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Please upload latest dump-1z0-132 thanks in advance. Rgd, maj. karamat
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Question 1.
You work as the desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com management wants all client computers to be installed with Microsoft Office 2007.
There are 500 client computers on which you need to deploy Microsoft Office 2007. To this end you create a network installation point. Now you need to ensure that additional Office 2007 components are installed while deploying Office 2007 from the network installation point.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose TWO.)
A. Install the additional components on the ITCertKeys.com client computers manually using the
Microsoft Office 2007 Installation CD.
B. Configure a customized installation that includes all the additional components using the Office
Customizing Tool (OCT).
C. Create a setup Customization file (MSP) and store it in the Patches folder on the network
installation point.
D. Store resulting MSP file in the Updates folder located on the network installation point.
E. Install the additional components on the ITCertKeys.com client computers using the Group
Policy Editor and configuring the appropriate group policies to run from the network installation
point.
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
You should make use of OCT to configure a customized installation and the MSP files should be stored in the Updates folder that is located on the network installation point. This is the recommended method. By default the Office 2007 Setup performs a typical installation that does not include all components of Office 2007.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Installing additional Office 2007 components on all the ITCertKeys.com client computers using the installation CD will work, but it is not the correct approach since it will be time consuming and is not the recommended approach.
C: You should not store the MSP file in the Patches folder. You should rather place it in the Updates folder.
E: Using group policy will not help you to install additional Office 2007 components on client computers from a network installation point. You can however use it to prevent user intervention during Office 2007 installation.
Question 2.
You work as the desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com management wants all client computers to run Microsoft Office 2007 with English and Russian as the language environment. You need to comply with the management requirements and must ensure that the ITCertKeys.com users will not be able to permanently modify the language settings.
What should you do?
A. Make use of a Setup Customization file (MSP file).
B. Make use of the Language Settings tool.
C. Make use of group policies to enforce language settings.
D. Make use of Proofing tools.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Group policies can be used to enforce default language settings which will prevent users fro permanently modifying language settings.
Incorrect Answers:
A: An MSP file is used to specify the default language settings and can be created using the OCT, but it will not prevent users from modifying the language settings permanently.
B: The Language Settings Tool will not prevent users from permanently modifying the language setting. Rather it is used to change language settings while working with Office 2007 applications.
D: Proofing tools allows users to edit Office 2007 documents in multiple languages. It will definitely not help to prevent users from permanently modifying the language settings.
Question 3.
You work as the desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com management wants all client computers to be installed with Microsoft Office 2007. You want the Microsoft Office 2007 installation to be automated to all the client computers. To this end you:
1. create an Office 2007 network installation point
2. create an Office2007 folder on a server named ITCertKeys-SR01
3. then you share Office2007
You then make use of the Office Customization Tool (OCT) to create a Setup Customization file (MSP file) named Auto.msp. You then continue to save Auto.msp in the Automate folder which is located in the network installation point. All that is required now is that you must specify a fully qualified path to Auto.msp and thus need to run the appropriate Setup command line.
Which of the following Setup command line options should you run?
A. \\ ITCertKeys-SR01\Office 2007\Setup.Exe /Adminfile
\\ ITCertKeys-SR01\Office2007\Updates\Auto.Msp
B. \\ ITCertKeys-SR01\Office 2007\Setup.Exe /Adminfile
\\ ITCertKeys-SR01\Automate\Auto.Msp
C. \\ ITCertKeys-SR01\Office 2007\Setup.Exe /Adminfile
\\ ITCertKeys-SR01\Office2007 \Automate\Auto.Msp
D. \\ ITCertKeys-SR01\Office 2007\Setup.Exe /Adminfile
\\ ITCertKeys-SR01\Updates\Auto.Msp
Answer: C
Explanation:
When the MSP file is created, the file is stored in the Updates folder at the root of the network installation point. If you do not save the MSP file in the Updates folder, you need to specify a fully qualified path to the MSP file. Also if you are using a folder other than Updates folder to save the MSP file, you can also specify its location in the Config.xml file.
Incorrect Answers:
A: \\ ITCertKeys-SR01\Office 2007\Setup.Exe /Adminfile
\\ ITCertKeys-SR01\Office2007\Updates\Auto.Msp is the incorrect syntax to use. When you
use the Updates folder to save the MSP file, there is no need to specify a fully qualified path to
the Auto.msp file.
B: \\ ITCertKeys-SR01\Office 2007\Setup.Exe /Adminfile
\\ ITCertKeys-SR01\Automate\Auto.Msp would be incorrect as it would not specify a fully
qualified path to the Auto.msp file. Also the setup command-line is not complete because you
also need to specify the shared folder name where you have creates the Automate folder.
D: \\ ITCertKeys- SR01\Office 2007\Setup.Exe /Adminfile
\\ ITCertKeys-SR01\Updates\Auto.Msp is incorrect. You must specify the complete and correct
syntax to specify a fully qualified path to the file.
Question 4.
You work as the desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com management wants all client computers to be installed with Microsoft Office 2007. You have been instructed to carry out management orders. To this end you are in the process of deploying Microsoft Office 2007 to the ITCertKeys.com client computers. You thus need to install Office 2007 on client computes from a single distribution point and need to decide on the first step in the process.
What should you do?
A. First create an Office 2007 distribution point. Then create a MSP file and store it in the
Updates folder located at the root of the Distribution point.
B. First share the CD-ROM drive on the server and insert the Office 2007 Installation CD and
install Office 2007 from the shared CD-ROM drive.
C. First configure the Config.xml file to deploy Office 2007 to all client computers from a single
distribution point.
D. First create a shared folder. This folder must be accessible to all client computers then copy
the installation files from the Office 2007 Installation CD.
Answer: D
Explanation:
you first need a shared folder that is accessible from all client computers on the network. Then you should copy the installation files from the Office 2007 Installation CD. Then you will be able to run the Setup on the client computers from the shared folder.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Creating an MSP file and storing it in Updates at the Office 2007 distribution point will not help to install Office 2007 from a single distribution point. If you want to install Office 2007 updates as part of the Office 2007 installation process, then you should create a MSP file that includes the updates and store it in the Updates folder.
B: Sharing a CD-ROM drive is a very inefficient way of deployment; it is not the recommended method to deploy Microsoft Office 2007 to all client computers from a single distribution point.
C: The Config.xml file is located in the product folder. In Microsoft Office Standard 2007, this particular file of located on the Standard.WW folder. The Config.xml file is used to identify products and language you want to install on client computers from a single distribution point.
Question 5.
You work as the desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com management instructed you to deploy Microsoft Office 2007 on the ITCertKeys.com client computers. You want the Microsoft Office 2007 installation to be automated all the client computers as well as ensuring that the installation will run quietly on all client computers without displaying a user interface during the installation.
What should you do?
A. Use the Office Customization Tool (OCT) to create a Setup Customization file (MSP file) and in
the OCT Setup section set the Display Level to None.
B. Use the Office Customization Tool (OCT) to create a Setup Customization file (MSP file) and in
the OCT Setup section set the Display Level to Basic.
C. Use the Office Customization Tool (OCT) to create a Setup Customization file (MSP file) and
in the OCT Setup section set the Display Level to Suppress modal.
D. Use the Office Customization Tool (OCT) to create a Setup Customization file (MSP file) and
in the OCT Setup section set the Display Level to Full-default.
Answer: A
Explanation:
While creating the MSP file, the Setup section of OCT will prompt you to specify a number of options such as installation, location, organization name, product key, and display level. If you set the Display Level to None, the Office 2007 installation will run quietly without displaying a user interface. The resulting MSP file should then be placed in the Updates folder in the installation share.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Setting the Display Level to Basic will result in the user being prompted to enter the product key and end-user license agreement as well as displaying the progress bar and completion notice.
C: The Suppress modal option is not part of the Display Level option. And also it should only be selected if you do not want any error messages to be displayed during the installation of Office 2007.
D: Setting the Display Level to Full-default will run Office 2007 installation interactively and will definitely display all user interfaces and messages during the installation process.
Question 6.
You work as the desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com staff is divided into two distinctive departments namely Sales and Human Resources. You created a network share, \\ ITCertKeys01\share\Office2007, for the Microsoft Office 2007 installations. You then customized the setup files for the Sales and Human Resources departments. You then created the Sales.msp and HR.msp files and stored them in a folder in the \\ ITCertKeys01\share\installation folder. After several installations were performed from the installation point, Amy Walsh, a Human Resources user informed you that the installations from the installation point have failed. You investigate the issue and discovered that a number of files were missing at the installation point. You need to ensure that such a problem will not happen again.
What should you do?
A. All source folders access should be marked as read-only.
B. All users from the Administrators group on their local computers should be excluded.
C. The Sales.msp and HR.msp files should be removed from the network share and copied to the
users' desktops.
D. The \Office2007 folder should have read-only permissions and the Sales.msp and HR.msp
files should have read-write permissions.
Answer: A
Explanation:
If you do not mark the installation point as read-only, then users will have privileges such as to delete contents within the installation point. Also when defining the installation point, you should not define it in the root of the server. It is mentioned in the question that the installation folder is defined in the \share folder. You will need to create the .msp files as per your requirements. You can then use the Office Customization Tool to customize the installation files which need to be present in the root folder of the server.
Incorrect Answers:
B: If you exclude the users belonging to the Administrators group on their local computers, then they will be unable to perform the installation.
C: To enable the users to initiate the installation from the installation point, you actually need to copy the customized .msp files to a folder in the installation point. Thus you should not remove the .smp files from the network share and then copy them to the users' desktops.
D: Both files are .msp source files and as such need to be secured from modifications. This means that it should be set to read-only and not read-write.
Question 7.
You work as the desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com staff is divided into two distinctive departments namely Sales and Human Resources. Management decided to have Microsoft Office 2007 deployed on all the client computers but the Sales department should only have Microsoft Word and Microsoft Excel installed while the Human Resources department should only have Microsoft Word and Microsoft Access installed. You thus need to create a separate Setup Customization file (MSP file) for each department and place them in the Updates folder. Now you need to decide which settings should be modified when creating the MSP files to meet the Management's requirements.
What should you do?
A. Go to the Office Customization Tool (OCT) Features section and then modify the feature
installation states.
B. Go to the Office Customization Tool (OCT) Features section and then modify the user settings.
C. Go to the Office Customization Tool (OCT) Setup section and then modify the Add installations
and run programs section.
D. Go to the Office Customization Tool (OCT) Setup section and then modify the Setup
properties.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The features installation states in the Features section of OCT should be modified. You are allowed to choose from four installation states: Run from My Computer, Run all from My Computer, Installed on First Use, and Not Available. When you need to install only particular applications of Office 2007 on particular client computers, you should set the installation state for that particular application to Not Available. When running the installation you need to specify the proper MSP file for each department in a batch file.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The user settings in the Features section of OCT help one to set the default values of Office application settings. It will not help you to meet the management requirements.
C: The Add installations and run programs section of the Setup section of OCT will not help you to meet the management requirement. It will rather help you to run specific programs before or after Office 2007 installation is complete.
D: The Setup properties of the Setup section of OCT will help you to customize setup properties while performing the Office 2007 Installation. It will not help to meet the ITCertKeys.com management requirements.
Question 8.
You work as the desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. There are 300 client computers on the ITCertKeys.com network. The ITCertKeys.com management wants all these client computers to be upgraded to Microsoft Office 2007. Currently the client computers are configured with Microsoft Windows XP Professional Service Pack (SP) 1 and running Microsoft Office 2003. You need to ensure that the migration process from Office 2003 to Office 2007 is done with the least amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. The Office Migration Planning Manager (OMPM) File Scanner Tool should be installed on all
Windows XP Professional SP1 client computers.
B. The Windows XP Professional SP1 computers should be upgraded to Windows Vista.
C. The Version Extraction Tool (VET) should be installed on the Windows XP Professional SP1
client computers.
D. Service Pack 2 should be installed on the Windows XP Professional SP1 client computers.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Office 2007 cannot be installed on Windows Professional SP1 client computers. You first need to install Windows XP Professional SP 2. Only then will the migration process be with the least amount of administrative effort.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The OMPM File Scanner Tool is used to scan files for conversion issues. If you plan to migrate from Office 2003 to Office 2007, you should install OMPM File Scanner tool to check for the compatibility of files, but it is not a requirement.
B: The minimum system requirement to install Microsoft Office 2007 is Windows XP SP2 operating system. This upgrading to Windows Vista would be more administrative effort in this scenario.
C: VET is used to extract previous versions of Microsoft Word 2003 files to a different file format. It is not necessary for performing a migration.
Question 9.
You work as the IT technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. You responsibilities at ITCertKeys.com includes the management of the Microsoft Windows XP computers. Currently the majority of the ITCertKeys.com client computers are configured with Microsoft Office 2003 and some are running Microsoft Office XP. You make use of Microsoft Office 2007. You know that there are a few key differences between the file formats of Office XP, 2003 and 2007. You need to ensure that all the ITCertKeys.com users will be able to make use of the documents that you create in Office 2007.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose TWO.)
A. The Office XP client computers should be upgraded to Office 2003 and then to Office 2007.
B. Office Compatibility Pack should be installed on the Office XP client computers.
C. The Office 2003 client computers should be upgraded to Office 2007.
D. Office Compatibility Pack should be installed on the Office 2003 client computers.
E. The Office XP and 2003 client computers should be upgraded with the latest service packs.
F. Office Compatibility pack should be installed on your computer.
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
To ensure that all users will be able to open the documents that you created in Office 2007 you will need to install the Office Compatibility Pack on the Office XP and 2003 client computers.
Incorrect Answers:
A: You need to install Office Compatibility Pack on the Office XP client computers to enable them to use the Office 2007 created documents.
C: You need to install Office Compatibility Pack on the Office 2003 client computers to enable them to use the Office 2007 created documents
E: Installing the latest service packs on the Office XP and 2003 client computers will not enable them to open, read, edit, etc. files that were created in Office 2007.
F: There is no need to install the Office Compatibility Pack on an Office 2007 computer. It is the Office XP and 2003 client computers that need to be installed with the Office Compatibility Pack. They are the one that will require the ability to open files that will be created in Office 2007.
Question 10.
You work as the desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. There are 300 client computers on the ITCertKeys.com network. Thirty percent of these client computers are configured with Microsoft Office 2007 and seventy percent still runs Microsoft Office 2003. Currently there are documents that were created in Office 2003 that are to be used by users working in Office 2007 and vice versa. You must ensure that all users will be able to use their required documents. You need to decide on which feature to enable so as to ensure that Office 2007 documents can be converted to a form that can be used by previous versions of Microsoft Office.
What should you do?
A. Use the Compatibility mode Microsoft Office 2007 feature.
B. Use the Compatibility checker Microsoft Office 2007 feature.
C. Use the Compatibility pack Microsoft Office 2007 feature.
D. Use the Feature refresh Microsoft Office 2007 feature.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Compatibility mode ion Office 2007 ensures that Office 2007 created documents can be converted to forms that can be used by previous versions of Office. The Microsoft Office 2003 created documents are completely compatible in the compatibility mode in Office 2007 whether they be Microsoft Word, Excel or PowerPoint documents.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The Compatibility checker is used to detect features not available in previous versions of office.
C: The Compatibility pack is used to enable Office 2003 clients to read and edit Office 2007 documents, but it cannot be used to ensure that Office 2007 created documents can be converted. Also the Compatibility pack is installed on computers that run previous versions of Office.
D: The Feature refresh feature does not provide for the conversion of Office 2007 created documents. Instead it allows features changed by Compatibility mode to be available again while opening a document in Microsoft Word 2007, PowerPoint 2007, or Excel 2007.
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Question 1.
The use of PIM as a multicast routing protocol provides for which one of the following services?
A. Authentication
B. Guaranteed Delivery
C. Device Security
D. Preventing packet forwarding loops
E. Preventing Denial of Service attacks
Answer: D
Question 2.
An end station receiving a broadcast packet will always process the data up to which layer of the OSI stack?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
E. Layer 7
Answer: C
Question 3.
Choose the answer that best completes the statement: An end station on an Ethernet network receiving an IP multicast packet will:
A. Determine at Layer 1 if it is interested in the frame
B. Determine at Layer 2 if it is interested in the frame
C. Determine at Layer 2 after reading the protocol ID field if it is interested in the frame
D. Determine at Layer 3 if it is interested in the frame
E. Determine at Layer 7 if it is interested in the frame
Answer: B
Question 4.
Which of the following are characteristics of the one to many model of multicast data delivery? (Choose two)
A. Receivers are generally unknown by the source
B. Well suited for applications in which the receivers provide feedback to each other and the
source
C. There is a single data flow, from the source to the receivers
D. All devices are potentially capable of generating multicast data
E. Receivers are generally known by each other since any receiver may be a source
Answer: A, C
Question 5.
The OUI field of the MAC address for IP multicast frames is:
A. 00-01-5e
B. 01-01-53
C. 01-01-5e
D. 01-00-5e
E. 01-00-53
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which MAC address will multicast address 224.128.0.1 translate to?
A. 01-00-5e-80-00-01
B. 01-00-5e-22-41-40
C. 01-00-5e-22-28-01
D. 00-01-5e-80-00-01
E. 01-00-5e-00-00-01
F. 01-01-5e-22-28-01
Answer: E
Question 7.
Which two of the following addresses should not be used in a multicast network at the same time?
A. 233.44.12.35
B. 234.45.12.35
C. 235.46.12.35
D. 236.174.12.35
E. 237.171.12.35
Answer: C, D
Question 8.
Which MAC address will the IP multicast address 239.33.42.107 translate to?
A. 01-00-5e-a1-2a-6b
B. 01-00-5e-21-2a-6b
C. 01-00-5e-21-2c-6c
D. 00-01-5e-a1-2a-6b
E. 00-01-5e-21-2a-6b
F. 01-01-5e-a1-2a-6b
Answer: B
Question 9.
What is the range of addresses allocated for SSM?:
A. 239.0.0.0/8
B. 233.x.y.0/24
C. 224.0.0.0/24
D. 232.0.0.0/8
Answer: D
Question 10.
How many bits of the IP multicast address are copied directly to the multicast MAC address?
A. 27
B. 5
C. 28
D. 9
E. 23
Answer: E
Question 11.
Which protocol uses multicast address 224.0.0.22?:
A. PIM version 1
B. IGMP version 2
C. OSPF
D. IGMP version 3
E. PIM version 2
Answer: D
Question 12.
Which two of the following addresses should not be used in a multicast network at the same time?
A. 224.192.12.35
B. 235.182.12.35
C. 226.172.12.35
D. 237.138.12.35
E. 238.64.12.35
Answer: A, E
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Question 1. Which technical development allowed the deployment of IP protocol features at any point in the network? A. The invention of ATM B. The IP enabling of the DSLAM C. The usage of IP in the home network D. The usage of an IP enabled BSA Answer: B Question 2. The Alcatel 7302 ISAM is typically located in: A. The customer home B. The Serving Area Interface (SAI) C. The provider Central Office (CO) D. The videoheadend Answer: C Question 3. The Broadband Service Access Node (BSAN) may be: A. The Alcatel 7330 FTTN ISAM B. The Alcatel 7342 FTTU ISAM C. Neither (a) or (b) D. Both (a) and (b) Answer: D Question 4. Why does the RG operate as a DHCP server? A. As a local backup in case the provider DHCP server is unreachable B. The subscriber may choose to manage their own IP addresses C. The RG will never operate as a DHCP server D. To assign IP addresses to the internal home devices when operating in routed mode E. To assign IP addresses to the internal home devices when operating in bridged mode Answer: D Question 5. What are the minimum requirements for the Residential Gateway? Choose 2. A. NAT support B. Support Routed and bridged mode C. Multicast (IGMP) support D. Support IP packet filtering E. Be able to terminate multiple access mediums Answer: A, C Question 6. The internal BSAN architecture is composed of which of the following? A. Line Termination (LT) portion and a Network Termination (NT) B. Link Termination (LT) portion and a Node Termination (NT) C. Link Termination (LT) portion and a Network Termination (NT) D. Line Termination (LT) portion and a Node Termination (NT) Answer: A Question 7. Which of the following may be connected to the RG in the subscriber home network? Choose the best answer. A. P.C. B. TV with STB C. Gaming console D. LAN switch E. Any Ethernet connected device Answer: E Question 8. True or False. The RG is typically provider managed in Triple Play Services? A. True B. False Answer: A Question 9. Which of the following is not a TPSDA network zone? A. Home B. Broadband Access C. Broadband Aggregation D. Broadband Metro E. IP Services Edge Answer: D Question 10. Choose the best answer to complete the following statement. Ethernet frames transmitted by the RG contain: A. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits of all zero B. 802.1Q VLAN ID randomly assigned by the RG and 802.1P priority bits of all zero C. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits randomly assigned by the RG D. 802.1Q VLAN ID of one and 802.1P priority bits of all ones E. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits as assigned by the application Answer: E
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Question 1.
Two routers are physically connected to each other over Ethernet port 1/1/1.
Review the configuration information shown below. What state should the OSPF neighbor be in?
A. INIT
B. EXCHANGE
C. EXSTART
D. FULL
E. No OSPF neighbor
Answer: E
Question 2.
Which of the following debug statements can be used to troubleshoot if the OSPF adjacency is staying at xstart state? Select two answers.
A. Debug routerospf rtm
B. Debug routerospf packet dbdescr
C. Debug routerospf neighbor
D. Debug routerospf packet hello
E. Debug routerospf spf
Answer: B, C
Question 3.
Based on the following configuration, which of the following statements are true? Choose all that apply.
A. No OPSF adjacency found on Node 1
B. Full OSPF adjacency between Node-1 and Node-2
C. Full OSPF adjacency between Node-1 and Node-3
D. Full OSPF adjacency between Node-1 and Node-4
E. OSPF is enabled on Node 1
Answer: B, E
Question 4.
Two routers are physically connected to each other over Ethernet port 1/1/1. Review the configuration information below.
What state should the OSPF neighbor be in?
A. INIT
B. EXCHANGE
C. EXSTART
D. FULL
E. No OSPF neighbor
Answer: D
Question 5.
Two routers are physically connected running ISIS. ISIS L2 adjacency is up and running but L1 adjacency is not up. Review the configuration information shown below:
Which of the following statement best describe the cause of the problem? Select one answer only.
A. The ISIS interface level is not configured on both routers
B. The ISIS interface type should be configured as point-to-point interfaces
C. ISIS System IDs are not configured on both routers
D. ISIS Area addresses are not configured on both routers
E. ISIS level capacity are not configured on both routers
Answer: D
Question 6.
Two routers are physically connected to each other with ISIS configured. No ISIS adjacency can be found on both routers. Ping works fine on the local and the remote interface addresses on both routers. Review the confguration information shown below.
Which of the following statements best describe the cause of the problem? Select one answer only.
A. The ISIS interface level configured does not match the ISIS level capability supported on the
routers
B. The ISIS authentication check is enabled but there is no authentication type and password
configured
C. ISIS Area addresses are not configured on both routers
D. L1 wide Metrics are disabled on the routers
E. ISIS Circuit id does not match on Node-1 and Node-2
Answer: C
Question 7.
L1 ISIS adjacency is up between two routers (Node-1 and Node-2) with MD5 authentication configured. During a maintenance window, an operator was planning to change one of the ISIS hello authentication key from admin to admin123. After removing the hello authentication key from Node-1 (no change on Node-2 side), the ISIS adjacency stayed up. The operator decided to fall back to the original configuration and called Alcatel for support.
Which of the following statement best describe the cause of the problem? Select one answer only.
A. The ISIS hello authentication key was not configured properly in the first place, that's why
removing the authentication key does not impact the adjacency
B. The ISIS authentication key is the same as the hello authentication key, therefore removing
hello authentication key does not impact the adjacency
C. The system interface is missing from theISIS configuration, therefore ISIS is not working
properly even before the change
D. ISIS hello authentication key is only used for hello packet exchange. It does not affect ISIS
adjacency
E. ISIS hello authentication key is not used to bring up ISIS adjacency when traffic-engineering is
enabled on the routers
Answer: B
Question 8.
What are the typical RIP related issues found during troubleshooting?
A. Interface filters
B. Broadcast/Multicast mismatch
C. Area id not match with neighbor
D. Group name not match with neighbor
E. Hop count too high
Answer: A, B, E
Question 9.
Two direct connected routers are running RIPv2, neighbors are up but there is no route in the RIP database. Review the configuration information below.
What is the potential problem?
A. System interface is not added to the RIP protocol
B. No import policy is configured
C. No export policy is configured
D. Split-horizon has to be disabled in RIP
E. Message-size has to be configured with a non-zero value
Answer: C
Question 10.
Node A has an active BGP route 10.1.1.1 in its routing table, but the same route is not found in Node D routing table.
Which of the following configurations are required to resolve this problem?
A. Add Interface X to OSPF on Node B as passive interface
B. Redistribute interface address Y and Z into BGP
C. ISIS Enable route-reflection on Node B
D. Enable next-hop-self on Node C
E. Enable route-reflection on Node C
Answer: A, E
Question 11.
The LDP session is not down between Node-1 and Node-2.
Based on the following configurations, what is the cause of the problem?
A. LDP targeted-session is enabled with no service configured
B. OSPF adjacency is not up between Node-1 and Node-2
C. Router id is not advertised by OSPF
D. LDP is disabled on Node-1
E. Traffic-engineering is not enabled on Node-2
Answer: C
Question 12.
A SDP is created on Node-2 with the far end address set to Node-3. The SDP stays down on Node-2.
Based on the following CLI output from Node 2, what is the caused of the problem?
A. No LDP link session between Node 2 and Node 4
B. No LDP link session between Node 4 and Node 3
C. No LDP link session between Node 1 and Node 4
D. No LDP link session between Node 3 and Node 2
E. None of the above
Answer: B
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Question 1. A Power 570 is planned to run with a dual VIOS environment. The VIOS should be equipped for maximum resilience to provide LUN access to both VIO servers. What are the minimum requirements? A. Two dual port adapters B. Four dual port adapters C. Four single port adapters D. Two single port adapters Answer: C Question 2. A customer is trying to configure a Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) on a Logical Port Host Ethernet (lp-hea) using mkdev -sea ento -vadapter ent2 -default ent2 -defaulted 1 and receive this response: 0514-040 Error initializing a device into the kernel. What can be the cause of this problem? A. A SEA can only be created on a physical network adapter B. Promiscuous mode on the virtual Ethernet adapter ent2 must be set to "On" from the HMC C. Promiscuous mode onlp-hea entO must be set to "On" from the HMC D. SEA must be a default VLAN other than 1 Answer: C Question 3. A customer has ordered a Power 570 with only 4 dual port fiber cards. Which configuration would allow 4 LPARs on this server to have multiple paths, with no single point of failure, for each SAN connection? A. One VIO server mapping disks using dual virtual SCSI adapters from the 4 adapters B. Dual VIO servers with 2 cards per server and mapping via virtual SCSI adapters C. Assign each LPAR 2fibre ports, each from a different fibre adapter D. Assign each LPAR afibre card and ensure each port is mapped to a separate fiber switch Answer: B Question 4. A customer is migrating from dedicated LPARs to a virtualized environment utilizing PowerVM I/O features. They have created their profiles for their two virtual 10 (VIO) servers. The First VIO server is installed and running. When trying to DLPAR the DVD/ROM the task fails on the HMC. What is the probable cause? A. /etc/hosts table on HMC is not configured B. PowerVM key is not registered C. Virtual I/O server does not support DLPAR D. Networking is not configured Answer: D Question 5. An AIX System administrator noticed that a TUNE_RESTRICTED error appeared in the error log. What is the reason for this error? A. A restricted tunable has been changed from the default value and the system was rebooted B. A system attribute, pre610tune, was set to "true" C. Someone tried to break the rule not to change /etc/tunables/nextboot D. A restricted tunable has been changed from the default value Answer: A Question 6. A customer has a Power 570 and has sent the following vmstat output to analyze: Exhibit: What should be recommend to the customer? A. The system doesn't need additional hardware B. The system needs additional network cards C. The system needs additional memory D. The system needs additional CPU Answer: A Question 7. What command is used to create an application Workload partition? A. crwpar B. wparexec C. mkwpar D. mkappwpar Answer: B Question 8. Which command should be used to permanently configure an additional network interface? A. ifconfig B. Csmitty chinet C. mkdev D. Smitty mktcpip Answer: B Question 9. Which command provides output for mixed page sizes? A. mpstat B. svmon -P C. vmstat -o D. lvmstat -m Answer: B Question 10. Which tool is the most cost and time effective for specifying adapter placement on new orders? A. Tivoli Provisioning Manager B. System Planning tool + Workload estimator C. System planning tool D. HMC Answer: C
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Question 1.
Which advanced feature of the XIV Storage System eliminates the need for write-through mode?
A. Redundant UPS
B. Active/Active topology
C. Data Striping
D. Distributed Cache
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which table contains the location of the physical data?
A. Volume table
B. Partition table
C. Data table
D. Distribution table
Answer: B
Question 3.
An XIV event indicates that usage of a thin provisioned storage pool is at 90%. There is plenty of capacity left in the system.
What should the system administrator do to the pool?
A. Nothing
B. Resize the soft capacity
C. Resize hard capacity
D. Extend the volume
Answer: C
Question 4.
What are two unique benefits of thin provisioning on the XIV System? (Choose two.)
A. Volumes can easily be moved between storage pools
B. Reclaim capacity that is no longer in use after data migration
C. Limit the storage expense to the actual capacity used
D. East to resize the volume
2
E. Provides quota management
Answer: B, C
Question 5.
What describes the XIV System strategy for new generation hardware upgrades?
A. The XIV system architecture allows upgrading to new modules non-disruptively
B. XIV System firmware version updates are automatic
C. An XIV system administrator will perform an update to the new product release non
disruptively
D. The XIV system is the only product that does dynamic data migration between systems
Answer: A, C
Question 6.
What are two advantages of the recommended multipath drivers over first generation multipath drivers? (Choose two.)
A. They allow multi-vendor storage support
B. HBA vendor-supplied multi-path software is available and mature
C. They provide superior performance via next-generation fibre hannel
D. They allow for integration with other network management tools
E. They do NOT cost extra
Answer: A, E
Question 7.
What are two limitations of Hitachi USP-V snapshots as compared to XIV? (Choose two.)
A. There is a maximum volume size that can be snapped
B. RAID 1 arrays cannot be snapped
C. Additional volume must be the same size as the source
D. Only one snapshot can be taken of a volume
E. A snapshot of a snapshot cannot be taken
Answer: A, E
Question 8.
If the customer wants to snap a 1 TB volume on an XIV System, how much space needs to be reserved for the snapshot target?
A. None
B. 150 GB Minimum
C. 15% of source is the default
D. Depends on the change rate
Answer: A
Question 9.
An administrator is migrating data from legacy storage to an XIV System.
What is the behavior of the host systems during this process?
A. They access data at half their normal speed
B. They function normally
C. Their applications are suspended
D. They are shut down
Answer: B
Question 10.
How does the XIV System rapidly return to full redundancy after disk failures?
A. The XIV System's data module uses cache and processor to calculate parity for disks in the
drawer
B. The XIV System's data module uses SMART data from the drive to begin proactive rebuild on
a spare disk in the module
C. The XIV System uses all disks to rebuild the failed disk using spare capacity throughput the
system
D. The XIV System quickly identifies the failed disk and starts rebuild on a spare disk in a
separate data module
Answer: C
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Question 1.
An entity beans class contains the following method signature:
public Integer ejbCreate (int partNum, String partDescription,
float partCost, String partSupplier) throws CreateException
Which statement is true of the beans ejbCreate() method?
A. AnejbPostCreate() method with the same number and types of parameters must be present in
the beans remote interface.
B. An ejbPostCreate() method with the same method signature must be present in the beans
home interface.
C. An ejbPostCreate() method with tne same numoer and types of parameters must be present in
the beans class.
D. An ejbPostCreate() method with the same method signature must be present in the beans
class.
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which choice defines the term isolation when used to describe the properties of a transaction?
A. Isolation guarantees that a transaction will either result in a new valid system, or the system
will be restored to its original state.
B. Isolation guarantees that a committed transaction will persist despite any type of system
failure.
C. Isolation guarantees that logically related operations are dealt with as a single unit.
D. Isolation guarantees that transactions running at the same time will not have access to each
others partial results.
Answer: D
Question 3.
An EJB client invokes a create() method. An EJB container instantiates an enterprise bean as the result of this method call. The bean is then held in a pool awaiting a method invocation.
To which type of enterprise bean does this process refer?
A. BMP entity bean
B. CMP entity bean
C. Stateless session bean
D. Stateful session bean
Answer: C
Question 4.
A finder method in an entity bean is written to find more than one primary key.
Which statement correctly describes the invocation of this type of ejbFind...() method?
A. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the home object allocates a bean instance
and invokes the corresponding ejbFind...() method. The home object instantiates a remote
object for each primary key, with a collection of remote references returned to the client.
B. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the home object allocates a bean instance
And invokes the corresponding ejbFind...() method. The home object instantiates a collection
of remote objects for each primary key, with individual remote references returned to the client.
C. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the remote object invokes the corresponding
ejbFind...() method. The remote object then returns a collection of remote references to the
client.
D. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the home object allocates a bean instance
and invokes the corresponding ejbFind...() method. The home object instantiates a collection of
primary key references and returns them to the client.
Answer: A
Question 5.
The ejbRemove() method for an enterprise bean contains the following line of code:
prepStmt = dbConn.prepareStatement ("DELETE FROM MyTable WHERE MyKey = ?");
What type of enterprise bean might this be?
A. Stateful session bean
B. BMP entity bean
C. CMP entity bean
D. Stateless session bean
Answer: A, B, D
Question 6.
Which statement correctly describes CMP entity beans and finder methods?
A. The beans class should contain empty ejbFind() methods with corresponding find() methods
defined in the remote interface.
B. The beans class should not contain ejbFind() methods; empty find() methods are defined in the
home interface.
C. The beans class should not contain ejbFind() methods; empty find() methods are defined in
the remote interface.
D. The beans class should contain empty ejbFind() methods with corresponding find() methods
defined in the home interface.
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which client application could benefit from the use of a callback object?
A. A Java Micro Edition application that notifies the user of a hand. held computer when traffic
conditions have improved along a given freeway
B. A Java applet that allows users to send an E. mail message to the quality control department
C. A Java application used by police officers in the field to retrieve vehicle registration information
from a remote database by supplying a complete or partial license plate number
D. A Java applet that retrieves a map image when given a street address
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which statement correctly describes the EJBContext interface?
A. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to find, create and remove
enterprise beans.
B. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to ascertain information about
runtime status for enterprise beans.
C. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to obtain metadata for enterprise
beans.
D. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to obtain network references to
enterprise beans.
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which type of factory object returns references to objects that reside within the same process as the factory object?
A. Out-process
B. Generic
C. Specific
D. In-process
Answer: D
Question 10.
Which statement correctly describes the EJBHome interface?
A. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces, which provide methods to create,
find and remove enterprise beans.
B. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces, which provide a clients view of an
enterprise bean.
C. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces and is the common superinterface
for the SessionBean and EntityBean interfaces.
D. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces, which the container uses to inform
enterprise beans about life cycle events.
Answer: A
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Question 1. Which of the following is true with regard to creating an XML application? A. XML must always be embedded with XHTML, not HTML. B. The tags can use uppercase and lowercase characters. C. The application must always be run from a Web server. D. The application must be able to determine page structure if it is used on a Web page. Answer: B Question 2. Consider the following XML code:January 28, 2006 236 Washington Boulevard, Suite 480 Grover, CA 90000 The preceding code will not work properly. Which of the following describes the reason for this? A. The Date field is not specified correctly. B. XML tags cannot use uppercase letters. C. The code was created by a proprietary application. D. A tag has been inconsistently formatted. Answer: D Question 3. Denny is designing a Web site for his school's sporting events. This Web site will list event results for the school. When site visitors click a hyperlink for a specific event, a new page containing information about the sporting event will appear, including the teams involved, the location of the event, scores, key plays and specific accomplishments by contestants. Which of the following should Denny do to build this site? A. Create static pages for each event. B. Use one page and modify it after each event. C. Copy and paste Web pages from other schools' sites. D. Use database integration. Answer: D Question 4. In which of the following formats do graphic files support 24 bits of color information and work well with photographs? A. GIF B. JPEG C. SVG D. BMP Answer: B Question 5. You are responsible for administering a Web site for a college program designed to get students to express their perspectives on topical issues. Your supervisor has been asked to ensure that all Web sites for the college are Conformance Level "Triple-A," according to Web Accessibility Initiative (WAI) standards. Which of the following will have to be eliminated from your site? A. All XHTML tables within the site B. All HTML content written to 4.01 specifications C. All audio content without a text-based alternative D. All visual content without an accessible audio alternative Answer: C Question 6. Applying masks in Flash allows for the creation of depth on the Web page. Which of the following is true when creating vector masks? A. A mask layer contains a filled shape that blocks off objects on at least one other layer. B. You create masks on motion guide layers and normal layers in Flash. C. You can link no more than one layer to a single mask layer. D. Creating a mask requires an understanding of action scripting. Answer: A Question 7. Which of the following is directly exploited by a brute-force attack? A. The log file mechanisms that exist on the Web server B. The Web server's available bandwidth C. The TCP/IP software installed on the Web server D. The Web server's authentication mechanisms Answer: D Question 8. Which of the following is an acceptable way to insert a background image using a style sheet? A. Mr. Harold Gray President Gray Industries B. background-image: url(background.tiff); C. background-image: url(background.jpg); D. background-position: background.jpg bottom right; Answer: C Question 9. Certain Web sites are known to be successful. What do these successful Web sites have in common? A. They focus on fulfilling unmet needs of Web site consumers. B. They have published a well-documented mind map of their Web site. C. They have created a unique metaphor. D. They all sell books and clothing. Answer: A Question 10. Server and operating system vendors regularly update their software by offering security patches when new vulnerabilities are discovered. To keep your Web site and server safe, you should apply security patches: A. after they have been standardized by the ISO. B. after your system has been compromised. C. as soon as they are released and proven stable. D. during your next scheduled monthly maintenance session. Answer: C
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Question 1.
With regard to databases, what is normalization?
A. The process of reducing the cardinality of a relation
B. The process of organizing and refining relations
C. The process of duplicating data to reduce the number of tables
D. The process of limiting data stored in a table to a specific range of values
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which three pieces of information did E.F. Codd describe as necessary to retrieve a data value from a relational database?
A. Attribute, domain, and tuple
B. Entity, relation name, and domain
C. Table name, primary key, and entity
D. Attribute, relation name, and primary key
Answer: D
Question 3.
What is a virtual table?
A. A virtual table is a relation created as the result of data manipulation; it exists only in computer
memory, and is not a permanent part of the database.
B. A virtual table is a relation stored in the database; it is used when multiple users access the
same relation in a database.
C. A virtual table is a relation derived from the database data dictionary; it contains metadata
about a base relation. A virtual table is a relation derived from the database?data dictionary; it
contains metadata about a base relation.
D. A virtual table is a relation that consists of primary and foreign keys for a particular set of
relations in a database.
Answer: A
Question 4.
Your enterprise has reached the conceptual design phase for a database project.
What is the desired goal at the end of this design phase?
A. A set of normalized relations
B. A reviewed entity-relationship (ER) model
C. An entity-relationship (ER) model with no redundant data
D. A set of denormalized relations
Answer: B
Question 5.
In which phase of database design do you identify entities, attribute domains, and relationships?
A. Logical
B. Physical
C. Application
D. Conceptual
Answer: D
Question 6.
Consider the Dept1_Parts and Dept2_Parts relations shown in the exhibit.
Which of the following SQL statements would create a set difference of the two relations with the widest variety of Structured Query Language dialects?
A. SELECT * FROM
Dept1_Parts
EXCEPT(SELECT
PartJD FROM
Dept2_Parts);
B. SELECT * FROM
Dept1_Parts MINUS
(SELECT Part_ID
FROM Dept2_Parts);
C. SELECT * FROM
Dept1_Parts
DIFFERENCE
(SELECT Part_ID
FROM Dept2_Parts);
D. SELECT * FROM
Dept1_Parts WHERE
Part_ID NOT IN
(SELECT Part_ID FROM
Dept2_Parts);
Answer: D
Question 7.
CORRECT TEXT
Consider the Information Engineering diagram shown in the exhibit. Building_ID, R_ID, Room_Count and Room_Num are integer numbers, whereas Bldg_Name, Location and Res_Name are all represented by variable-length strings with a maximum of 20 characters.
Which SQL statement best implements the RESIDENT relation shown in this diagram?
Answer: CREATE TABLE RESIDENT (
Room_Num, Res_Name, BuildingJD NOT NULL, FOREIGN KEY
R_ID NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
BuildingJDREFERENCES BUILDING(BuildingJD));
RoomJMum, ResJMame,
BuildingJD NOT NULL);
Answer: CREATE TABLE RESIDENT( RJD
INTEGER NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
Room_Num INTEGER, ResJMame
VARCHAR (20), BuildingJD INTEGER NOT
NULL);
Answer: CREATE TABLE RESIDENT( RJD INTEGER NOT NULL
PRIMARY KEY, Room_Num INTEGER, ResJMame VARCHAR (20),
BuildingJD INTEGER NOT NULL, FOREIGN KEY BuildingJD
REFERENCES BUILDING (BuildingJD));
Answer: Pending
Question 8.
Which term describes one or more database operations that are executed as a single unit?
A. Update
B. Transaction
C. Encapsulation
D. Operational group
Answer: B
Question 9.
Your enterprise is involved in planning a database project. The exhibit shows the result of one phase of the database design life cycle.
Which term best describes the diagram shown in the exhibit?
A. Information Engineering (IE) data model
B. Corporate data model
C. Database requirements model
D. ERD model
Answer: B
Question 10.
Consider the following relations shown in the exhibit.
Which of the following SQL statements would return the Customers2 relation from the Customers relation?
A. SELECT * FROM Customers
WHERE Satisfaction_Rate <= 80
OR Satisfaction_Rate >= 90;
B. SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE
Satisfaction_Rate IN (80 AND 90);
C. SELECT'FROM Customers
WHERE Satisfaction_Rate >= 80
AND Satisfaction_Rate <= 89;
D. SELECT * FROM
Customers WHERE
Satisfaction_Rate
BETWEEN (80, 90);
Answer: C
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