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Braindumps for "310-044" Exam

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Braindumps for "1Z0-048" Exam

Oracle Database 10g R2: Administering RAC

 Question 1.
You are creating a database in your RAC implementation You are using the DBCA to create the database and you selected the Raw Devices mapping file on one of the screens of the DBCA. 

What is the reason for selecting this file?

A. You want the DBCA to bind the partitions to raw devices
B. You want to configure an ASM diskgroup containing raw devices
C. You want to set the appropriate raw partition for each database file
D. You want to provide the DBCA with a list of all the storage devices that are currently bound to 
    a raw interface

Answer: C

Question 2.
To complete a cluster database creation, the DBA must choose the cluster database storage method. 

Which storage choice is not correct? ( Choose the incorrect one.)

A. Cluster File System
B. Raw Devices
C. Standard UNIX File System
D. Automatic Storage Management (ASM)
E. Supported SAN/NAS storage

Answer: C

Question 3.
Which statement is true?

A. You must use RMAN to migrate your tempfiles to ASM storage
B. You must use RMAN to migrate your flashback log files to ASM storage
C. You must use RMAN to migrate your data files to ASM storage
D. You must use RMAN to migrate your change-tracking file to ASM storage
E. You can migrate your entire database to ASM storage without shutting down your database
F. You must use RMAN to migrate your online redo log files to ASM storage

Answer: C

Question 4.
In which directory should you put your callout scripts on your RAC nodes?

A. $ORACLE_HOME/opmn/conf/
B. $ORA_CRS_HOME/racg/usrco/
C. $ORA_CRS_HOME/opmn/conf/
D. $ORACLE_HOME/racg/usrco/

Answer: B

Question 5.
Your four-node RAC cluster is no longer coping with workloads for one of its databases at peak periods and you decide to add another node to the cluster. The current configuration has two RAC databases, each with four instances with only the second database using ASM as a clustered database file system. ASM is installed in a separate home.

Which five steps must you take to add all the software components and processes to the new node before you run DBCA to add database and ASM instances on the new cluster nodes. Do not be concerned with the correct sequence for the steps. (Choose Five.)

A. Run cluvfy stage-pre crsinst  from one of the existing nodes to verify the 
    cluster configuration
B. Run addNode.sh in the ASM home/oui/bin directory from one of the existing nodes
C. Run racgons add_config from one o the existing nodes to add the ONS metadata to the OCR
D. Run addnode.sh in the Clusterware home/oui/bin directory form one of the existing nodes to 
    define the new node to all existing nodes
E. Run netca from the new node to add a listener to the new node
F. Run addnode.sh in the Clusterware home/oui/bin directory from each of the existing nodes 
    once to define the new node to each existing node
G. Run addNode.sh in the RDBMS home/oui/bin directory from one of the existing nodes

Answer: B, C, D, E, G

Question 6.
Which two statements are true in a RAC environment? (Choose two.)

A. After you create a service using Database Configuration Assistance (DBCA), you need to start 
    it with a separate command
B. After you create a service, you need to enable it for CRS to manage it
C. After you create a service using SRVCTL, you need to start it with a separate command
D. When suing SRVCTL to create a service, you do not need to add corresponding TNS entry in 
    your tnsnames.ora
E. When using DBCA to create service, you do not need to add the corresponding TNS entry in 
    your tnsnames.ora on the cluster nodes

Answer: C, E

Question 7.
You need to add a new service to your RAC database, called DBA to account for all the work done by database administrator sessions performing routing maintenance , to make this visible in the v$service_stats view. The maintenance would be done at quieter times but restricted session is not an option due to round-the-clock access requirements. The database administrator team may connect locally or remotely to the RAC database. You decide to use DBCA to create the new service.

What must be true to allow client-server connection to the DBA service? (Choose two.)

A. The service must have at least one preferred or available instance that is running and 
    accepting logins
B. The TNSNAMES.ORA file or a name server must contain the net service entries for the DBA 
    service
C. All the listeners must be reloaded using LSNRCTL RELOAD to recongnize the dynamically 
    created service
D. The ALTER SYSTEM REGISTER command must be used to include PMON to register the 
    service with the listeners
E. The services must be started using the SRVCTL START SERVICE command
F. The service must be started using the DBMS_SERVICE.START_SERVICE procedure

Answer: A, B

Question 8.
You are asked to investigate a problem regarding client connectivity between the HR service and a database, which is on a four-node RAC cluster. The HR service has four preferred instances on the RAC cluster. This cluster also supports five other services. Occasionally, a client-connect request for the HR service takes several minutes to connect, whereas the other five services connect within a second or two. Client-side and server-side connection load balancing are used for all the services. 

Which combination of network settings would explain these symptoms? (Choose two.)

A. The TNSNAMES.ORA file has an entry for the HR service that uses only the most host name 
    for the public IP Address and all the listeners listen on both the Public and Virtual IP addresses
B. The listener on one or more nodes is listening on both the Public IP Address and the Virtual IP 
    Address and HR TNSNAMES entry uses the Virtual IP Address
C. The TNSNAMES.ORA file has an entry for the five other services that use the hostnames for 
    the Virtual IP Addresses and all the listeners listen on both the Public and Virtual IP Addresses
D. The TNSNAMES.ORA file has an entry for all six services that uses the host name for the 
    Public IP address and not the Virtual IP Address
E. The listener on one or more nodes is listening only on the virtual IP address and the HR 
    TNSNAME entry uses the hostnames for the virtual IP addresses

Answer: A, C

Question 9.
Exhibit:
 

Your work as a DBA at ITCertKeys.com. You study the exhibit carefully. You are tasked to help a colleague to logically remove node NLDEDUC2 from a RAC cluster installation. On observing the colleague's terminal, you notice the output as seen in the exhibit. 

Based on this, which five additional steps would you recommend? Do not be concerned with the correct sequence for the steps. (Choose Five.)

A. Check that the software has been removed from the database and ASM homes on NLEDUC2
B. Stop and restart the clusterware on NLEDUC1
C. Check that the node has been removed from the database and ASM inventories
D. Check that the ONS configuration has been updated on the remaining node
E. Remove the listener from NLEDUC2
F. Check that the database and ASM instances are all terminated on NLEDUC2
G. Remove the node from the clusterware
H. Stop and restart the nodeapps on NLEDUC1

Answer: A, C, D, F, G

Question 10.
Which parameter file should you use to configure the Oracle notification server on your RAC nodes?

A. $ORA_CRS_HOME/opmn/conf/ons.config
B. $ORACLE_HOME/opmn/conf/ons.config
C. $ORACLE_HOME/racg/usrco/ons.config
D. $ORA_CRS_HOME/racg/usrco/ons.config

Answer: A



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Braindumps for "117-101" Exam

General Linux, Part I Practice Test

 Question 1.
You have just added a CD.ROM drive (/dev/hdd) to your system and have added it to yourfstab. Typically you can use which of the following commands to mount media in that drive to /mnt/cdrom?

A. mount /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
B. mount/dev/cdrom
C. mount -t cdrom /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
D. mount /mnt/cdrom
E. automount /mnt/hdd /mnt/cdrom

Answer: D

Explanation:
/mnt/cdrom or /media/cdrom is the mount point for cdrom specified in /etc/fstab.
/dev/hdd /media/cdrom auto pamconsole,exec,noauto,managed 0 0
/dev/hdc /media/cdrecorder auto pamconsole,exec,noauto,managed 0 0
So we need to mount just typing mount /media/cdrom command.

Question 2.
With Xorg 7.0, what is the name of the default font server?

A. xfserv
B. xfs
C. fonts
D. xfstt
E. fserv

Answer: B

Explanation:

Question 3.
CORRECT TEXT
Which command (without options) would you use to display how much space is available on all mounted partitions?

Answer: /BIN/DF

Question 4.
CORRECT TEXT
What command with all options and/or parameter will send the signal USR1 to any executing process of program apache2?

 

Answer: KILLALL-SUSR1APACHE2

Question 5.
The command echo $! will produce what output?

A. the process id of last background command
B. the exit status of the last command
C. the exit status of the last background command
D. the process id of the current shell
E. the name of the command being executed

Answer: A

Explanation:

Question 6.
You are using quota on your system. How can you see disk quota details?

A. repquota
B. quota. I
C. quota
D. quotacheck
E. quota. list

Answer: A

Explanation:
repquota prints a summary of the disk usage and quotas for the specified file systems. For each user the current number of files and amount of space (in kilobytes) is printed, along with any quotas created with edquota.
Example : repquota /home à prints the summary of disk usage and other information of all users.

Question 7.
What is the difference between the.remove and the.purge action with the dpkg command?

A. -remove removes the program, -purge also removes the config files
B. -remove only removes the program, -purge only removes the config files
C. -remove removes a package, -purge also removes all packages dependent on it
D. -remove removes only the package file itself, -purge removes all files related to the package

Answer: A

Explanation:
?r or ??remove remove everything except configuration files. This may avoid having to reconfigure the package if it is reinstalled later. (Configuration files are the files listed in the debian/conffiles control file). ?P or ??purge removes everything, including configuration files. If ?a or ??pending is given instead of a package name, then all packages unpacked, but marked to be removed or purged in file /var/lib/dpkg/status , are removed or purged, respectively.

Question 8 CORRECT TEXT
What application can be used in place of xhost? Please enter only the name without path. Answer:

Answer: XAUTH

Question 9.
You have read/write permission on an ordinary file foo. You have just run In foo bar. 

What would happen if you ran rm foo?

A. foo and bar would both be removed.
B. foo would be removed while bar would remain accessible.
C. foo would be removed, bar would still exist but would be unusable.
D. Both foo and bar would remain accessible.
E. You would be asked whether bar should be removed.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Correct Answer is B. The ln command is used to create the link. There are two types of link a. Soft 
link b. Hard link.
a. Softlink à Can create for directory also, can span multiple pratations but available until and
unless Original Files remain.
Syntax for Softlink
ln -s originalfile linkfile
b. Hardlink à One separate Physical File, can't create for directory, can't span multiple file but
remains the link file if original file removed.
Syntax for Hardlink
ln originalfile linkfile
In Questions, created the bar hardlink of foo. That means bar is on separate physical file. The file
bar is accessible after removing the foo file also.

Question 10.
Which of the following commands will change all CR-LF pairs in an imported text file, userlist.txt, to Linux standard LF characters and store it as newlist.txt?

A. tr '\r\n' " < userlist.txt > newlist.txt
B. tr -c '\n\r' " < newlist.txt > userlist.txt
C. tr -d '\r' < userlist.txt > newlist.txt
D. tr '\r' '\n' userlist.txt newlist.txt
E. tr -s'^M' '^J' userlist.txt newlist.txt

Answer: C

Explanation:


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Braindumps for "642-446" Exam

Implementing Cisco Unified Communications IP Telephony Part 1 (CIPT1)

 Question 1.
DRAG DROP
Drag the definition of the resource on the left to the media resource type on the right No1 all media resources are used.
 
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
Drag the definition of the resource on the left to the media resource type on the right No1 all media resources are used.

Answer:
 
Explanation:
 
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.

Question 2.
Which three steps need to be performed on a third party SIP phone device when adding it to Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0? (Choose three.)

A. Select XML as the method to send the third party SIP phone its configuration file.
B. Add the MAC address of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server to the SIP phone configuration.
C. Set the directory numbers to match the directory numbers configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. Set the digest user ID in the SIP device to match the digest user ID in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
E. Set the TLS user ID and password in the SIP phone to match the TLS user ID and password in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
F. Set the proxy address in the SIP phone to match the IP address or fully qualified domain name of Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

Answer: C, E, F

Question 3.
Which two gateway configuration statements are required in order to enable Cisco Unified Communications Manager to control a T1 PRI in an MGCP gateway? (Choose two.)

A. mgcp
B. ccm-manager config
C. pri-group configuration on the controller
D. mgcp call-agent pointing to tftp server
E. isdn 13-backhaul ccm-manager on the serial interface
F ccm-manager config server {TFTP ip_address}

Answer: B

Question 4.
DRAG DROP
Click and drag the XML application service information field name on the left to its Answer: description on the right
 

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
Click and drag the XML application service information field name on the left to its description on the right

Answer:
 
Question 5.
If a service is currently deactivated, how can the service be reactivated from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability Control Center page?

A. by clicking on the radio button to the left of the service on theControl Center page
B. by selecting Cisco Unified CM Serviceability > Service Activation and then clicking on the radio button to the left of the service to activate it
C. by selecting Tools > Service Activation, selecting the Answer:server, and clicking on the radio button to the left of the service to activate it
D. by selecting Cisco Unified CM Serviceability > Tools, clicking on the radio button to the left of the service that needs to be activated, and then returning to the Control Center to activate the service

Answer: C

Question 6.
Which two of these media resources are available only in hardware? (Choose two.)

A. trans coding
B. audio conferencing C. MTP
D. annunciator
E. MOH
F. voice termination

Answer: A

Question 7.
DRAG DROP
Click and drag the MoH server parameter on the left to its description on the right. Not all parameters apply.
 
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.

Answer:
 
Explanation:
 
Question 8.
Which three steps are necessary in order to configure DHCP for phone support using the GUI in Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0? (Choose three.)

A. add the DHCP server IP address to the device pool
B. activate DHCP Monitor Service
C. add and configure the DHCP server
D. start the application on an external server
E. configure the DHCP subnet
F. download the DHCP server application from the plug-in page

Answer: B, C, E

Question 9.
Which two of these are characteristics of multicast music on hold? (Choose two.)

A. point-to-multipoint, two-way audio stream
B. separate audio stream for each connection
C. multiple audio streams that require multiple multicast IP addresses
D. support for all codecs that are also supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers 
E. conservation of system resources and bandwidth
F. the requirement that there always be a dedicated MOH server

Answer: C

Question 10.
Which three determinations are possible when using the Presence feature in a Cisco Unified Communications network? (Choose three.)

A. Determine if an IP phone has been unplugged if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
B. Determine if an IP phone is on hook or off hook if the phone is outside the Cisco Unified Communications cluster of the watcher.
C. Determine if an IP phone is on hook or off hook if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
D. Determine if a set of IP phones is on hook or off hook if the phones are in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
E. Determine if an IP phone has been moved or the user has been changed if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
F. Determine if an IP phone has been off hook beyond a specified period of time if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.

Answer: B, C, D



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Braindumps for "PB0-200" Exam

Project Management Professional Practice Test

 Question 1.
The inputs of the Performance Reporting process include all of the following except for which one?

A. Performance reviews
B. Work performance information
C. Forecasted completion
D. Performance measurements

Answer: A

Explanation:
Performance reviews are not an input of the Performance Reporting process. The remaining inputs of this process are quality control measurements, project management plan, approved change requests, and deliverables.

Question 2.
You are a project manager for Pizza Direct, which is a retail pizza delivery store. Your company is competing with another retail store for the option of opening two new stores in a foreign country. You know, but have not yet informed your company, that you are going to go to work for the competitor, which happens to be bidding for this same opportunity. 

What is the most appropriate response?

A. You decide to participate in the initial meetings with the foreign business partners because any information you gain now will help you when you make the move to the new company.
B. You inform the foreign business partners that you're going to be working with a new company and that you know the deal they'll receive from the competing company is better than the one this company is proposing.
C. You decline to participate in the initial meetings with the foreign business partners because of a conflict of interest.
D. You've not yet received an official offer from the competing company for your new job opportunity, so you choose to participate in the initial meetings with the foreign business partners.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The most appropriate response is to decline to participate because of a conflict of interest.

Question 3.
The most effective team motivator is:

A. understanding the importance of the project
B. the satisfaction of meeting a challenge
C. All of the other alternatives apply.
D. the visibility of the team's contribution
E. the individual's professional challenge

Answer: D

Question 4.
Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in _______ .

A. Conduct Procurements
B. Close Procurements
C. Plan Procurements
D. Administer Procurements

Answer: B

Explanation:
Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in Close Procurements.

Question 5.
Continually measuring and monitoring the actual cost versus the budget is done to _____.

A. None of the other alternatives apply.
B. analyze the reasons for variances
C. establish the variances
D. identify the problems
E. All of the other alternatives apply.

Answer: E

Question 6.
You are a project manager for Giraffe Enterprises. You've recently taken over for a project manager who lied about his PMI certification and was subsequently fired. Unfortunately, he did a poor job of scope definition. 

Which of the following could happen if you don't correct this?

A. The project costs could increase, there might be rework, and schedule delays might result.
B. The project management plan's process for verification and acceptance of the deliverables needs to be updated as a result of the poor scope definition.
C. The poor scope definition will adversely affect the creation of the work breakdown structure, and costs will increase.
D. The stakeholders will require overtime from the project team to keep the project on schedule.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Option A might seem like a correct answer, but option D is more correct. There isn't enough information to determine whether stakeholders will require overtime. We do know that poor scope definition might lead to cost increases, rework, schedule delays, and poor morale.

Question 7.
You are a project manager working in a foreign country. You observe that some of your project team members are having a difficult time adjusting to the new culture. You provided them with training on cultural differences and the customs of this country before arriving, but they still seem uncomfortable and disoriented. 

Which of the following statements is true?

A. This condition is known as culture shock.
B. This is the result of jet lag and travel fatigue.
C. This is the result of working with teams of people from two different countries.
D. This condition is known as globalculturalism.

Answer: A

Explanation:
When people work in unfamiliar environments, culture shock can occur. Training and researching information about the country you'll be working in can help counteract this.

Question 8.
Which of the following is not true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM):

A. Defines what project member is responsible for each activity
B. Defines responsibilities for each WBS component
C. Defines all people associated with each activity
D. Text description of roles, responsibilities, authorities

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) details the different tasks for the people listed in the matrix chart.

Question 9.
The erection of foundation formwork before the placement of foundation concrete would be an example of a _____ dependency.

A. Soft logic
B. Subcontracted
C. Mandatory
D. Discretionary
E. External

Answer: C

Question 10.
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope. 

What should you do next?

A. Control Scope
B. Create WBS
C. Value analysis
D. Verify Scope

Answer: B

Explanation:
Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope.


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Braindumps for "000-061" Exam

IBM Dynamic Infrastructure Technical Support Leader

 Question 1.
A manufacturing customer is not concerned about system failure, they believe heir 2 week manufacturing cycle allows for recovery. You wish to identify an opportunity for business esilience. 

Which of the following is the impact of system failure?

A. Automated recovery capabilities
B. Redundant servers
C. Quality of Service
D. Resource utilization

Answer: C

Question 2.
Identifying each customer recovery and budget requirements is an important first step in a Business Resilience (BR) engagement. A customer determines they have anRTO of 2-6 hours.

Which of the following addresses this BR requirement?

A. Continuous availability, end to end automation
B. Rapid data recovery
C. Tape based backup and restore
D. Real time data and server replication

Answer: B

Question 3.
A fundamental driver for the efficiency of any server is the level of utilization that is achieved. 

What are the typical current utilization levels for various processor types and what should be done to increase this utilization?

A. Mainframe 80%
B. Unix >50%
C. X86 >10%
D. Mainframe 100%
E. Unix >40%
F. X86 >10%
G. Mainframe >80%
H. Unix 15-25%
I. X86 <10%
J. Mainframe >80%
K. Unix >50%
L. X86 >20%
M. Application provisioning

Answer: C

Question 4.
Estimating resources can be the most difficult task in the performance-planning process. 

What are the components that the NEDC Technical Leader should be primarily interested in?

A. CPU time, disk access rate, LAN traffic, amount of real memory
B. Disk access rate, number of simultaneous users, number of concurrent batch jobs
C. Paging rate, CPU time, networking bandwidth
D. CPU clock speed, operating system type and communication I/O

Answer: A

Question 5.
A large manufacturing customer datacenter has reached its physical limits. 

A Which of the following is the key element in the Active Energy Strategy green agenda?

A. IT Management solution to monitor IT Assets
B. Facility monitoring into single portal
C. Smart management of IT devices, cooling systems and virtualization of infrastructure
D. A full chargeback suite for usage and accounting

Answer: C

Question 6.
A securities trading bank has a critical performance issue. Peaks in trading behavior temporarily result in a huge number of orders which must be processed in time to avoid penalties. 

Which of the following meets this immediate situation?

A. IBM SAN Volume Controller provides outstanding performance. Develop a virtualized architecture with the customer to leverage caching properties to meet the
B. IBM server technology withCUoD
C. Analyze the business application; providing high performance solutions for a few peaks is not cost
D. affective. Suggest your customer negotiate the service levels
E. Identify the real issue and develop the proper solution combining software, hardware and services out of IBM comprehensive portfolio.

Answer: B

Question 7.
A prospect is confused with the multiple pillars (BR, EE, VC, and II) within the NEDC strategy. They are interested in virtualization and consolidation, but are concerned that too many pillars will result in a compromise and a poor solution. 

Which of the following is an effective response?

A. The pillars are interrelated and should be implemented together for maximum benefit
B. NEDC Innovation Workshop will help them identify which pillars are most critical and create a roadmap for implementation of one or more pillars
C. NEDC pillars should be implemented one at a time like most applications, combining them as goals makes implementation very difficult
D. Select the most urgent with the highest ROI. Once a successful track record is established other pillars should be implemented

Answer: D

Question 8.
Following successful implementation of a NEDC project, the customer is concerned all of the objectives were not achieved. 

Which of the following would provide a check point for the project objectives for comparison?

A. NEDC Innovation Workshop
B. Scorpion study
C. Technical and Delivery Assessment
D. Team Solution Design

Answer: A

Question 9.
An IBM Solution Assurance Review (SAR) is conducted to facilitate which of the following? 

A. Expectations and assignment of responsibilities for a project
B. Confirms appropriate IBM hardware configuration
C. Ensure proper stakeholder support within an organization
D. Qualifies the Business Partner for Special Bid Pricing

Answer: A

Question 10.
One important factor in developing any BR strategy is to determine the customer Recovery Point Objective.

Which of the following defines a business RPO?

A. RPO indicates how much data the business canhafford to recreate (or lose)
B. RPO denotes the time interval between an outage and when the remote servers are available
C. RPO is the length of elapsed time that the business has agreed they can afford to be without their systems and critical business applications
D. RPO is the distance between the product data centers and the recovery site

Answer: A


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Braindumps for "1D0-430" Exam

CIW Application Developer exam

 Question 1.
Which choice best demonstrates how the print statement may be used to print HTML code?

A. print HTML>>;
B. print ;
C. print ("HTML">;
D. print ("HTML">;

Answer: B

Question 2.
Which method is not effective for protecting server scripts?

A. Assigning the cgi-bin directory read-only permissions.
B. Running the Web server under a user account with few permissions.
C. Using CGI wrapper scripts.
D. Saving scripts with only .exe, .cgi or .pl extensions.

Answer: C

Question 3.
Which one of the following statements allows for variable substitution?

A. $sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state='$state'};
B. $sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state='$state'};
C. $sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
D. $sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};

Answer: A

Question 4.
Which one of the following lists of special characters denotes a space character in pattern matching?

A. \r \t \W \D
B. \r \t \n \f
C. \^ . * +
D. \s \D \W \f

Answer: B

Question 5.
List context versus scalar context is determined by which one of the following?

A. The compiler
B. The debugger
C. The interpreter
D. The environment

Answer: A

Question 6.
Which choice best demonstrates how to add a name-value pair to form data?

A. $object = append( name=>"state", value=>"New York");
B. $object = add( -name=>"state", -value=>"New York");
C. $object-> append( -name=> "state", -value=>"New York");
D. 4object ==> add( -name=>"state", -value=>"New York");

Answer: C

Question 7.
The file mode specifies which one of the following?

A. The access permissions.
B. The inode number.
C. The file's owner.
D. How the file is opened.

Answer: D

Question 8.
The CGI.pm module can be used to perform which one of the following tasks?

A. GET or POST data.
3
B. Load external variables.
C. Read large amounts of text into the script.
D. Access environment variables.

Answer: D

Question 9.
Given $_ = "alphabetais", consider the following substitution:
s/a+.*/greektome/gi;

What is the new value of $_ after this substitution?

A. isgreektome
B. ISGREEKTOME
C. greektome
D. alphabetais

Answer: D

Question 10.
Which choice demonstrates the correct syntax for the DELETE command?

A. DELETE MyDatabase WHERE VALUES state='Kentucky' AND color='blue'
B. DELETE MyDatabase WHERE state='Kentucky' AND color='blue'
C. DELETE FROM MyDatabase WHERE state='Kentucky' AND color='blue'
D. DELETE state='Kentucky' AND color='blue' FROM MyDatabase

Answer: C


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SUN CERTIFIED SYSTEM ADMINISTRATOR FOR SOLARIS 9 PART II

 Question 1.
Given the output from a dumpadm command:
# dumpadm
Dump content: kernel pages
Dump device: /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s1 (swap)
Savecore directory: /var/crash/wm13w1
Savecore enabled: yes

Which statement is correct?

A. The savecore command will run as the system shuts down following a panic.
B. The dump device is also the swap device.
C. Crash dumps are written to the /var/crash/wm13w1 file.
D. The system will dump the whole content of memory to the dump device.

Answer: B

Question 2.
You run an IT department and are responsible for purchasing hardware within a given budget. You are aware that 70 GBytes of data housed in a series of traditional disk slices is becoming critical to the business. You decide to mirror the data but have concerns about write performance. You can purchase the disk space to mirror the data.

What is a cost-free configuration enhancement that achieves fast write performance?

A. striping the data across the disks in each half of the mirror
B. arranging for the mirror to consist of just two disks
C. using RAID 5 to hold the data in each half of the mirror
D. concatenating the data across the disks in each half of the mirror

Answer: A

Question 3.
Your syslog configuration file contains the line:
mail.debugifdef(`LOGHOST', /var/log/syslog, @loghost)

Which two are correct statements about this entry? (Choose two.)

A. If the loghost alias is set to be the local host, messages are sent to the /var/log/syslog file.
B. If the loghost alias is set to be the local host, messages are sent to the user loghost on the Local system.
C. If the loghost alias is not set to the local host, messages are emailed to the root user at the host loghost.
D. The ifdef statement is interpreted by the syslogd daemon.
E. If the loghost alias is not set to the local host, messages are sent to the host defined as the loghost.

Answer: A, E

Question 4.
Given the line from a name service configuration file: 
ethers: nis [UNAVAIL=return] files

Which two statements correctly describe the behavior of the name service switch? (Choose two.)

A. If the NIS server does NOT respond, the search for the ethers entry will continue by looking for it in the local file.
B. If the NIS server does NOT respond, the search for the ethers entry will end without looking in the local file.
C. If NIS does NOT find the appropriate entry in its ethers map, the search will continue by looking for it in the local file.
D. If NIS does NOT find the appropriate entry in its ethers map, the search will end without looking in the local file.

Answer: B, C

Question 5.
You want to automatically mount an NFS resource. You also want to mount the NFS resource so that if the server becomes unavailable, and the client reboots, system initialization will continue without waiting for the resource to mount. 

Which mount option can be added to the client's /etc/vfstab file to achieve this?

A. ro
B. intr
C. bg
D. soft
E. hard
F. fg

Answer: C

Question 6.
You are creating a profile on your JumpStart server to install a new system and are using a Flash archive to provide the necessary software. The Flash archive is called /export/nb.flar and is shared on the network from the server grendel, which has the IP address 194.168.85.106. 

What is the syntax for the JumpStart client's profile file which will use this archive to install the new system?

A. archive_location grendel /export/nb.flar nfs
B. archive_location nfs grendel /export/nb.flar
C. archive_location 194.168.85.106 nfs /export/nb.flar
D. archive_location nfs 194.168.85.106:/export/nb.flar

Answer: D

Question 7.
The rules.ok file on your JumpStart server contains the line:
hostname client1 backup_root client_config set_root_passwd

Which two are correct statements about the function of this line? (Choose two.)

A. The client runs the backup_root script prior to installing software.
B. The client runs the set_root_passwd script after installing software.
C. The client will configure itself using either the backup_root, client_config, or set_root_passwd profiles.
D. The client runs the backup_root, client_config and set_root_passwd scripts after installing software.
E. The client runs the backup_root, client_config, and set_root_passwd scripts prior to installing software.

Answer: A, B

Question 8.
You have Solaris Volume Manager installed on your system and want to create your first metadevice. 

What initial action must you take?

A. create a soft partition using the -s initialize option with the appropriate command
B. run a command to initialize the configuration metadevice
C. run the vxinstall utility to initialize the volume manager software for use
D. run a command to create the first state database
E. run a utility to add a license to enable SVM for Solaris 9

Answer: D

Question 9.
Given:
# getfacl file1
# file: file1
# owner: root
# group: other
user::rwuser:
user3:rwx #effective:r--
group::r-- #effective:r--
mask:r--
other:r--
You run the command:
setfacl -s u::rwx,g::rw-,o:r--,m:rw- file1

Which statement describes the effect of the setfacl command?

A. The permissions assigned to user3 remain unchanged.
B. The permissions for user3 are removed from the system.
C. The effective permissions of the group other remain unchanged.
D. Nothing happens due to a syntax error in the setfacl command.

Answer: B

Question 10.
Which three functions can the syslogd daemon perform? (Choose three.)

A. forwarding messages to a list of users
B. interrupting processes that are producing errors above a pre-configured threshold
C. writing messages to a system log
D. forwarding input from root to the user's processes
E. writing IPC messages to the processes that are generating errors rapidly
F. forwarding messages to the syslogd daemon on another host on the network

Answer: A, C, F


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Quality of Service (QOS)

 Question 1. DRAG DROP
Drop
 
Answer:
 
Question 2.
Which of the following configurations requires the use of hierarchical policy maps?

A. the use of nested class-maps with class-based marking
B. the use of a strict priority-class queue within CBWFQ
C. the use of class-based WRED within a CBWFQ class queue
D. the use of CBWFQ inside class-based shaping
E. the use of both the bandwidth and shape statements within a CBWFQ class queue

Answer: D

Explanation:
Class-based weighted fair queuing (CBWFQ) extends the standard WFQ functionality to provide support for user-defined traffic classes. By using CBWFQ, network managers can define traffic classes based on several match criteria, including protocols, access control lists (ACLs), and input interfaces. A FIFO queue is reserved for each class, and traffic belonging to a class is directed to the queue for that class. More than one IP flow, or "conversation", can belong to a class. Once a class has been defined according to its match criteria, the characteristics can be assigned to the class. To characterize a class, assign the bandwidth and maximum packet limit. The bandwidth assigned to a class is the guaranteed bandwidth given to the class during congestion. CBWFQ assigns a weight to each configured class instead of each flow. This weight is proportional to the bandwidth configured for each class. Weight is equal to the interface bandwidth divided by the class bandwidth. Therefore, a class with a higher bandwidth value will have a lower weight.

By default, the total amount of bandwidth allocated for all classes must not exceed 75 percent of the available bandwidth on the interface. The other 25 percent is used for control and routing traffic. The queue limit must also be specified for the class. The specification is the maximum number of packets allowed to accumulate in the queue for the class. Packets belonging to a class are subject to the bandwidth and queue limits that are configured for the class.

Question 3.
In a managed CE scenario, the customer's network is supporting VoIP and bulk file transfers. 

According to the best practices, which QoS mechanisms should be applied on the WAN edge CEPE 56-kbps Frame Relay link on the CE outbound direction?

A. LLQ, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
B. CBWFQ, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
C. WRR, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
D. WRR, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
E. LLQ, CB-WRED, CB-Policing, and CB-TCP and CB-RTP header compressions
F. CBWFQ, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, CB-Policing, and FRTS

Answer: A

Explanation:
1. WRED can be combined with CBWFQ. In this combination CBWFQ provides a guaranteed percentage of the output bandwidth, WRED ensures that TCP traffic is not sent faster than CBWFQ can forward it.
The abbreviated configuration below shows how WRED can be added to a policy-map specifying CBWFQ:
Router(config)# policy-map prioritybw Router(config-pmap)# class class-default fair-queue
Router(config-pmap-c)# class prioritytraffic bandwidth percent 40 random-detect
The random-detect parameter specifies that WRED will be used rather than the default tail-drop action.
2. The LLQ feature brings strict Priority Queuing (PQ) to CBWFQ. Strict PQ allows delay-sensitive data such as voice to be sent before packets in other queues are sent. Without LLQ, CBWFQ provides WFQ based on defined classes with no strict priority queue available for real-time traffic. For CBWFQ, the weight for a packet belonging to a specific class is derived from the bandwidth assigned to the class. Therefore, the bandwidth assigned to the packets of a class determines the order in which packets are sent. All packets are serviced fairly based on weight and no class of packets may be granted strict priority. This scheme poses problems for voice traffic that is largely intolerant of delay, especially variation in delay. For voice traffic, variations in delay introduce irregularities of transmission manifesting as jitter in the heard conversation. LLQ provides strict priority queuing for CBWFQ, reducing jitter in voice conversations.

LLQ enables the use of a single, strict priority queue within CBWFQ at the class level. Any class can be made a priority queue by adding the priority keyword. Within a policy map, one or more classes can be given priority status. When multiple classes within a single policy map are configured as priority classes, all traffic from these classes is sent to the same, single, strict priority queue.

Although it is possible to queue various types of real-time traffic to the strict priority queue, it is strongly recommend that only voice traffic be sent to it because voice traffic is well-behaved, whereas other types of real-time traffic are not. Moreover, voice traffic requires that delay be nonvariable in order to avoid jitter. Real-time traffic such as video could introduce variation in delay, thereby thwarting the steadiness of delay required for successful voice traffic transmission.

When the priority command is specified for a class, it takes a bandwidth argument that gives maximum bandwidth in kbps. This parameter specifies the maximum amount of bandwidth allocated for packets belonging to the class configured. The bandwidth parameter both  guarantees bandwidth to the priority class and restrains the flow of packets from the priority class. In the event of congestion, policing is used to drop packets when the bandwidth is exceeded. Voice traffic queued to the priority queue is UDP-based and therefore not adaptive to the early packet drop characteristic of WRED. Because WRED is ineffective, the WRED random-detect command cannot be used with the priority command. In addition, because policing is used to drop packets and a queue limit is not imposed, the queue-limit command cannot be used with the priority command.

Question 4.
Refer to the partial router configuration. Which two of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
 

A. Regardless of destination IP address, all traffic sent to Mac address 1.2.3 will be subject to policing
B. All traffic from a server with the IP address of 147.23.54.21 will be subject to policing.
C. Any IP packet will be subject to policing.
D. The class-map class1 command will set the qos-group value to 4 for all IP packets.
E. Only those packets which satisfy all of the matches in class1 and class2 will be subject to policing.
F. The configuration is invalid since it refers to a class map within a different class.

Answer: A, B

Explanation:
The class-map command is used to define a traffic class. The purpose of a traffic class is to classify traffic that should be given a particular QoS. A traffic class contains three major elements, a name, a series of match commands, and if more than one match command exists in the traffic class, an instruction on how to evaluate these match commands. The traffic class is named in the class-map command line. For example, if the class-map cisco command is entered while configuring the traffic class in the CLI, the traffic class would be named cisco. 
Switch(config)# class-map cisco Switch(config-cmap)#
match commands are used to specify various criteria for classifying packets. Packets are checked to determine whether they match the criteria specified in the match commands. If a packet matches the specified criteria, that packet is considered a member of the class and is forwarded according to the QoS specifications set in the traffic policy. Packets that fail to meet any of the matching criteria are classified as members of the default traffic class and will be subject to a separate traffic policy

The policy-map command is used to create a traffic policy. The purpose of a traffic policy is to configure the QoS features that should be associated with the traffic that has been classified in a user-specified traffic class. A traffic policy contains three elements: Policy Name Traffic class specified with the class command QoS policies to be applied to each class The policy-map shown below creates a traffic policy named policy1. The policy applies to all traffic classified by the previously defined traffic-class "cisco" and specifies that traffic in this example should be allocated bandwidth of 3000 kbps. Any traffic which does not belong to the class "cisco" forms part of the catch-all class-default class and will be given a default bandwidth of 2000 kbps. Switch(config)# policy-map policy1 Switch(config-pmap)# class cisco Switch(config-pmap-c)#
bandwidth 3000 Switch(config-pmap-c)# exit Switch(config-pmap)# class class-default
Switch(config-pmap-c)# bandwidth 2000 Switch(config-pmap)# exit

Question 5.
In an unmanaged CE router implementation, how does the service provider enforce the SLA?

A. by marking on the CE to PE link and using CBWFQ and CB-WRED on the PE to P link
B. by marking on the CE to PE link and using class-based policing on the PE to P link
C. by using class-based policing on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate
D. by using class-based random discard on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate

Answer: C

Explanation:
In an unmanaged Router Implementation, Service provider can enforce SLA By using class based policy on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate.

Question 6.
When configuring a Cisco Catalyst switch to accommodate an IP phone with an attached PC, it is desired that the trust boundary be set between the IP phone and the switch. 

Which two commands on the switch are recommended to set the trust boundary as described? (Choose two.)

A. mls qos trust device cisco-phone
B. switchport priority extend trust
C. mls qos trust cos
D. no mls qos trust dscp
E. mls qos trust extend [cos value]
F. mls qos cos 5

Answer: A, C

Explanation:
mls qos trust [ cos ] :
B y default, the port is not trusted. All traffic is sent through one egress queue. Use the cos keyword to classify ingress packets with the packet CoS values. The egress queue assigned to the packet is based on the packet CoS value. When this keyword is entered, the traffic is sent through the four QoS queues. Normally, the QoS information from a PC connected to an IP Phone should not be trusted. This is because the PC's applications might try to spoof CoS or Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) settings to gain premium network service. In this case, use the cos keyword so that the CoS bits are overwritten to value by the IP Phone as packets are forwarded to the switch. If CoS values from the PC cannot be trusted, they should be overwritten to a value of 0.

Question 7.
According to the best practices, in a service provider network, which statement is true as related to the QoS policy that should be implemented on the inbound provider (P) to provider (P) router link?

A. In the DiffServ model, all ingress and egress QoS processing are done at the network edge (for example, PE router), so no input or output QoS policy will be needed on the P to P link.
B. Class-based marking should be implemented because it will be needed for the class-based queuing that will be used on the P router output.
C. Traffic policing should be implemented to rate-limit the ingress traffic into the P router.
D. Because traffic should have already been policed and marked on the upstream ingress PE router, no input QoS policy is needed on the P to P link.

Answer: D

Question 8. 
DRAG DROP
Drop
 
Answer:
 

Question 9. HOTSPOT
HOTSPOT
 
Answer:
 

Explanation:
 
Question 10.
A Frame Relay interface has been configured for adaptive shaping with a minimum rate of 15 kbps. The current maximum transmit rate is 56 kbps. If three FECNs are received over the next 4 seconds, what will be the maximum transmit rate after the last FECN has been received?

A. 10 kbps
B. 37 kbps
C. 7 kbps
D. 15 kbps
E. 28 kbps
F. 56 kbps

Answer: F

Explanation:
User specified traffic shaping can be performed on a Frame Relay interface or sub-interface with the traffic-shape rate command. The traffic-shape adaptive command can be specified to allow the shape of the traffic to dynamically adjust to congestion experienced by the Frame-Relay provider. This is achieved through the reception of Backward Explicit Congestion Notifications (BECN) from the Frame Relay switch. When a Frame Relay switch becomes congested it sends BECNs in the direction the traffic is coming from and it generates Forward Explicit Congestion Notifications (FECN) in the direction the traffic is flowing to. If the traffic-shape fecn-adapt command is configured at both ends of the link, the far end will reflect FECNs as BECNs. BECNs notify the sender to decrease the transmission rate. If the traffic is one-way only, such as multicast traffic, there is no reverse traffic with BECNs to notify the sender to slow down. Therefore, when a DTE device receives a FECN, it first determines if it is sending any data in return. If it is sending return data, this data will get marked with a BECN on its way to the other DTE device. However, if the DTE device is not sending any data, the DTE device can send a Q.922 TEST RESPONSE message with the BECN bit set.


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Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey (CUWSS)

 Question 1.
How many access points will a Cisco 7600 Series Router with six installed Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Wireless Services Modules support?

A. 300
B. 448
C. 664
D. 1800
E. 2400

Answer: D

Question 2.
Which value is NOT supported by Cisco Spectrum Expert, when checking for RF coverage?

A. access point received-signal strength level
B. spectrum utilization
C. client data rate
D. in-band radio frequency interference

Answer: C

Question 3.
Which is NOT part of a typical wireless site survey?

A. implementation suggestions
B. access point locations
C. security requirements
D. access point mounting methods

Answer: C

Question 4.
What are two objectives of a pre-site survey walkthrough? (Choose two.)

A. identify potential problem areas
B. define intended coverage areas
C. assess compliance with local building codes
D. determine the final location of APs and antennas
E. identify sources of RF signal attenuation and RF interference

Answer: A, B

Question 5.
If there is an existing 802.11g WLAN at a site, which service can be provided without conducting a new site survey?

A. add a new 802.11a WLAN
B. increase the Layer 2 and Layer 3 security of the WLAN
C. increase the throughput for the wireless clients
D. add new services (such as voice) over the WLAN

Answer: B

Question 6.
Construction of a new automobile parts manufacturing facility has recently been completed. The facility IT manager wants to deploy voice over WLAN. During your initial walkthrough, you observe numerous highly reflective surfaces on the manufacturing equipment and in the building construction itself. 

What potential problem exists that should be accounted for during your site survey?

A. LOS modulation
B. multipath distortion
C. RF signal absorption
D. RF signal attenuation
E. Fresnel zone impedance

Answer: B

Question 7.
To which parameter should the access point be set during a site survey?

A. transmit only
B. diversity
C. receive only
D. single isolated antenna

Answer: B

Question 8.
Which statement is true when using a Cisco Wireless Mesh Networking Solution?

A. The backhaul link isdynamic 1 to 54 Mb/s.
B. The backhaul link is typically a fixed value.
C. The backhaul link uses DAS antennas.
D. The backhaul link uses antenna multiplexing.
E. The backhaul link does not rely on fade margin.

Answer: B

Question 9.
What approximates the signal attenuation of a plasterboard wall?

A. crowd of people
B. office window
C. metal door
D. brick wall

Answer: B

Question 10.
The AirMagnet passive site survey tool can provide RF coverage data, except for which parameter?

A. Signal Strength (4th access point)
B. Signal Strength (3rd access point)
C. Channel Interference
D. Predictive Physical Data Rate Downlink (2nd access point)

Answer: A

Question 11.
Where should known problem areas in the site survey be documented?

A. nowhere (but should be discussed with the customer)
B. on the site survey map and within the site survey text
C. on the customer's blueprints
D. in the Cisco WCS Planning Tool

Answer: B



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