|
Question 1.
What does the password represent in the Sensor's identification window when one uses SSH in IDS MC for Sensor access?
A. It represents the pass phrase to access the Sensor's public key
B. It represents the pass phrase to access the Sensor's private key
C. It represents the password of user account to access the Sensor
D. It represents the pass phrase to access the IDS MC server's private key
E. It represents the password of user account to access the IDS MC server
Answer: B
Explanation:
The sensors private key is stored on the server (12-7) using the sensor's hostname as the key filename.
The sensor's public key is being copied to the sensor (12-8).
Reference:
Cisco Courseware 12-3
Question 2.
Which of the following protocols is used by the Monitoring Center for Security to monitor alarms on the IDS Sensor?
A. SSH
B. RDEP
C. IDAPI
D. Post Office
E. SSL
Answer: B
Explanation:
A) SSH Wrong
B) RDEP only for the IDS appliance Version 4.x
C) IDAPI Wrong
D) Post Office only for the IDS appliance Version 3.x
E) SSL Wrong .
The test is not specifying the version 3.X that means version 4.X the right answer is B Cisco Press CSIDS Self-Study Second Edition Earl Cater
Page 607, 608 and 610
Question 3.
Which of the following protocols is utilized by the Monitoring Center for Security to monitor alarms on an IDS Sensor?
A. SSH
B. RDEP
C. XML
D. SSL
E. IDAPI
F. Post Office
Answer: B
Explanation:
Devices using RDEP to communicate with Security Monitor and Security Agent MC servers can show the following one of the following statuses:
Connected TLS-A secure connection has been established.
Connected non-TLS-(RDEP devices only) A connection that does not use Transport Layer Security (TLS) has been established.
Not Connected-A connection with the devices has not been established
Question 4.
IDS MC version 2.0 communicates with a sensor using which two methods? Choose two.
A. HTTP
B. SSH
C. RDEP
D. Telnet
E. FTP
Answer: B, C
|
Question 1.
You need to propose the most cost-effective licensing solution for Courseware Publishers.
What should you do? (Choose TWO.)
A. Propose that the company obtain user client access licenses (CALs).
B. Propose that the company obtain device client access licenses (CALs).
C. Propose that the company obtain Windows Server 2003 licensed in Per User mode.
D. Propose that the company obtain Windows Server 2003 licensed in Per Server mode.
Answer: B, D
Question 2
You need to propose the best licensing solution for Courseware Publishers.
What should you do?
A. Propose license acquisition through an Open Business agreement.
B. Propose license acquisition through an Open Volume agreement.
C. Propose license acquisition through a Select License agreement.
D. Propose license acquisition through an Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) channel.
Answer: A
Question 3.
You are busy sorting out the licensing for the computers at Courseware Publishers. You need to determine which computers at Courseware Publishers are qualified desktops.
Which of the following would be qualified desktops?
A. All computers and mobile devices.
B. All computers that the company uses for work purposes and are able to run enterprise
products.
C. All computers that are bought by the company during the term of its licensing agreement.
D. All computers that are running a Microsoft Windows operating system.
E. Not the computers that are running as a server, computers running line-of-business software
only, and systems running an embedded operating system.
Answer: B, E
Question 4.
The owner of Courseware Publishers wants to know which license agreement offers downgrade rights in case the company wants to downgrade CP-SR01.
What would you reply?
A. All agreements on Select License agreements, Open License agreements and Software
Assurance agreements.
B. Only Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) licenses.
C. Small Business Server Client Access Licenses and Open License agreements.
D. User client access licenses, Open License agreements and Software Assurance agreements.
Answer: A
Question 5.
The Courseware Publishers CEO wants to know what the main factors are that would require the company to change its licensing acquisition process.
What would you reply?
A. Budget considerations and licensing management concerns.
B. The upgrading to Windows Server 2003.
C. The need to hire two additional full-time employees and licensing management concerns.
D. The upgrading to Windows Server 2003 and Access 2003 and the desktops to Office 2003
Professional.
Answer: A
Question 6.
Should Courseware Publishers acquire license through an Open Business agreement that includes Software Assurance, how much time will the company have to renew only the Software Assurance agreement once the Open Business agreement expires.
A. 10 days after the Open Business agreement expires.
B. 60 days after the Open Business agreement expires.
C. 90 days after the Open Business agreement expires.
D. 2 months after the Open Business agreement expires.
E. 6 months after the Open Business agreement expires.
Answer: C
Question 7.
You need to propose a licensing solution for City Central, Inc.
Which of the following issues would you need to resolve before you can propose a license solution?
A. Are there any remote or mobile users?
B. How much does the company want to spend?
C. What version of Exchange Server is currently in use?
D. For which products does the company have a Software Assurance agreement?
E. What third-part software is the company using?
Answer: A
Question 8.
You want to implement a license agreement that would allow City Central, Inc to standardize the client computers without activating them.
What should you do?
A. Obtain licenses and Software Assurance for the Windows XP Professional and Office 2003
Professional.
B. Obtain licenses and acquire a Software Assurance agreement from an Original Equipment
Manufacturer (OEM).
C. Obtain a Software Assurance agreement for the client computers.
D. Obtain a Services Provider Licensing Agreement (SPLA) to run Windows XP Professional and
Office 2003 Professional.
Answer: B
Question 9.
Should Clive Wilson replace the client computers in the Marketing department with new client computers from an Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) channel with Windows XP Professional and Office 2003 Professional preinstalled, what would be the most suitable licensing solution for all client computers at City Central, Inc?
A. Obtain licenses and Software Assurance agreements for the Windows XP Professional
upgrade and Office 2003 Professional for the client computers in the Recruitment and the
Sales departments.
B. Obtain licenses and Software Assurance agreements for Office 2003 Professional for the
Marketing department's new client computers.
C. Obtain licenses and Software Assurance agreements for the Windows XP Professional and
Office 2003 Professional upgrade for the client computers in the Sales department.
D. Obtain Software Assurance agreements only for the Marketing department's new client
computers.
E. Obtain Software Assurance agreements only for the client computers in the Recruitment
department.
Answer: A, D
Question 10.
Which of the following server solutions would you recommend at the end of three years?
A. Obtain another server running the latest version of Small Business Server.
B. Obtain a suitable Transition Pack and Transition Client Access Licenses (CALs).
C. Obtain additional Small Business Server Client Access Licenses (CALs).
D. Obtain a new Small Business Server license and appropriate client access licenses (CALs).
Answer: B
|
Question 1: When setting up a new actual cost finished good item, which of the following accounts should be set up if both material and labor data will be collected for the item? Choose the 2 that apply. A. WIP - Material B. Standard Cost Revaluation C. WIP - Labor D. Variance - Material Answer: A, C Question 2: In MO Schedule Prefs you're setup to Apply Shrinkage to End Item Starting Quantity. Additionally end item X has shrinkage of 50% as setup in Item Resource Planning. If you enter a regular manufacturing order for a quantity of 10 units of item X, what will be your start quantity on a manufacturing order? A. 10 B. 25 C. 15 D. 20 Answer: D Question 3: In which window is a default site defined? A. Item Vendors Maintenance B. Item Resource Planning C. Item Quantities Maintenance D. Item Engineering Answer: C Question 4: Item A has a bill of material (BOM) structure set up with the components, BOM amounts, and standard costs as Item X, 2, $5.00 and Item Y, 4, $10.00. The current standard material cost for Item A is $50.00. If the cost for Item X is changed from $5.00 to $7.00 in the Standard Item Material Costs window, what is the new standard material cost for Item A, once a complete rollup and revalue is done? Item X is a bought item. A. $50.00 B. $38.00 C. $57.00 D. $54.00 Answer: D Question 5: What is the purpose of the Revaluation Security Set field in the Costing Preference Defaults window? A. Without this field entered, inventory cannot be revalued B. To remove record locks in the Standard Cost Changes window C. To make it less likely that inventory will be revalued accidentally D. To remove record locks in the Roll Up and Revalue Inventory window Answer: D Question 6: Which statement best describes Low Level Codes? A. Number of Bill of Materials this item is located on B. The lowest level at which an item resides in any bill of material C. Number of sub-assemblies included on a finished good D. Number of sites assigned to an item Answer: B Question 7: To use the Sales Configurator, what type of bill of material must be set up for the finished good? A. Engineering Bill Of Material B. Super Bill Of Material C. Configured Bill Of Material D. Phantom Bill Of Material Answer: B Question 8: The list of manufacturing orders suggested by MRP can be found in which of the following windows? Choose the 2 that apply. A. MRP Inquiry B. Edit MO Status C. Purchase Request Resolution D. MRP Pegging Answer: B, D Question 9: Which window would you use to roll up costs when a new item has been created? A. Roll up and Revalue Inventory B. Standard Cost Changes C. Item Engineering D. Item Maintenance Answer: B Question 10 If an item can be used as a substitute for one of the components required to manufacture another item, what window is used to make this entry? A. Item Engineering B. Item Resource Planning C. Item Maintenance Options D. BOM Entry Answer: D
|
Question 1 Which of the following fields are required when creating an item? Mark all that apply. A. U of M Schedule B. Item Description C. Price Group D. Default Accounts Answer: A,B Question 2 In which of the following situations can a purchase order be created in the Sales Transaction Entry window? Mark all that apply. A. An item on an order has a quantity to back order B. An item is defined as a drop-ship item on an order C. An item hasn't been allocated yet on an order D. An item exists on a back order document Answer: A,B,D Question 3 When activating Purchase Order Commitments in the PO Enhancements window, how many budget IDs can be used for each year to verify that the purchase is not over budget? A. 4 B. 1 C. 3 D. 2 Answer: B Question 4 Which of the following is a characteristic of an expired quote? A. The system will issue a warning that the quote is expired, but can still be transferred to an order or invoice. B. The quote amount will be increased by a percentage defined in Sales Order Processing Setup. C. The quote is automatically removed from the Sales Transaction Entry window. D. The quote cannot be transferred to an order or invoice. Answer: D Question 5 What setups are required in other modules prior to using Sales Order Processing? Mark all that apply. A. Account Numbers in General Ledger B. Items in Inventory C. Setup in Purchase Order D. Customers in Receivables Management Answer: A,B,D Question 6 For this sale only, the customer would like the goods shipped to a "one time only" address. If the address hasn't been created what is the most efficient way to change the "Ship To" address for this document only? A. With the document open in Sales Transaction entry, change the default site ID. B. With the document open in Sales Transaction entry, open the customer expansion button, zoom back to the customer master "Ship To" address and change the address. C. With the document open in Sales Transaction entry, open the customer expansion button and select another existing address ID on the "Ship To" field. D. With the document open in Sales Transaction entry, open the customer expansion button and change the address under the "Ship To" address expansion button. Answer: D Question 7 Which of the following are valid transactions in the Item Transfer Entry window? Mark all that apply. A. Item transferred from Inventory to Bill of Material for manufacturing B. Item transferred from the NORTH site to the SOUTH site C. Item transferred from the NORTH site, with a quantity status of On-Hand, to the SOUTH site, with a quantity status of Damaged D. Item transferred from a quantity status of On-Hand to Damaged Answer: B,C,D Question 8 A item is entered on a quote with the following quantities: Qty Quoted: 10, Qty to Invoice: 0, Qty to Order: 10. What is the result when transferring the quote to an invoice? A. An order is created for 10 items. B. An invoice is created for 10 items. C. The quote remains with 0 items. D. The quote remains with 10 items. Answer: D Question 9 You can enter Purchase Order Processing returns against which of the following? A. Cancelled Purchase Orders B. On- Hold Purchase Orders C. Drop-ship Purchase Orders D. Inventory receipts Answer: D Question 10 Which of the following are item types? Mark all that apply. A. Sales Inventory B. Flat Fee C. Finished Good D. Kit Answer: A,B,D
|
Question 1 Which role is necessary in order to add or remove users in Business Portal for use with Project Time and Expense? A. Administrator B. Employee C. Back Office user D. Manager Answer: A Question 2 Which of the following is NOT a level in the project hierarchy? A. Customer B. Phase C. Contract D. Cost Category Answer: B Question 3 Which of the following posting distributions are NOT available for Fixed Price or Cost Plus projects? A. Overhead B. Billings in Excess of Earnings C. Unbilled Project Revenue D. Unbilled Accounts Receivable Answer: C,D Question 4 Which of the following is a valid reason the Total Accrued Revenue field at the bottom of the Timesheet entry window would be zero? A. All timesheet line items are set to 'N/B'. B. All projects entered on the timesheet are either Cost Plus or Fixed Price. C. The Billing Rate field was not added to the Timesheet entry window. D. All projects have rate tables assigned and the employee profit type has a billing rate of $50 an hour. Answer: A,B Question 5 Which of the following statements accurately represents a difference between Personal Data Keeper and Project Time and Expense for Business Portal? A. Project Time & Expense for Business Portal may be used to approve expenses but Personal Data Keeper cannot. B. Only Personal Data Keeper uses web services to interface with SQL server. C. Only Personal Data Keeper timesheets can be entered in a week based format. D. In Time & Expense for Business Portal employees must be assigned to a project before they can enter a timesheet for it. Answer: D Question 6 How many Revenue Recognition Cycle IDs can be assigned to a project? A. As many as has been created for each transaction type. B. Unlimited C. One D. None Answer: C Question 7 What is the billing type for transactions entered without a project number? A. Non-billable B. Billable C. No Charge D. Standard Answer: A Question 8 Which of the following describes system security in Personal Data Keeper? A. You must have a system password, but it does not have to be 'access'. B. There is no system password capability in Personal Data Keeper. C. You must have a system password and it must be access. D. A system password is optional in Personal Data Keeper. Answer: A Question 9 Time and Materials projects can NOT use which of the following posting distribution types? A. Overhead B. Work in Progress C. Project Loss D. Earnings in Excess of Billings Answer: C,D Question 10 Segment overrides may NOT be performed on which of the following segments? A. Last B. First C. All segments may be overridden. D. Main Answer: D Question 11 In order to install Project Time and Expense for Business Portal, which of the following must be true? A. The installer must be a Microsoft Business Solutions master certified technician. B. The system must have registered Payroll applications. C. The installer must be a user in Great Plains. D. The installer must have administrator rights to the SQL server being used. Answer: D
|
Question 1. Which command will upgrade UniData from a previous release without performing a new install? A. updatesys B. udtupdate C. udtinstall D. ud61.install Answer: A Question 2. Which command is used to place an existing trigger routine name in the file header of an existing file? A. CREATE.TRIGGER B. TRIGGER.CREATE C. TRIGGER.ENABLE D. CREATE.FILE.TRIGGER Answer: A Question 3. Dynamic hashed files make it possible to A. eliminate the possibility of corruption B. eliminate the need for any maintenance on the file C. eliminate level 2 overflow since blocks split at 80% full D. create logical files that circumvents a system file limit Answer: D Question 4. What method can a UNIX administrator use to avoid providing the entire path when using the 'ECL LOGTO' command? A. Put an entry in udtconfig. B. Create an entry for the account in UD.ACCOUNTS. C. Create an entry in the VOC that points to the directory. D. Create a symbolic link in $UDTHOME that points to the account's directory. Answer: D Question 5. In which file would the data records of a dynamic hashed file named WORKSITES be stored? A. In a part file called idx001 B. In a part file called dat001 or over001 C. In an OS file (not an OS directory) named WORKSITES D. In a part file called RECORDS in the WORKSITES OS directory Answer: B Question 6. Which option describes the information found in an entry of the UniData part table 'parttbl'? A. Size of each 'part file' B. The amount of reserved space on each file system C. The split and merge percentages for this part file D. Maximum number of 'part files' a dynamic file can expand to Answer: B Question 7. Which 'udtconfig' parameter contains the size of a shared memory segment to store globally cataloged programs? A. SHM_PGM_SIZE B. SHM_MAX_SIZE C. SBCS_SHM_TBL D. SBCS_SHM_SIZE Answer: D Question 8. On UniData for UNIX, installation script answers are kept in which file? A. install.scr B. install.hist C. install.param D. install.config Answer: C Question 9. Which tool provides detailed file statistics about all records in a file? A. guide B. showud C. verify2 D. GROUP.STAT Answer: A Question 10. Administrators will inspect and possibly adjust which two related parameters (kernel and udtconfig) in response to the error 'Error on creating a shared memory segment (size=xxx), errno=xxx'? A. UNIX kernel shmem and UniData SHMEM B. UNIX kernel SEMMNU and UniData SEMMNU C. UNIX kernel shmmax and UniData SHM_MAX_SIZE D. UNIX kernel SHM_PG_SIZE and UniData SHM_GN_TBLS Answer: C Question 11. Which file is required to establish a directory as a UniData account? A. VOC B. bin C. BASIC D. __VVTERMCAP Answer: A
|
Question 1.
What is the most effective way to construct and organize the resource pools?
A. define several pools all managed by the same group of managers
B. define the resource pool construct to reflect the practical concerns of the organization
(geographical, organizational or virtual) to reflect the customers cross-functional requirements
C. create a single resource pool managed by several managers
D. create resource pool placeholders ad-hoc since resources can only be added to pools
Answer: B
Question 2.
For a given portfolio of projects, RPM allows creation of different scenarios with different conditions for a scenario analysis (What-If).
What is the main purpose of this scenario analysis?
A. to calculate new start and finish dates for remaining assignments based on resource
availability, project priority and scenario start dates and assess the impact on the overall
schedule, cost and resource utilization
B. to calculate effort for each project to assess if there are enough resources available to
accomplish scenario finish dates
C. to calculate new start and finish dates across projects, proposals, and deliverables to assess
resource availability and profit performance over time
D. to calculate effort for each project to compare with their profiles and assess the resource
allocations and schedule feasibility
Answer: A
Question 3.
What happens when a new scope element is created and this element type has an associated default workflow?
A. If the user does not have security permissions to start a workflow, an error message appears.
B. The default workflow process starts automatically.
C. The default workflow process starts automatically and no other workflow can be started for this
element.
D. Only the default workflow is available to be started.
Answer: B
Question 4.
As the deployment manager you are preparing to set up the resource pool structure.
Before you set up the structure, what should you do to reduce the effort necessary to add resources to the pools?
A. construct a pool description form to facilitate resource data entry
B. define all the possible languages used to describe resources as well their international
readiness
C. configure the default security groups and system-wide layouts
D. request the password list for each resource
Answer: C
Question 5.
How are Project and Resource Managers roles considered in the Fast Track and Standard deployment offerings?
A. They do not differ and are treated the same in both types of offerings.
B. Both roles are considered separately in Fast Track and Standard offerings.
C. Standard deployment combines both roles whereas Fast Track considers them separately.
D. Fast Track combines both roles whereas Standard deployment considers them separately.
Answer: D
Question 6.
Assuming the use of Time & Expense licenses, how would you enable team members to access attached documents in their assigned tasks?
A. You include a Documents portlet in Tasks Description view layout, accessible from Timesheet
view.
B. A Time & Expense license does not allow document access.
C. You grant them Can View Documents permission.
D. Through a workflow, you include the resources as workflow participants, in a role that can
access documents.
Answer: B
Question 7.
Why is a user with appropriate security rights and layouts unable to access the Portfolio Viewer from the Work Management view?
A. There is no direct access to the Portfolio Viewer from Work Management. The user should go
to My Portal to access it.
B. The root portfolio folder cannot be used to launch the Portfolio Viewer.
C. The user has not installed the correct version of RPM client.
D. Projects and proposals under the selected portfolio do not have information to display in the
Portfolio Viewer.
Answer: B
Question 8.
During project execution, a resource changed the value of EETC. For this value to be considered for percentage complete calculations, the _____.
A. resource must submit the timesheet
B. Project Manager must approve the EETC
C. timesheet must be approved
D. Project Manager must view the revised EETC
Answer: B
Question 9.
A particular workflow includes two voting steps.
When can the workflow initiator close the workflow?
A. when at least the first voting step has a response
B. when all of the voting steps have a response from all participants
C. anytime, regardless of the state of any of voting steps
D. when none of the voting steps have a response
Answer: C
Question 10.
What is the best way to formalize a monthly approval process of project status?
A. create a mail group inside RPM with the approvers and send notification to them at the end of
each month asking for a response about project status
B. create a task in your WBS called Status Review Meeting, assign required resources and set
the contour so the task will occur monthly
C. create a workflow process under the Project Element, including a voting step with a layout to
review and responses to approve the status, and schedule this workflow to run monthly
D. create a formal document and attach it to the project at the end of each status meeting, with
comments and relevant meeting information
Answer: C
|
Question 1. What question will help prevent defining a use case that is too small? A. What common behavior does this use case have with other use cases? B. What steps will an actor perform in this use case? C. What goal does an actor achieve with this use case? D. How does this use case fit into the overall structure of the system? Answer: C Question 2. Given: A developer is creating a use-case model for telephone installations. One of the sub-flows in the "Manage Installer's Schedule" use case displays an installer's schedule for a whole day. The client for whom the system is being built wants to add a new feature that allows a dispatcher to optionally display mileage between phone installation locations. Instead of modifying the "Manage Installer's Schedule" use case, the developer decides to create a new use case called "Display Mileage." What relationship should be created between the "Display Mileage" use case and the "Manage Installer's Schedule" use case? A. Include B. Generalization C. Modify D. Extend Answer: D Question 3. What are the advantages of the use-case approach over traditional development approaches? A. Use cases give context to requirements B. Use cases identify all stakeholders C. Use cases visualize constraints D. Use cases represent the user's perspective Answer: A,D Question 4. What question helps identify the actors in software requirements? A. Who will be using the system? B. Who will be paying for the system? C. What subsystems will be in the system? D. Who will be designing the system? Answer: A Question 5. Which statements are TRUE regarding a use case? (Select all that apply.) A. A use case is an isolated part that provides a piece of functionality for the system to be built. B. A use case describes actions the system takes to deliver something of value to the actor. C. A use case contains functional software requirements. D. A use case models a dialog between the system and its surroundings. Answer: B,C,D Question 6. What does a supplementary specification include? A. <> and < > relationships associated with a particular use case B. Use-case diagram for the entire system C. Non-functional requirements associated with a particular use case D. Non-functional requirements associated with the entire system Answer: D Question 7. Refer to the exhibit below. What are the three types of relationships in this use case? A. X includes, Y generalization, Z extends B. X extends, Y generalization, Z includes C. X extends, Y includes, Z generalization D. X generalization, Y includes, Z extends Answer: A Question 8. Given: Consider the following set of initial user requests from a telephone company about a new customer service system: * The telephone company customer service system shall be able to record and answer questions about telephone installations. * When a customer requests a new telephone, the service representative shall record the customer's name, address, assigned phone installer, and a projected time of the installation. * After installation is complete, start time and duration of installation are recorded. * Start time shall include the year, month, day, hour, and minute. What is the most appropriate name for one of the use cases in this software system? A. Schedule phone installation B. Update phone installation database C. Phone installation D. Record start time Answer: A Question 9. What is an actor? A. Role a person or thing plays when interacting with the system B. Anyone who will purchase the system C. Anyone who has a vested interest in the outcome of the system D. Role a tester plays when testing the system Answer: A Question 10. What does a post-condition describe? A. One way that a use case can end B. State of the system after the use case ends C. Last non-functional requirement D. Last step in the basic flow of events Answer: B
|
Question 1. Which of the following actions can you complete using the clearlicense command? (Select all that apply) A. Enable license auditing B. Release a license C. Report on current license use D. Add new license Codes E. Grant licenses to priority users Answer: B, C Question 2. The cleartool casts command will display the configuration record of a build object. A. True B. False Answer: B Question 3. Which command allow a user to obtain command syntax help from the command prompt? (Select all that apply) A. cleartool subcommand -help B. cleartool -help subcommand C. cleartool help subcommand D. cleartool subcommand help Answer: A, C Question 4. What is the length of the default timeout period on a ClearCase license? A. 15 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 120 minutes Answer: C Question 5. ClearCase for UNIX supports remote storage pools for derived object and cleartext pools. A. True B. False Answer: A Question 6. What cleartool command do you use to list the derived objects created by clearmake? A. diffcr B. catcs C. catcr -flat D. lsdo E. ls - la Answer: D Question 7. Can a snapshot view's view.dat file be moved to a network server host without ill effects? A. Yes B. No Answer: B Question 8. A user can change from write access to read-only access on a checked-out version by issuing the cleartool protect ugo.w command. A. True B. False Answer: B Question 9. How does a derived object inherit its pool assignment? A. From the file element that created the first-level target B. From the directory where the executable is versioned C. From the directory where the target was built D. From the derived object assignment tables Answer: C Question 10. Which operation (s) require the registry password? (Select all that apply) A. Change the registry password B. Change a private VOB to a public VOB C. Remove a public VOB D. Create a public VOB Answer: B, D Question 11. What is the effect of using cleartool chpool on a file element? (Select all that apply) A. For cleatext pools, future versions will be put in the new pool. B. For source pools, future versions will be put in the new pool. C. For cleartext pools, all versions are moved to the new pool. D. For source pools, all versions are moved to the new pool. Answer: A, D
|
Question 1. ITCertKeys.com is deploying six servers, each with dual Fibre Channel HBAs, located 200 meters away from a 2109-F16 IBM TotalStorage SAN Switch at the main site. At the secondary site, located two kilometers away, there will be a second 2109-F16 with four disk storage subsystems within 200 meters. Each disk storage subsystem has dual Fibre Channel interfaces connected to the 2109-F16. The switches are connected via dual ISL connections. In total, how many long-wave and short-wave transceivers are required for this configuration? A. 4 long-wave and 20 short-wave B. 4 long-wave and 24 short-wave C. 16 long-wave and 8 short-wave D. 20 long-wave and 4 short-wave Answer: A Question 2. A corporation is planning the installation of an IBM TotalStorage SAN File System (SFS). The specialist is taking a survey of the types of storage subsystems that will be attached to the SFS. What should the specialist use in configuring the SFS to utilize the different types of storage? A. Hardware zoning B. LUN Masking C. Partitioning D. Policies Answer: D Question 3. ITCertKeys.com needs to connect seven servers to an IBM SAN that currently has IBM FAStT disk installed. The customer expects a steady growth rate for their SAN capacity requirements. In the future, they want to consolidate other non-IBM storage into their SAN. What IBM TotalStorage solution offers the most flexibility in their data center? A. The IBM 2146 TotalStorage SAN Integration Server B. The IBM 2145 TotalStorage SAN Volume Controller C. The IBM 3534 TotalStorage SAN Switch D. The McDATA Sphereon 4500 Switch Answer: B Question 4. ITCertKeys.com wants to connect sixty Microsoft Windows database servers to an IBM TotalStorage Enterprise Storage Server (ESS) Model F20 via a switched fabric. Which of the following is the primary performance consideration? A. Can the ESS provide enough bandwidth for the applications? B. How fast are the processors in the servers? C. How many switches will be in the SAN? D. What RAID level is on the ESS? Answer: A Question 5. In order to link data centers on campus, ITCertKeys.com is considering using a number of existing 400-meter fiber optic cables. The installation will require multiple patch panels/cables. Which of the following is the most critical factor for the installation that must be taken into account? A. Bandwidth B. Dense Wave Multiplexing C. Signal loss D. I/O rate Answer: C Question 6. A Microsoft Windows 2000 server attached to an IBM TotalStorage SAN Switch (2109) is trying to access two identical storage devices that are correctly attached to the switch. The server can access storage on one of the devices but not the other. What should be done to evaluate the problem? A. Check to see if the server got through Fabric Login successfully. B. Check cable connection on the server. C. Check microcode level of server HBA. D. Check that the storage device is configured with a LUN #0 defined. Answer: D Question 7. All of the following statements are benefits of a SAN environment EXCEPT: A. A server can be added with minimal disruption of services. B. A storage device can be added with minimal disruption of services. C. Storage subsystems can be shared by different types of servers. D. Data security is enhanced. Answer: D Question 8. ITCertKeys.com needs to add 2 TB of useable disk storage to their SAN. They require RAID 1 or RAID 10 disk arrays to meet their performance needs. They will implement remote copy to a disaster recovery site 10 kilometers away. They expect to have over 100 source volumes to copy. Which of the following solutions would best meet this customer's needs? A. IBM TotalStorage SAN Volume Controller with the HDS 9920 B. IBM TotalStorage FAStT600 Turbo Storage Server C. IBM TotalStorage FAStT900 Storage Server D. IBM TotalStorage SAN Volume Controller, with the IBM ESS or IBM FAStT Answer: D Question 9. A SAN proposal has been accepted by both the UNIX administrator and the storage administrator. However, the Windows administrator is unconvinced. Which of the following previous actions should have been taken to help ensure that the Windows administrator would accept the proposal? A. Involved a sponsor at a higher level in the company B. Upgraded the Windows NT servers to Windows 2000 C. Obtained the support of the network administrator D. Included services in the proposal Answer: A Question 10. ITCertKeys.com's enterprise has various systems and storage technologies and applications installed. Customer executives, end-user divisions, and I/T support have attended an IBM sponsored e-business on demand briefing. Vendors have been asked to do ITCertKeys.com presentation and each has been provided one hour. What should IBM present to provide direction during the scheduled time? A. IBM TotalStorage Open Software Family B. IBM TotalStorage SAN File System C. IBM Tivoli Offerings D. IGS Outsourcing options Answer: A Question 11 Which of the following situations would be a good IBM TotalStorage networking implementation opportunity? A. The customer has elected not to use IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Managed SAN. B. The customer is experiencing explosive disk storage growth. C. The customer's direct-attached storage subsystem capacity must be increased D. The customer's direct attached tape drives throughput is inadequate. Answer: D
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.