and finder methods?
A. The beans class should contain empty ejbFind() methods with corresponding find() methods
defined in the remote interface.
B. The beans class should not contain ejbFind() methods; empty find() methods are defined in the
home interface.
C. The beans class should not contain ejbFind() methods; empty find() methods are defined in
the remote interface.
D. The beans class should contain empty ejbFind() methods with corresponding find() methods
defined in the home interface.
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which client application could benefit from the use of a callback object?
A. A Java Micro Edition application that notifies the user of a hand. held computer when traffic
conditions have improved along a given freeway
B. A Java applet that allows users to send an E. mail message to the quality control department
C. A Java application used by police officers in the field to retrieve vehicle registration information
from a remote database by supplying a complete or partial license plate number
D. A Java applet that retrieves a map image when given a street address
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which statement correctly describes the EJBContext interface?
A. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to find, create and remove
enterprise beans.
B. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to ascertain information about
runtime status for enterprise beans.
C. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to obtain metadata for enterprise
beans.
D. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to obtain network references to
enterprise beans.
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which type of factory object returns references to objects that reside within the same process as the factory object?
A. Out-process
B. Generic
C. Specific
D. In-process
Answer: D
Question 10.
Which statement correctly describes the EJBHome interface?
A. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces, which provide methods to create,
find and remove enterprise beans.
B. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces, which provide a clients view of an
enterprise bean.
C. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces and is the common superinterface
for the SessionBean and EntityBean interfaces.
D. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces, which the container uses to inform
enterprise beans about life cycle events.
Answer: A
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Question 1. Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to create extended distance consistent point in time copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B? A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 3 hours D. 4 hours Answer: B Question 2. What is a remote replication solution for EMC CLARiiON storage systems? A. MirrorView/A B. SnapView C. SRDF/AR D. TimeFinder Answer: A Question 3. Which represents a common implementation of a storage network with limited scalability? A. CSMA/CD B. Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop C. Store and Forward D. Switched Fabric Answer: B Question 4. Identify the E Port and Edge switch in the SAN Core/Edge exhibit. A. 1 and 6 B. 4 and 5 C. 7 and 5 D. 6 and 3 Answer: A Question 5. What is the process that writes physical address information to a disk? A. Concatenating B. Formatting C. Partitioning D. Striping Answer: B Question 6. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of a company is 4 hours. Which statement is true in the event of a disaster? A. Must be able to restart their network within 4 hours B. Must be able to restart their servers within 4 hours C. Must be able to resume production within 4 hours D. No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost Answer: D Question 7. Which technology is designed for storage of fixed content data? A. CAS B. DAS C. NAS D. SAN Answer: A Question 8. In SAN, if the primary concern is cabling flexibility, what method of zoning should be employed? A. Hard Zoning B. Mixed Zoning C. Port Zoning D. WWN Zoning Answer: D Question 9. A disk has Cylinder Head Sector (CHS) values of 1000, 4 and 25. What address range will be used for the Logical Block Address (LBA) values for this disk? A. 0 - 49,999 B. 0 - 99,999 C. 1 - 50,000 D. 1 - 100,000 Answer: B Question 10. Which key requirement of the Data Center infrastructure addresses the concern of data on storage systems being accessible 24X7? A. Availability B. Manageability C. Performance D. Scalability Answer: A
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Question 1.
The customer's Centera is using CentraStar 3.0. A third-party vendor implemented an application and requested that a virtual pool and profile be created on the Centera. The application fails in its attempt to write to the Centera.
What is a possible problem?
A. CE + is enabled so no data can be written to the Centera
B. PEA tile was never provided to the application
C. Replication wasn't turned on
D. Storage pool creation not completed
Answer: B
Question 2.
What is the maximum number of nodes in a Gen 4 Centera Cube?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: C
Question 3.
Clips need to be migrated from the default pool to a virtual pool.
An access profile has already been created. Sequence the following steps to migrate clips:
1) Grant the profile access to the pool
2) Create application virtual pool
3) Start migrating pool mappings
4) Set the home pool for the access profile
5) Create pool mapping
A. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
B. 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
C. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
D. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
Answer: A
Question 4.
What is an "unbundled" cluster?
A. Flexible solution where the customer chooses any configuration of hardware or software to
deploy
B. Hardware only solution where the software is provided by the customer
C. Software only solution where the hardware is provided by the customer
D. Solution where the customer provides the rack in which the cluster is installed
Answer: D
Question 5.
What does SDK Failover enable with the default setting?
A. If a C-Clip cannot be found on the primary cluster, then the request goes to the secondary
cluster
B. If the communication is interrupted to the primary Centera, all data is rewritten to the
secondary Centera
C. If the pool has reached its defined quota then data is written automatically to the default pool
D. In case of a disk failure, data is written automatically to a node connected to the other power
rail
Answer: A
Question 6.
How do you launch the CUA Monitor?
A. Connect Monitor and keyboard directly to the CUA node and launch web services
B. Start a http session to the IP-address of the CUA using port 16000
C. Start a https session to the IP-address of the CUA using port 7227
D. Starting a SSH session to the IP address of the CUA and use the function "M" in the menu
Answer: C
Question 7.
Click the exhibit button.
Which button, in the diagram, is used to start the CLI from within Centera viewer?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
Question 8.
What are the available Centera replication topologies in addition to Uni-Directional and Bi- Directional?
A. Chain and Inward Star
B. Multipoint to Point and Chain
C. Point to Multipoint and Link
D. Ring and Star
Answer: A
Question 9.
A new customer has been testing their Centera in Governance mode. They have specified retention periods ranging from 0 days to 7 years. They would now like to erase the cluster and put it into production.
How can the customer remove the test data from the cluster?
A. Customer can issue a reset cluster command from the CLI
B. Customer can switch the cluster off for 24 hours to delete all data
C. Customer can use the privileged delete command to remove the data
D. Can not be done. data remains on the cluster
Answer: C
Question 10.
With which enterprise backup solutions does CASbar work?
A. NDMP compatible systems
B. NDMP systems with DMA capabilities
C. Systems capable of mounting a UNIX file system
D. Systems capable of mounting a windows file system
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Exhibit:
According to the exhibit, R1/BCV on Symm321 and R2 on Symm654 is pair 1, and R1/BCV on Sym654 and R2 on Symm987 is pair 2.
Which of the following commands is utilized for the control SRDF device operations on these two pairs?
A. Symrdf -bcv symrdf brbcv
B. syumrdf symrdf -rbcv
C. Symrdf Jcv symrdf -rdf -bcv
D. Symmir -rdf Jcv symrdf -rbcv
Answer: A
Question 2.
To simultaneously provide Read-Write acc4ess to both the R1 and R2 Volumes of the mydg device group, which SRDF symcli command would be used?
A. symrdf mydg spilt
B. symrdf mydg failover
C. symrdf mydg suspend
D. symrdf mydg spilt -concurrent
E. symrdf mydg suspend - concurrent
Answer: A
Question 3.
You Use Timefinder Snap to issue the following command:
Symnsnap list havedevs
Which two of the following statements best describes the output? (Choose two)
A. Percent full of the active Snap Session is shown.
B. The Symmetrix volumes associated with the Snap Save Devices are listed.
C. Percent full of the Save Devices is shown.
D. Lists the virtual devices associated with the Snap savedev device group.
E. Lists the active Snap Sessions.
Answer: B, C
Question 4.
TimeFinder consistent splits are created by using which two items? (Choose two)
A. Resource Pak
B. Symmetrix integration Utilities (SIU)
C. PowerPath
D. Enginuity Consistency Assist (ECA)
E. Persistent Storage Manager
Answer: C, D
Question 5.
A device group with SRDF source devices would be created by using which of the following SYMCLI commands?
A. symcreate namedg type RDF1
B. symdg create namedg -type RDF1
C. symdg create namedg type REGULAR
D. symdg create namedg type RDF1
Answer: D
Question 6.
DRAG DROP
As an instructor at ITCertKeys.com, you are required to match the correct ECC agents with the tasks on the left, by placing them in the space provided on the right. (NOTE: agents may be used more than once.)
Answer:
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
For the following, you need to match the Symmetrix device type with the replication technology that it employs. Options may be used more than once.
Answer:
Question 8.
What are the three features of SRDF/A, if cache and bandwidth are suitably configured? (Choose three)
A. Seconds of data exposure.
B. Unlimited distance.
C. No performance impact.
D. Some performance impact.
E. Hours of data exposure.
F. Limited distance.
G. No data exposure.
Answer: B, C, G
Question 9.
How can the Fibre Channel Buffer Credits, needed for a given distance, be calculated quickly?
A. By multiplying the circuit distance in kilometers by 1.6.
B. By dividing the circuit distance in kilometers by 2.
C. By dividing the circuit distance in miles by 2.
D. By multiplying the circuit distance in kilometers by 2.
Answer: B
Question 10.
Exhibit:
In the exhibit above, the SRDF primary mode of operation is Synchronous, there is no secondary mode selected and the SRDF link is ready. While Production work on Host A is in progress, both local mirrors of the R1 Volume fail.
What will happen in this situation?
A. The Symmetrix will automatically change the status of the R2 Volume to write-enabled and
Production work an continue form Host B.
B. Production work can continue from Host A but new write operation cannot be perform.
C. Production work can continue from Host A without interruption. All new writes will accumulate
as invalid tracks from the R1 Volume.
D. Product ion work form Host A will fail. The application should be restarted form the Disaster
Recovery Host B.
Answer: C
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Question 1.
Select the two Connectrix MDS Models that are Multiprotocol (iSCSI / FCIP Storage Services Module) Ready? (Choose two)
A. MDS 9140
B. MDS 9120
C. MDS 9509
D. MDS 1032
E. MDS 9216
Answer: C, E
Question 2.
For what reason is having BCVs attached to the R2 devices at the remote site in a SRDF/A configuration recommended?
A. To preserve a consistent copy of data at the remote site before a split operation.
B. To mirror R2 devices for backup purpose in a disaster recovery scenario.
C. To preserve extra tracks that would not fit into the cache of R2's COVD devices.
D. To preserve a consistent copy of data at the remote site before a resynchronization operation.
Answer: D
Question 3.
EMC Replication Manager supports which three of the following features? (Choose three)
A. Provides incremental establish and restore functionality on CLARiiON storage arrays.
B. Exploits the incremental establish and restore capabilities of TimeFinder on Symmetrix storage
systems.
C. Automates tape backup based user specified schedule.
D. Restore automatically take advantage of the CLARiiON array's Protected Restore feature.
E. Performs TimeFinder Snap on Symmetrix Storage Systems.
Answer: A, B, D
Question 4.
DRAG DROP
You are an instructor at ITCertKeys.com and they enquire as to how you created a recoverable copy of data, using TimeFinder. By way of explanation, arrange the tasks in the order you carried it out.
Answer:
Question 5.
ITCertKeys.com's storage administrator wants to synchronize one device pair within a TimeFinder device group.
Which of the following command will achieve this objective?
A. symrdf namedf incremental BCV dev 0b3
B. symdev namedg full establish BCV dev 0b3
C. symmir namedg incremental BCV dev 0b3
D. symmir namedg full establish DEV003 BCV dev 0b3
Answer: D
Question 6.
The ControlCenter's interaction with its components can be described by what three statements?(Choose three)
A. The ECC Store retrieves real-time data requested by the Console.
B. The repository maintains current and historical data relating to EMC ControlCenter.
C. ControlCenter commands are passed over a TCP/IP network from the Console periodically
directly to the Agents.
D. The EMC ControlCenter Server provides most of the common services, which tie the
infrastructure together.
E. The Console relies on the EMC ControlCenter Server for information.
Answer: B, D, E
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
As an instructor at ITCertKeys.com, you are required to match the correct ECC agents with the tasks on the right, by placing them in the space provided on the left. (NOTE: agents may be used more than once.)
Answer:
Question 8.
Which two are Symmetrix Host Adapters that is supported by Powerpath4.2? (Choose two)
A. iSCSI
B. Fibre
C. Ficon
D. ESCON
E. SCSI
Answer: B, E
Question 9.
Which of the following are three Operating systems that support PowerPath pseudo devices? (Choose three)
A. SUN Solaris
B. HP-UX
C. Linux
D. AIX
E. Windows 200/2003
Answer: A, C, D
Question 10.
DRAG DROP
You are an instructor at ITCertKeys.com and they ask you to match the control center component pairs with the given maximum recommended network latency times, bearing in mind that these latency times may be used more than once.
Answer:
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Question 1.
CLARiiON metaLUN expansion is best described by which statement?
A. Only a cancatented metaLUN can be expanded
B. A metaLUN cannot be expanded
C. A metaLUN can be expanded
D. Only a striped metaLUN can be expanded
Answer: C
Question 2.
DRAG DROP
In your capacity as the Storage administrator at ITCertKeys.com, you are required to arrange the tasks necessary to assign a LUN to a host, in the Navisphere GUI, into the correct sequence?
Answer:
Question 3.
Multihoming and cluster support with EMC ControlCenter can be described by which two of the following statements? (Choose two)
A. The ControlCenter installation program requires manual input to specify the multiple interface
connections
B. Multihoming is typically used for LAN traffic management
C. ControlCenter supports Adapter Teaming (Grouping network adapter ports for a connection to
a single physical segment)
D. ControlCenter is supported on hosts that have multiple network interface cards (NICs) or one
NIC with multiple interface connections
E. Multihoming is optional if you plan to install ControlCenter with Cluster Support
Answer: D, E
Question 4.
Assuming that zoning is already configured, which two tasks should you carry out after completing SDR operation in a Fibre Channel switched environment? (Choose two)
A. Set the new device state to" Write Disabled".
B. Perform LUN masking
C. Reconfigure the host to recognize the new devices that are available for access
D. Set the new device state to not ready.
Answer: B, C
Question 5.
When a ControlCenter Store is overloaded, which are two possible actions that you should consider taking?
A. Add a ControlCenter Store
B. Add a ControlCenter Server
C. Add ControlCenter Master Agents
D. Distribute Data Collection Policies (DCPs)
E. Increase the frequency of the Data Collection Policies (DCPs)
Answer: A, D
Question 6.
What would cause the Free Space view in the ControlCenter Console not to work?
A. You need to customize the Console to make it work
B. Free Space view is a report in StorageScope, it is not a view in the Console
C. The ARM License is not installed
D. You have to install a Service Pack
Answer: C
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
Match the appropriate agent with the corresponding object that it manages.
Answer:
Question 8.
You are an administrator at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com is planning a ControlCenter 5.1.2 that must meet the following requirements:
Support for 12 medium size Symmetrix arrays.Storage Agents for Symmetrix on production hosts.Support for redundant Storage Agents for Symmetrix.WLA Archiver.
To meet these requirements, what is the minimum number of Symmetrix agents you should deploy?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 10
D. 6
Answer: B
Question 9.
What is the projected database space required for 1 Terabyte of scanned data when you are sizing the VisualSRM database server?
A. 1.3 GB
B. 0.5 GB
C. 0.8 GB
D. 3.5 GB
Answer: A
Question 10.
Within the ControlCenter Console, what are the four kinds of Workload Analyzer-related Data Collection Policies that you can configure and enable? (Choose four)
A. WLA Summary
B. WLA Revolving
C. WLA Analyst
D. WLA Daily
E. WLA Retention
F. WLA Scheduled
Answer: B, C, D, E
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Question 1.
How many Zone Sets can be Activated per Fabric using SAN Manager?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: A
Question 2.
In an environment with hosts already accessing devices, which three [3] tasks must be performed to add volume access to a host?
A. Add access to the new devices on the HBAs
B. Unmask the devices from the HBAs
C. Refresh the VCMDB
D. Initialize the VCMDB
E. Backup VCMDB
F. Commit the masking to VCMDB
Answer: A, B, E
Question 3.
How many Bytes in length is the Fibre Channel Address field?
NOTE: Type in your answer in digits (0, 12, 321, etc.). Do NOT spell out your answer (one, two, etc.).
Answer:
Answer: 3
Question 4.
Which item changes when a link is physically moved from one switch port to another?
A. World Wide name.
B. N_Port Physical address.
C. NAT Table address.
D. AL_PA Address.
Answer: B
Question 5.
What is the Hexadecimal address of the Name Server in a Fabric?
A. FFFFFE
B. FFFFFC
C. FFFFFF
D. FFFFFD
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which Protocol is characterized by distance, connectivity and speed?
A. Escon
B. Fibre
C. SCSI
D. Bus & Tag
Answer: B
Question 7.
Where do you find information about logged in ports?
A. Directory Server
B. Port Login Table
C. Name Server Database
D. Fabric Login Service
Answer: C
Question 8.
What is the correct command line syntax to upgrade a Connectrix MDS 9216 switch to firmware version 1.3.2a?
A. install all system bootflash:m9200-ek9-mz.1.3.2a.bin kickstart
bootflash:m9200-ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.2a.bin
B. install all bootflash:m9200-ek9-mz.1.3.2a.bin
bootflash:m9200-ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.2a.bin
C. install all kickstart :m9200-ek9-mz.1.3.2a.bin system
:m9200-ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.2a.bin
D. install all kickstart bootflash:m9200-ek9-mz.1.3.2a.bin system
bootflash:m9200-ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.2a.bin
Answer: A
Question 9.
What is the factory default user identification and password for logging into a B-Series switch?
A. user - admin password - password
B. user - admin password - admin
C. user - Administrator password - password
D. user - root password - root
Answer: A
Question 10.
To which device on a Connectrix Manager Service Processor does the automated backup of the d:\ECFM directory go to?
A. DVD drive
B. Zip Drive
C. Floppy drive
D. CDROM drive
Answer: B
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Question 1.
The customer activates a VSAN for a new open system environment on the MDS-series switch.
What is the EMC recommended default zoning policy for the VSAN?
A. Deny - allows all ports in default zone to communicate with on another
B. Permit - prevents all ports in the default zone from communicating
C. Permit - allows all ports in default zone to communicate with on another
D. Deny - prevents all ports in the default zone from communicating
Answer: D
Question 2.
What are two [2] key features of Storage Management Interface (SMI)?
A. Automated discovery system
B. Common interoperable and statically management transport
C. Manually discovery system
D. Common interoperable and extensible management transport
Answer: A, D
Question 3.
The redraw time of the alerts window pane in ControlCenter takes several minutes to complete.
What do you recommend to fix this problem?
A. Edit the Alert Data Collection Policies
B. Edit the Alert Definition
C. Edit the Alert Templates
D. Edit the Alert Data Retention
Answer: D
Question 4.
DRAG DROP
A customer has new DS-4100B switches. They want to turn on reporting levels of severity for messages.
Match the message to the corresponding severity level.
Answer:
Question 5.
Your company is planning to convert seven DS-32B2 standalone fabrics to a single full ISLs?
A. 112
B. 14
C. 84
D. 28
Answer: C
Question 6.
A customer has implemented a DR site 200 km away. They have an extended fabric configured between the SAN directors at each site, using a 62.5 MB/sec network infrastructure. They want to replicate mission critical data with a RPO objective of 60 seconds using SRDF and the existing SAN infrastructure.
What do you recommend to help them meet their objective?
A. They cannot meet these objectives using the existing environment
B. Add additional ISL bandwidth between directors
C. Add extended buffer credit licenses to all directors
D. SRDF/A for data replication
Answer: D
Question 7.
Exhibit:
When reviewing the print out of the trunking log in the exhibit you see the ISL rerouting.
How many ISL connections are between Domain ID 5 and Domain ID 6?
A. 5
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: B
Question 8.
A company is replacing some M-series switches with new M-series directors. They will be replacing one for one, and want the least amount of disruption for their AIX and HP-UX boxes by maintaining their D_IDs.
How do they do this?
A. Set the same domain IDs as the old switches on the new directors
Set Insistent Domain_ID on new directors and turn it off on old switches
Move host and storage ports and merge
B. Set the same domain IDs as the old switches on the new directors
Set Insistent Domain_ID on new directors and turn it off on old switches
Reboot servers
C. Set the different domain IDs as the old switches on the new directors
Set Persistent Domain_ID on new directors and turn it off on the old switches
Move host and storage ports and merge
D. Set the same domain IDs as the old switches on the new directors
Disable Insistent Domain_ID on new directors and turn it off on old switches
Move host and storage ports and merge
Answer: A
Question 9.
Two MDS-series fabrics, Fabric X and Fabric Y will be merged. Fabric X has one switch
A. Fabric Y has three switches B, C and D. The four switches are configured as domain-id preferred. Among the four switches, A has the highest priority and least WWN, C has the lowest priority, and D is the current principle switch in Fabric Y. Assume both fabrics will be merged without any conflicts.
Which switch will be the principle switch after the merge?
A. Switch B
B. Switch A
C. Switch D
D. Switch C
Answer: C
Question 10.
What is a valid FCID for a node connected to a MDS-series director in a fabric consisting of MDS-series, B-series and M-series switches?
A. 0x441111
B. 0x663333
C. 0x552222
D. 0x330000
Answer: B
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Question 1. What information is required to create a new local user under the User section of the admin GUI? (Choose three.) A. authentication server B. user name C. password D. group name E. description Answer: A, B, C Question 2. You configure a user role to load a specific start page rather than the IVE bookmark page. What must you do to allow the user to access the page? A. Create a resource profile for the page to allow access. B. Create a resource policy for the page to allow access. C. Create a caching policy D. Do nothing, access is automatically granted. Answer: D Question 3. What is the purpose of Host Checker? A. to determine the security status of the remote machine B. to distribute software to the remote machine C. to capture sign-in credentials of the remote user D. to remove unwanted files from the remote machine Answer: A Question 4. Which two Terminal Services clients can be delivered automatically from the IVE to users? (Choose two.) A. Tera Term B. Windows Terminal Service C. SecureCRT D. Citrix ICA Answer: B, D Question 5. What are two features of J-SAM? (Choose two.) A. Map network drives using NetBios. B. Encapsulate dynamic UDP port client and server traffic. C. Encapsulate static TCP port client and server traffic. D. Support for only Windows, Linux, and Solaris platforms. Answer: A, C Question 6. Which three functions are performed by user roles? (Choose three.) A. defining user session parameters B. allowing access to specific services C. allowing access to types of services D. establishing session settings and options E. selecting user authentication methods Answer: A, C, D Question 7. Which User Role session option provides you with the capability to cache basic authentication information so users are not challenged repeatedly for the same credentials? A. persistent session B. roaming session C. persistent password caching D. browser request follow-through Answer: C Question 8. You receive an IVE from the factory. Which Web address should you access if you want to initially configure the device using a browser? A. You cannot initially configure the IVE from a browser. B. https://192.168.0.1 C. Obtain IP address using DHCP. D. https://192.168.1.1/admin Answer: A Question 9. Resource Profiles support creating policies for which two technologies? (Choose two.) A. network connect B. secure meeting C. Web applications D. terminal services Answer: C, D Question 10. What are two possible reasons for W-SAM not starting on the client? (Choose two.) A. Java is disabled in the Sign-in policy. B. ActiveX autoinstall is disabled in the role. C. A popup blocker is installed on the client machine. D. The user does not have administrator privileges on the machine. Answer: C, D
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