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Question 1.
Which two of these statements describe why Cisco offers the security solution with the lowest operational cost? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco ensures third-party integration.
B. Cisco is able to meet PCI requirements.
C. Cisco solves the broadest suite of threats.
D. Cisco maximizes training costs for the IT group.
E. Cisco has established partnerships with all key players.
Answer: C, E
Question 2.
How does preliminary technical discovery benefit the customer?
A. A technology strategy is presented to the customer.
B. Information regarding an existing customer network is analyzed, which allows an appropriate
solution to be developed.
C. The account team analyzes and validates the business requirements.
D. Detailed technical requirements are defined and documented.
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which security management offering helps customers to readily and accurately identify, manage, and mitigate network attacks and to maintain network security compliance?
A. Cisco Security Agent
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco NAC
D. Cisco Network Assistant
E. Cisco Security MARS
Answer: E
Question 4.
What is one way that Cisco Security can decrease customer implementation costs?
A. by using the existing infrastructure
B. through dedicated security appliances
C. through better security management products
D. by reducing the number of people to train
Answer: A
Question 5.
How does the Cisco ASA with the CSC module protect the network? (Choose two.)
A. It blocks incoming e-mail and web threats.
B. It guarantees regulatory compliance.
C. It prevents network intrusion with an IPS.
D. It provides VoIP enhancements.
E. It prevents loss of sensitive information with integrated antivirus protection.
Answer: A, E
Question 6.
How does security technology assessment drive continuous improvements?
A. by recommending remediation measures, such as optimizing device configurations, planning
capacity, and resolving quality issues
B. by assessing the current state of the customer operations
C. by assessing the realization of ROI and other benefits of the security system
D. by defining project milestones
Answer: A
Question 7.
Why do end users need to be aware of the security policy?
A. Some security decisions are usually in their hands.
B. They need to be aware of every threat.
C. They should avoid responsibility for their actions.
D. They should understand the probability of every risk.
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which two of these choices describe how the secure network access solution provides value to the customer? (Choose two.)
A. permits a man-in-the-middle attack
B. makes mobility more cost-effective
C. provides an unencrypted solution
D. reduces the amount of equipment
E. allows for secure Internet browsing
Answer: B, D
Question 9.
How does the Cisco SDN relate to compliance?
A. It is point product-based.
B. It uses anomaly detection to secure a device.
C. It addresses a large majority of PCI requirements.
D. It uses IP protocol 50 (ESP) to securely communicate to network devices.
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which Cisco solution provides host protection against security violations by focusing on the behavior of the device?
A. Cisco PIX Firewall
B. NAC Appliance
C. host Analyzer
D. Cisco Security Agent
E. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Which service is provided by Cisco SMARTnet?
A. investment protection with upgrade discounts
B. around-the-clock access to Cisco Technical Access Center
C. Cisco Learning Credits for IT staff development
D. service level agreements to ensure uptime requirements are met
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which service component within the prepare phase recommends the appropriate technology strategy to address a business requirement of the customer?
A. identifying what a customer requires from a proposed solution
B. analyzes the customers business requirements and recommends the appropnate Cisco
technologies to meet Business requirements
C. determining what end-user training a customer requires
D. addressing a customer's physical requirements
Answer: B
Question 3.
What best explains why the banking industry is ready to take advantage of an integrated network infrastructure?
A. Many banks are still connecting via dial-up.
B. Many banks need to consolidate departments and resources.
C. Many banks find themselves with an obsolete branch infrastructure
D. Many banks need back-office process streamlining.
Answer: C
Question 4.
A new client of yours is experiencing a growth spurt. The client's IT staff is making network changes manually and as a consequence, is extremely overworked.
You suggest the client implement a network management system, citing which important business benefit?
A. potential for outsourcing the IT staff
B. provision of an out-of-band management architecture
C. threat mitigation
D. reduction in network downtime
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which three of these service components are in the design phase? (Choose three.)
A. Account Qualification and Planning
B. Detailed Design Development
C. Staff Training
D. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development
E. Staging Plan Development
F. Site Readiness Assessment
Answer: B, D, E
Question 6.
Which three business requirements development activities are performed in the prepare phase before creating a technology strategy? (Choose three.)
A. identifying and assessing customer business requirements
B. documenting and categorizing customer business requirements in terms of performance,
availability, capacity and security.
C. producing a documented technology strategy
D. creating a bill of materials
E. presenting documented business requirements to a Customer and having the customer
validate them
F. completing a site survey
Answer: A, B, E
Question 7.
What is a Cisco industry initiative that uses the network infrastructure to enforce security policy compliance on all devices that are seeking to access the network?
A. Cisco Adaptive Threat Defense
B. Cisco Secure Access Control
C. Cisco Network Admission Control
D. Cisco Threat Defense System
Answer: C
Question 8.
Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series switches are attractive to medium-size campuses with growth opportunities due to the switches' enhanced security and which two other features? (Choose two.)
A. enhanced multilayer software image
B. connectivity to multiple types of WAN connections
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. QoS for converged networks
E. modular, customizable components
Answer: D, E
Question 9.
The Cisco UC520 provides integrated WLAN connectivity to mobile clients for which technology?
A. voice only
B. data only
C. Data and voice
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which three features does the Cisco UC520 support? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco unity Express
B. distributed routing
C. Storage Area Networks
D. analog devices
E. Telepresence
F- security firewall and VPN
Answer: A, D, F
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Question 1.
Which statement about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express and Cisco Unified Communications Manager is correct?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is router-based and scales up to 24000 users.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is server-based and Cisco Unified Communications
Manager Express scales up to 300 users.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express is router-based and Cisco Unified
Communications Manager scales up to 240 users.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is server-based and scales up to 24000 users.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express is router-based and Cisco Unified
Communications Manager scales up to 30000 users.
Answer: E
Question 2.
A company's mission is to support its customers' technical needs. Its consultants work from home or on site. They must often work in teams to exchange information about new products and implementations. Choose the Cisco Unified Communications tool, features, and functions that will best support this company's goal.
A. Collaboration, bringing together voice, video, and web conferencing
B. Contact Center solutions, delivering intelligent contact routing, desktop and telephony
integration, and multichannel contact management
C. Unified Messaging, delivering every voice, email, and fax message into a single inbox
D. Presence, providing information about consultants, such as availability and busy status
Answer: A
Question 3.
An operations manager compares the cost of upgrading their current system to the cost of implementing a fully-featured Cisco Unified Communications system. She objects that the upgrade may not be justifiable.
Which two responses would most likely best answer to this objection? (Choose two.)
A. Seamlessly integrating your current PBX infrastructure with a full IP solution is the best way to
Stay ahead of the competition.
B. A Unified Communications solution will reduce more toll charges than an IP-enabled PBX.
C. The scalability of Cisco Unified Communications solutions will enable you to stay a step ahead
of the competition.
D. Simply enabling the current system may not accomplish these business objectives.
E. Accommodating unplanned growth and customer-driven changes can best be addressed with
a distributed PBX solution.
Answer: C, D
Question 4.
What are two features of Cisco Unity Express? (Choose two.)
A. support for 12 languages
B. full-featured voice mail
C. IBM Lotus Domino or Microsoft Exchange message store
D. scalable performance
E. deployment flexibility
Answer: D, E
Question 5.
A large chemical company with a limited capital expenditure budget is considering a much-needed investment in a converged IP network but is having trouble justifying the initial costs to management.
Which solution would you recommend?
A. purchase
B. lease
C. Cisco Unity Unified Messaging
D. IP-enabled PBX
Answer: B
Question 6.
A potential customer requests a reliable, cost-effective method of monitoring and evaluating the quality of voice in Cisco Unified Communications solutions. This customer needs a tool which continuously monitors active calls supported by the Cisco Unified Communications system and provides near-realtime notification when the voice quality of a call, represented as end-user experience expressed by a Mean Opinion Score, fails to meet a user-defined quality threshold.
Which of the following tools should an account manager propose?
A. Cisco netManager Unified Communications
B. Cisco Network Analysis Module
C. Cisco Voice Provisioning Tool
D. Cisco Smart Care Services
E. Cisco Unified Service Monitor, which includes Cisco 1040 sensors
Answer: E
Question 7.
Read the customer objection and select the two best answers. (Choose two.) Telecommunications manager: Everyone knows that Cisco is good at data, but you simply do not have voice experience. None of your account managers, systems engineers, or professional service people truly understands the voice environment.
A. I understand your concern, especially because we are so well known for data. In addition to
our data experience, we are also very familiar with the voice environment. In fact, we helped
invent voice technology.
B. I am glad you brought that up! It is true that at one time, we were focused more on data than
on voice. Today, however, Cisco has a large percentage of employees with voice experience.
C. Thank you for mentioning that point. Because our focus is on QoS, which is currently not
supported by the Internet, people often believe that Cisco has no voice experience.
D. That is a valid concern, and I would like to address it. While it is true that we are strong in the
data arena, we are also actively and aggressively investing in staff voice skills, and also
recruiting the finest voice professionals in the market. The strength of our voice team has
brought us a great deal of respect in the marketplace.
Answer: B, D
Question 8.
Based on the scenario below, what is the primary need of the finance manager? Account Manager: Have you considered the potential TCO savings that you can achieve with a Unified Communications upgrade?
Finance manager: To some degree, yes, but it sounds like a big investment, not only in terms of technology, but even more so in terms of staff and maintenance.
A. reduce operational costs
B. automate financial reports
C. increase revenue
D. increase the flexibility of revenue projections
Answer: A
Question 9.
A Cisco customer has a management team, each member of which has a number of needs. Operations manager:
Improve order processes
Improve the ability to make accurate forecasts
Finance manager:
Reduce the TCO of the existing IP communications infrastructure
IT manager:
Improve network reliability
Streamline the delivery of end-user support
Which business need would be the primary Cisco Unified Communications solution sales driver?
A. reduce the number of employees
B. reduce operating costs
C. increase revenue generation
D. facilitate future expansion
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which of the following features could not be implemented with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express?
A. XML applications
B. Auto-attendant capabilities
C. Integrated messaging
D. Cisco Unified Presence
Answer: D
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Question 1.
An account manager is meeting with a customer who is interested in a Cisco IP Communications solution. The customer needs to support a variety of analog devices, voice mail, auto attendant, and 200 users.
Which solution should the account manager discuss with this customer?
A. a full Cisco CallManager solution
B. a full Cisco CallManager solution with Cisco Unity
C. Cisco CallManager Express
D. Cisco CallManager Express with Cisco Unity Express
Answer: D
Question 2.
One of your potential customers has concerns about choosing a Cisco IP Communications solution because, according to the competition, IP telephony solutions cost more than they are worth.
Which strategy would be most appropriate to defuse this concern?
A. Unlike traditional office environments where voice and data are separate, Cisco IP
Communications supports the idea of a converged network where the telephony and IP
components are integrated.
B. An IP-enabled PBX inevitably reaches a point called the golden phone, at which an addition
requires more than just a phone. In fact, it requires a card to support the phone, and possibly a
new shelf of a cabinet to house the card. These upgrades end up being very costly and offer
the customer no flexibility to implement nonproprietary solutions in the future.
C. With low operating and capital costs, a Cisco IP Communications deployment will pay for itself
in 18 months on average and will provide an average annual savings per user of US$334. The
drivers of the ROI are determined by the unique network circumstances of the customer, such
as the speed of migration, the remaining life on the PBX, and the extent of the data upgrade.
D. Cisco IP Communications solutions are based on tested and verified designs that ensure rapid
ROI. Cisco or its IP telephony specialized channel partners can also customize these solutions
to meet business demands and realize cost savings resulting from existing equipment or
applications.
Answer: C
Question 3.
Organizations that embrace Cisco IP Communications solutions are able to interoperate with existing TDM systems and applications, as well as support which two traditional telephony networking standards? (Choose two.)
A. QSIG
B. BGP
C. SIP
D. TDM
E. DPNSS
Answer: A, E
Question 4.
The IT manager from a prospective client organization explains that their network is overloaded. The network has been in use since 2002 with minimal upgrades, and is composed of several different devices from different vendors. E.mail is slow, the voice.mail system is outdated, and employee productivity and responsiveness are suffering.
Given this scenario, which business driver is most appropriate to sell a Cisco IP Communications solution?
A. reduce operating costs
B. increase revenue generation
C. facilitate future expansion
D. reduce the number of employees
Answer: A
Question 5.
You require an easy-to-use, web.enabled tool to demonstrate to a prospective customer the benefits of a converged network in terms of productivity enhancements and real estate savings.
Which tool should you use?
A. Cisco ROI analysis
B. Cisco CNIC
C. business case from the industry of the prospect
D. customized hurdle rate analysis
Answer: B
Question 6.
An account manager is meeting with a service provider that has installed Cisco CallManager Express at a large number of its subscriber sites. The customer wants to maintain and troubleshoot Cisco CallManager Express remotely.
Which Cisco CallManager Express feature makes this possible?
A. CiscoWorks VPN/Security Management Solution
B. Cisco Network Analysis Module
C. commanD.line interface
D. CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor
Answer: C
Question 7.
Which two baseline discovery questions would be most appropriate to ask an IT manager? (Choose two.)
A. in how many locations do you have Cisco routers deployed?
B. Would installing Cisco IP Communications Express with other business systems reduce the
complexity of your IP infrastructure?
C. How many platforms do you intend to use for call processing and voice mail?
D. Do you anticipate growth in the number of employees over the next few years?
Answer: A, C
Question 8.
A potential customer has several global offices, including one in North America, two in France, and one in Germany. This prospect is investigating cost-effective voice mail and auto attendant, and has asked for your recommendation.
What application would best meet the needs of the customer?
A. Cisco Unity Express
B. Cisco Unity
C. customized XML applications
D. Cisco CallManager
Answer: A
Question 9.
How does a converged solution work?
A. Voice traffic is carried over a circuit-switched network, and data traffic is carried on an IP
network
B. Voice, video, and data are integrated onto a single IP network.
C. The network is comprised of proprietary timE.division multiplexing hardware and circuits.
D. The LAN is used for data traffic, and the WAN is used to integrate voice and video traffic
Answer: B
Question 10.
You work as the network administrator at Certpaper.com. Certpaper has several global offices, including one in Britain, two in North America, and three in Asia. The company needs to investigate cost-effective voice mail and auto attendant, and has asked for your recommendation.
What application would best meet the requirements of the company?
A. Cisco Unity Express
B. Customized XML applications
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Cisco Unified CallConnector Mobility
Answer: A
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Question 1.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS002 as developing collateral. You have received instructions to make sure that the PictureBox control's properties cannot be changed with a logo that you have added to the PictureBox in the designer of the form base. Before the time you have added a form to the Microsoft Windows Forms Control Library project and add a PictureBox control to the form. The form is presenting CertKiller.com's logo.
What action should you take?
A. You should set the Locked property to False.
B. You should set the Locked property to True.
C. You should set the Modifiers property to Private.
D. You should set the Modifiers property to Protected.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When you set the Modifiers property to Private, the value will show that only the base form can modify the control.
Incorrect Answers:
A: You should not set it to False, because the control can be moved and resized.
B: If you set the property to True the control cannot be removed of resized. .
D: If you set the Modifiers property to Protected, the value will show that the base form and any of the form yet to come can modify the control.
Question 2.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS005 as developing collateral. You have just included a DateTimePicker control to a form. You then set the format property to Time. During the cause of the day, you check how the DateTimePicker control is working, and learnt that it does not allow the ITCertKeys.com users to change the selected time.
What should you do to change the control so that it will allow the ITCertKeys.com uses to change the selected time?
A. You should set the ShowUpDown property to True.
B. You should set the ShowSelectBox property to True.
C. You should set the Visible property to False.
D. You should set the Checked property to False.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The ShowUpDown property is by default set on False. You should set it on True. On False it will show the DateTimePicker must simulate a drop-down control. This setting will allow the users to set the MonthCalender. If it is set to True the users can select the time.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The ShowSelectBox will not resolve the problem. This will show if a CheckBox should be displayed on the DateTimePicker.
C: If you set the Visible property to False, it will hide the DateTimePicker. .
D: You should not set the Checked property to False. If this is set on True, a CheckBox control will be displayed on the DateTimePicker.
Question 3.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS002 as developing collateral. The manager of ITCertKeys.com wants to have a borderless form with the background shown in the exhibit.
When the form is view, the manager named Rory Allen does not want the maroon area to be visible. He only wants the blue to be visible when the form is displayed.
Which of the following code segments should be used?
A. this.TransparencyKey = Color.Maroon;
B. this.BackColor = Color.Maroon;
C. this.TransparencyKey = Color.CornflowerBlue
D. this.BackColor = Color.Transparent;
Answer: A
Explanation:
The TransparencyKey = Color.Maroon specify the color that the transparent represents the area on the form. With this setting the blue will respond to the mouse.
Incorrect Answers:
B: You should not use the BackColor = Color.Maroon. This will determine the background color of the form.
C: You should not use this code segment. The manager does not wan the blue area to be transparent.
D: You should not use the BackColor = Color.Transparent. The manager does not want the background to be transparent.
Question 4.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You have configured three columns to a form and add a TableLayoutPanel to the form. You want the two side columns to have a fix width of 200 pixels each and anchor the four edges of the form to the control. A ITCertKeys.com manager wants the center column to fill the remaining space, when ever the form is resized. You need to change the ColumnStyle instance that represents the center column?
How should you set the ColumnStyle instance's Size Type property?
A. Set it to AutoSize and the Width property to 100F.
B. Set it to Absolute and the Width property to 100F.
C. Set it to Percent and the Width property to 100F.
D. Set it to AutoSize and the Width property to 0F.
Answer: C
Explanation:
This setting will show that the column should fill the remaining space.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This setting will allow the column to be sized enough so that not any of its child controls are clipped. In this setting the middle will not occupy the remaining free space.
B: If you set it to Absolute, the value of the Width property will show the number of pixels for the column.
D: You need to set the ColumnStyle instance's Size Type property to AutoSize and the Width property to 100F.
Question 5.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You have added a SplitContainer control named ITCertKeysSplitContainer to a form. You then left the control to the default properties. To the right-most container of the SplitContainer control, you need to add a PropertyGrid.
Which of the following code segments should you use?
A. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
Panel rightPanel = [Panel] ITCertKeysSplitContainer.GetContainerControl[];
rightPanel.ControlAdd[porpertyGrid];
B. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
Panel rightPanel = [Panel] ITCertKeysSplitContainer.GetNextControl[propertyGrid, true];
rightPanel.ControlAdd[porpertyGrid];
C. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
ITCertKeysSplitContainer.Container.Add[propertyGrid, "RightPanel"];
D. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
ITCertKeysSplitContainer.Panel2.Control.Add[propertyGrid];
Answer: D
Explanation:
An area can be divided into two containers, which is separated by a movable bar, if you use the SplitContainer control. When the two Panels are created, the left one is the Panel1 and the right is Panel2. You are adding a panel so it will be on the right. You then need to specify Panel2.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, C: You should not use the Add method of the SplitContainer.Container to add the PropertyGrid. You also should not pass a PropertyGrid instance to the GetNextControl method to return a Panel instance. This will actually retrieve the next tab-ordered control given the current control. You also should not call the GetContainerControl method to return a Panel instance. This will return the logical container of the SplitContainer control.
Question 6.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You are busy to develop a Microsoft Windows Forms exam delivery application. This is going to be used to access the content of the exam via the Internet. A WebBrowser named testbrowser is added to the control to a form named ITCertKeysForm, which is define as follows:
[PermissionSet[SecurityAction.Demand, Name="FullTrust"]]
[System.Runtime.InteropServices.ComVisible[true]]
public ITCertKeysForm : Form
{
public ITCertKeysForm[]
{
InitializeComponent[];
}
public void Expire[]
{
}
}
The JavaScript-based timer that is used by the Web site for the exam has a function to inform the exam delivery application when the time has expired for the exam, which is the following:
window.external.Expire[];
What should you do to make sure that the Expire method of ITCertKeysForm is called when the JavaScrip function is carry out?
A. You should set the Document.DomDocument property of the browser instance to the current
instance of the ITCertKeysForm class.
B. You should set the ObjectForScripting property of the browser instance to the current instance
of the ITCertKeysForm class.
C. You should call the AttachEventHandler of the Document property of the browser instance.
D. You should call the ExecCommand method of the Document property of the browser instance.
Answer: B
Explanation:
You must set the ObjectForScripting for the browser instance to the current instance of the ITCertKeysForm class.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The property of the Document.DomDocument represents the true DOM object of an HTML document.
C: The AttachEventHandler allows you to attach a HTML Document Object Model event to an event handler.
D: The ExecCommand method allows you to execute commands against DOM documents.
Question 7.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS003 as developing collateral. You have received instructions to make sure that the PictureBox will display dynamically loaded images.
Which property will display a static image if any dynamic image fails to load?
A. BackgroundImage
B. Image
C. ErrorImage
D. InitailImage
Answer: C
Explanation:
The ErrorImage property specifies the image that should be displayed. This will happened only if the image that you are trying to load dynamically fails.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The BackgroundImage property specifies a background image which is used by the control.
B: The Image property specifies the image you want the PictureBox control to display.
D: The InitailImage specifies the image you want the PictureBox control to display while the other one is loading.
Question 8.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You are developing a Web service for new updates to query automatically, by use of a Microsoft Windows Forms application. You then add a NotifyIcon component named ITCertKeysnotify to the application's main form. Whenever a new update is available you want the following balloon tip to display as seen in the exhibit for 5 seconds.
Which segment should you use to write a code to download the updates if the users click the balloon tip?
A. ITCertKeysnotify.BallonTipClick +=delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
ITCertKeysnotify.ShowBallonTip[5000, "New Update Available"; "Click here to download"
, ToolTipIcon.Info];
B. ITCertKeysnotify.ShowBallonTip[5];
ITCertKeysnotify.BalloonTipIcon = ToolTipIcon.Info;
ITCertKeys.Balloon TipTitle = "New Update Available";
ITCertKeys.BalloonTipText = "Click here to download";
ITCertKeys.Click += delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
C. ITCertKeysnotify.BalloonTipIcon = ToolTipIcon.Info;
ITCertKeys.Balloon TipTitle = "New Update Available";
ITCertKeys.BalloonTipText = "Click here to download";
ITCertKeys.Click += delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
ITCertKeysnotify.ShowBallonTip[5000];
D. ITCertKeysnotify.ShowBallonTip[5, New Update Available", "Click here to download",
ToolTipIcon.Info];
ITCertKeys.BalloonTipClick += delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
Answer: A
Explanation:
You should use an event handler, attach the BalloonTipClicked to the event and call the ShowBalloon Tip method of the NotifyIcon class. When a user clicks a balloon tip, a BalloonTipClicked event is raised.
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: You should not attach the BalloonTipClicked even to an event handler after you have called the ShowBalloonTip method. Also note that the event is raised when the icon is clicked and not the balloon tip.
Question 9.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You are busy adding a MenuStrip control, which has an instance of a ToolStripMenu item named testjobItem, to a form in a Microsoft Windows Forms application. This item's display text is Job. You have received instructions to add two menu items to the Job menu item. The first item's display text should be Create New Job, and the second one is Run Job.
Which code segment should you use to programmatically add the two menu items?
A. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
jobItem.Container.Add[createNewJobItem];
jobItem.Container.Add[runJobItem];
B. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
jobItem.Owner.Items.Add[createNewJobItem];
jobItem.Owner.Items.Add[runJobItem];
C. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem[] items = new ToolStripMenuItem[]{create NewJobItem,
runJobItem}
jobItem.DropDownItems.AddRange[items];
D. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem[] items = new ToolStripMenuItem[]{create NewJobItem,
runJobItem}
jobItem.Owner.Items.AddRange[items];
Answer: C
Explanation:
For the jobItem instance you should call the AddRange. The property of the DropDownItems represents a collection of child items of the jobItem instance, which allows you to add the two items to the job menu item.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This property returns an instance of IContainer, which represents a logical container for other components.
B: The Owner property returns the Menu script instance that owns the ToolStripMenuItem instance.
D: This action will add the two new menu at the same level as the Job menu item.
Question 10.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS050 as developing collateral. You were busy with a task to add a ContextMenuStrip control to a form.
What should you do to display a custom control as a menu item of the ContextMenuStrip control?
A. Add a ToolstripContainer control to the form and add the custom control to the Controls
collection residing on the toolStripContainer control. You should then add the ContextMeniStrip
control to the controls of the ToolStripContainer control.
B. Of ToolStripControlHost, create an instance and specify your custom control instance as a
parameter to the conductor. You should then the ToolStripControlHost instance to the Items
collection of the ContextMeniStrip control.
C. Add a ToolstripContainer control to the form and add the custom control to the Controls
collection residing on the toolStripContainer control. You should then add the
ToolstripContainer control to the controls of the ContextMeniStrip controls.
D. Of ToolStripControlHost, create an instance and specify your custom control instance as a
parameter to the conductor. You should then the ContextMeniStrip controls to the collection of
the ToolStripControlHost instance.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The ToolStripControlHost class to host a custom control as a menu item in the ContextMeniStrip. You should also the custom control instance as the parameter to the constructor.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D: The ToolstripContainer should not be used to reach your goal. Furthermore, you cannot host a ToolstripContainer control as the menu item in a ContextMeniStrip controls.
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Question 1.
Which action can an administrator take to disable data integrity on a central store containing pre-existing data that is signed?
A. Re-sign the data with the signing tool
B. Unsign the data with the Data Integrity node in the console
C. Use the CTXSIGNDATA -u command prompt
D. Use the CTXUNSIGNDATA -u command prompt
Answer: C
Question 2.
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. One of your administrators in an environment with multiple operating systems is considering the implementation of the Hot Desktop feature.
On which two operating systems can the administrator install Hot Desktop? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Windows NT 4.0
B. Microsoft Windows XP Professional (64-bit)
C. Microsoft Windows XP Embedded
D. Microsoft Windows XP Professional (32-bit)
Answer: C, D
Question 3.
Which statement is true regarding the Password Manager Self-Service Registration Wizard?
A. Each time the user starts his or her device, the wizard opens.
B. The wizard provides a demonstration of the product.
C. After a user enters the required enrollment information, the wizard will never appear again.
D. If a user closes the wizard without entering any information, the wizard will appear when the
agent software is restarted.
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which step is required after installing the agent software and why?
A. Run the Microsoft installer package with the suppress option so that the graphical identification
and authentication (GINA) DLL can be installed.
B. Restart/refresh the device so that the graphical identification and authentication (GINA) DLL
can be installed.
C. Restart/refresh the device so that licensing parameters can be applied.
D. Run the Microsoft installer package with the suppress option so that licensing parameters can
be applied.
E. Upgrade the central store, because otherwise you can only use previous versions of the agent
software to work with the central store.
Answer: B
Question 5.
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. One of your administrators has a .NET application where the Control IDs are not statically defined and each time the application launches, the Control IDs change.
How should an administrator configure this application in a Password Manager 4.5 environment according to Citrix best practice?
A. Define the application using Send Special Keys instead of Control IDs
B. Enable Advanced Settings >> Use control ordinal numbers
C. Create a special Application Action Extension for the application
D. Enable application auto-detection within a user configuration
Answer: B
Question 6.
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. One of your administrators wants to install and configure the Password Manager Service. The configuration requires a Server Certificate from the company Certificate Authority, which is a server in the same domain as the Password Manager Service server. The Administrator will also have to correctly install the certificate components in order to facilitate SSL communications between the Password Manager Service and its clients.
What must be installed for the successful completion of the configuration?
A. The Certificate Authority root certificate wherever a client of the Password Manager Service is
installed
B. The Certificate Authority root certificate as needed by the Password Manager Service Client
C. A separate user certificate wherever a client of the Password Manager Service is installed
D. The Server Certificate on the Certificate Authority machine
Answer: A
Question 7.
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. One of your administrators created an application definition and wants to test the password change for the application. Everything is working until the administrator selects "Create Your Own Password" in the Password Change Wizard. The administrator types "111" and confirms the password. The application returns a message that the password is not accepted because a minimum of 8 characters, including letters and numbers is required.
Which two steps can an administrator complete in order to solve this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Verify that the password policy for this application requires 8 characters, including letters and
numbers.
B. Verify that a form definition for Failed Password Change was created and that this form
requires 8 characters, including letters and numbers.
C. Select choose a system-generated password in the Password Change Wizard when you test
the password change function.
D. Verify that the correct password policy was assigned to this application definition within the
user configuration.
Answer: A, D
Question 8.
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. One of your administrators in an environment with multiple operating systems is considering the implementation of the Hot Desktop feature.
On which two operating systems can the administrator install Hot Desktop? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Windows NT 4.0
B. Microsoft Windows XP Professional (64-bit)
C. Microsoft Windows XP Professional (32-bit)
D. Microsoft Windows XP Embedded
Answer: C, D
Question 9.
Which user account requires rights and privileges to manage communication among the central store, automatic key recovery, and the Self-Service module?
A. Self-Service
B. Data proxy
C. Automatic key recovery
D. XTE Service
Answer: B
Question 10.
In ITCertKeys.com, 15 laptops are used by the remote workforce for field work. Password Manager is installed and named user licensing is implemented on the laptops. One laptop is currently missing and its named user license is checked out.
Which statement is true regarding the process for checking in the named user license of the missing laptop?
A. The administrator will need to restart the license server or restart the Citrix Licensing Service.
B. The administrator will need to use the LMCONFIG -r command on the license server and
indicate the hostname of the affected laptop.
C. The license will be checked in automatically once it expires.
D. The administrator will need to use the License Return function in the License Management
Console and indicate the hostname of the affected laptop.
Answer: C
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Question 1. When granting the system privilege, which clause enables the grantee to further grant the privilege to other users or roles? A. PUBLIC B. WITH PRIVILEGE C. WITH ADMIN OPTION D. WITH GRANT OPTION Answer: C Explanation: When granting the system privileges to a user WITH ADMIN OPTION will enable the grantee to further grant system privileges to other user or roles. Question 2. Which statement about organizing tablespaces and segments is true? A. You should mix segments with short and long life spans in the same tablespace. B. You should keep good control over space allocation and define storage limits for users. C. You should use the autoextend feature on tablespaces that have a high update, delete, and insert activity. D. Data that is accesses by multiple users should be stored in tablespaces that reside on the same disk for easier management. Answer: B Explanation: Storage parameters affect both how long it takes to access the data stored in the database and how efficiently space in the database is used. During organizing tablespaces and segments, space allocation and storage limits defined by the storage parameter should be given a good value to get control over space allocation. Question 3. From the data dictionary you know that user A has profile TEST_PROF assigned, and the IDLE_TIME resource shows default as its value. What does this mean? A. The actual limit depends on the setting in the profile called DEFAULT. B. User A can stay connected to the database without ever being automatically disconnected. C. The limit can be influenced only at the instance level by setting an initialization parameter. D. A database administrator using the ALTER SYSTEM command can set the limit. Answer: A Explanation: The DEFAULT values specify that this profile is subject to the limit for this resource as specified in the default profile. As in the situation the IDLE_TIME will be limited or have a value equal to value defined in the default profile. Question 4. Which statement about using PCTFREE and PCTUSED is true? A. Block space utilization can be specified only at the segment level. B. Block space utilization cab be specified only in the data dictionary. C. Block space utilization parameters can only be specified at the tablespace level. D. Block space utilization can be specified both at the tablespace level and at the segment level. Answer: A Explanation: PCTFREE is the amount of space reserved in the block for a possible update in the rows that already are contained in that block. After a PCTFREE is met the block is considered full and is not available for further growth of rows or insertion of new rows.PCTUSED: when a block has dropped below its PCTUSED quota oracle add the block to the free list for further insertion. Block space utilization can be specify for a segment by specifying a value for the PCTFREE and PCTUSED Question 5. Which two dynamic performance views could you query to display the number of online redo log groups and the current log groups? A. V$LOG B. V$THREAD C. V$SESSION D. V$ARCHIVE E. V$INSTANCE Answer: A & B Explanation: V$LOG and V$THREAD are the two dynamic performance views that can be queried to display the number of online redo log groups and current redo log group. Question 6. MINEXTENTS must be at least _____when a rollback segment is created. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5 Answer: B Explanation: MINEXTENTS must be at least 2 for a rollback segment when rollback segment is created. Question 7. All members of the current online redo log groups are not available. Which action does Oracle take? A. The instance crashes. B. The instance writes to the next online redo log group. C. The instance hangs until the DBA switches the redo log file. D. The instance hangs until the DBA restart the archive process. Answer: A Explanation: If all member of current online group become in accessible to the LGWR as they are being written, the database instance immediately shutdown. In this case you may need to perform media recovery from the loss of an online redo log file. Question 8. Which view displays the NLS initialization parameters that have been explicitly set? A. NLS_SESSION_PARAMETERS B. NLS_INSTANCE_PARAMETERS C. NLS_DATABASE_PARAMETERS D. V$NLS_INSTANCE_PARAMETERS Answer: B Explanation: NLS_INSTANCE_PARAMETERS view will display NLS values set in the initialization parameter file init.ora. Question 9. Before a DBA creates a transportable tablespace, which two conditions must be completed? A. All indexes are disabled or dropped. B. The target system has precreated the tablespace. C. The target system is in the same operating system. D. The target system is in the same block size system. E. The tables containing nested tables are contained in the same tablespace. Answer: C & D Explanation: Tablespace can be transported from one database to another but Both the databases should be in the same operating system and the source and target database should have the same database block size. You can use transportable tablespace feature to move subset of an oracle database and plug it into another oracle database, essentially moving tablespace between the databases. Its is fastest way to move data between database than the export/import and unload/load. Question 10. When you created a tablespace, you overestimated the size of one of the datafiles. Several objects were stored in the datafile. Some, but not all of the objects were dropped subsequently. To which point will you be able to decrease the size of the datafile? A. To zero. B. To the size of the datafile header. C. To the last block of the last object. D. It is not possible to decrease the size of the datafile. Answer: C Explanation: A DBA can correct errors in estimates of space requirements and reclaim unused space in the database. Use the following command to manually decrease the size of datafile. ALTER DATABASE DATAFILE file_name RESIZE integer[k/m]; It will decrease the size of the data file but the size cannot be decrease below the last block of last object.
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