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Hi, does anyone have any lates practice exams for network+.
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Nice collection with answers thanks
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Question 1.
Which service component within the design phase does the following describe? Consider the customer's defined business requirements and the associated performance, availability, resiliency, maintainability, resource capacity, and security criteria used to measure and assure the delivery of the required services.
A. Staging Plan
B. Implementation Plan
C. Business Plan
D. Detailed Design Validation
E. Project Kick-off
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which service component within the prepare phase validates the features and functionality documented in the high-level design of a solution?
A. Proof of Concept
B. High-level Design Development
C. Business Case Development
D. Business Requirements Development
E. Operations Technology Strategy Development
F. Technology Strategy Development
Answer: A
Question 3.
In the implement phase, project close-out involves which of the following tasks?
A. deliver education based on Staff Planning Development reports
B. conduct Engagement Profitability Assessment
C. execute network migration plan
D. customize ongoing support hand-off kit
Answer: B
Question 4.
In the implement phase, project close-out involves which of the following tasks?
A. deliver education based on Staff Planning Development reports
B. customize ongoing support hand-off kit
C. conduct Engagement Profitability Assessment
D. execute network migration plan
Answer: C
Question 5.
In the design phase, performing a needs analysis to identify the resource requirements and skills needed to deliver and support a network infrastructure is an activity of which service component?
A. Implementation Kick-off Meeting
B. Implementation Plan
C. Project Kick-off
D. Staging Plan
E. Migration Plan
F. Staff Plan Development
Answer: F
Question 6.
In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task?
A. Execute test cases
B. Configure core products
C. Perform preliminary Site Assessment
D. Analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which one of the following describes the task for completing an operations readiness assessment in the plan phase?
A. determining network elements that will be tested
B. reviewing hardware and software configuration staging plan
C. entering documentation into knowledge management system
D. developing backup/recovery plan
E. creating an escalation plan
F. obtaining and reviewing operation procedures and policies
Answer: F
Question 8.
In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task?
A. perform preliminary Site Assessment
B. configure core products
C. execute test cases
D. analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which of the following definitions best describes services stack within the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach?
A. the minimum set of services that a customer needs to successfully deploy and operate a Cisco
technology or solution
B. the required set of services needed to successfully deploy and support Cisco Advanced
Technologies
C. the identification of Advanced Technologies to best support business requirements and
objectives
D. the minimum set of services required to operate and optimize Cisco Advanced Technologies
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which of the following definitions best describes business requirements development within the prepare phase?
A. a set of service component activities that assesses and documents the business requirements
of a customer
B. part of the systems design activity that identifies and documents business requirements to help
deploy network technologies
C. part of the high-level design activity that addresses business and technical requirements of the
customer
D. a service component activity that analyzes business requirements and recommends the
appropriate technology strategy
Answer: A
Question 11.
Your ITCertKeys trainee, ITCertKeys, asks you which of the following three tasks are executed in the security administration component of the operate phase? (Choose three.)
A. utilization monitoring
B. customer operational account creation
C. identity management
D. security incident management
E. security configuration management
F. security problem escalation
Answer: C, D, E
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Question 1. Which service component within the design phase does the following describe? Consider the customer's defined business requirements and the associated performance, availability, resiliency, maintainability, resource capacity, and security criteria used to measure and assure the delivery of the required services. A. Staging Plan B. Implementation Plan C. Business Plan D. Detailed Design Validation E. Project Kick-off Answer: B Question 2. Which service component within the prepare phase validates the features and functionality documented in the high-level design of a solution? A. Proof of Concept B. High-level Design Development C. Business Case Development D. Business Requirements Development E. Operations Technology Strategy Development F. Technology Strategy Development Answer: A Question 3. In the implement phase, project close-out involves which of the following tasks? A. deliver education based on Staff Planning Development reports B. conduct Engagement Profitability Assessment C. execute network migration plan D. customize ongoing support hand-off kit Answer: B Question 4. In the implement phase, project close-out involves which of the following tasks? A. deliver education based on Staff Planning Development reports B. customize ongoing support hand-off kit C. conduct Engagement Profitability Assessment D. execute network migration plan Answer: C Question 5. In the design phase, performing a needs analysis to identify the resource requirements and skills needed to deliver and support a network infrastructure is an activity of which service component? A. Implementation Kick-off Meeting B. Implementation Plan C. Project Kick-off D. Staging Plan E. Migration Plan F. Staff Plan Development Answer: F Question 6. In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task? A. Execute test cases B. Configure core products C. Perform preliminary Site Assessment D. Analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer Answer: B Question 7. Which one of the following describes the task for completing an operations readiness assessment in the plan phase? A. determining network elements that will be tested B. reviewing hardware and software configuration staging plan C. entering documentation into knowledge management system D. developing backup/recovery plan E. creating an escalation plan F. obtaining and reviewing operation procedures and policies Answer: F Question 8. In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task? A. perform preliminary Site Assessment B. configure core products C. execute test cases D. analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer Answer: B Question 9. Which of the following definitions best describes services stack within the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach? A. the minimum set of services that a customer needs to successfully deploy and operate a Cisco technology or solution B. the required set of services needed to successfully deploy and support Cisco Advanced Technologies C. the identification of Advanced Technologies to best support business requirements and objectives D. the minimum set of services required to operate and optimize Cisco Advanced Technologies Answer: A Question 10. Which of the following definitions best describes business requirements development within the prepare phase? A. a set of service component activities that assesses and documents the business requirements of a customer B. part of the systems design activity that identifies and documents business requirements to help deploy network technologies C. part of the high-level design activity that addresses business and technical requirements of the customer D. a service component activity that analyzes business requirements and recommends the appropriate technology strategy Answer: A
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Question 1. A CallPilot customer site will be using Multimedia Messaging. The switch will need a specific kind of configuration for this messaging service. What is the required configuration? A. Regular DN B. Phantom DN C. Control DN (CDN) D. ACD-DN dummy queue Answer: C Question 2. With CallPilot RIs. 5.0, when upgrading to a new release of CallPilot, the number of reserved seats may now be reduced. You are performing an upgrade on a CallPilot RIs. 4.0 system with a keycode that authorizes 500 Fax messaging seats. Only 200 Fax messaging seats are currently in use. Which is the minimum number of Fax messaging seats that can be authorized with a new RIs. 5.0 keycode? A. 100 B. 200 C. 250 D. 500 Answer: B Question 3. You are preparing to install CallPilot RIs.5.0 for a customer. The customer wants to access the CallPilot system from the LAN and must provide some information for the installation. What information must the customer provide? A. DHCP server B. a Cat-5 cable C. an Ethernet switch D. a static IP address and subnet mask Answer: D Question 4. When installing CallPilot Reporter, what is a valid installation option? A. Client PC B. CallPilot server C. Administrator PC D. Customer provided Web server Answer: D Question 5. An administrator cannot login to CallPilot Manager from the login web page. You have confirmed that the administrator is entering their correct mailbox number and password and that their mailbox is not disabled. What should you check? A. that the user's PC is running Internet Information Server (IIS) B. that the Server field contains the correct server name for the CallPilot system C. that the Location field contains the correct server name for the CallPilot system D. that the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) option is turned on because passwords can only be passed over SSL Answer: B Question 6. CallPilot desktop messaging has several CallPilot RIs.5.0 feature enhancements. Which are two of these enhancements? (Choose two.) A. ping on Startup B. Global CallPilot Address Book C. creating personal distribution lists D. Deliver to Location in Microsoft Outlook Answer: B, D Question 7. The CallPilot RIs. 5.0 has introduced the High Availability feature. The High Availability feature is available on which CallPilot server platform? A. 703t B. 600r C. 1005r D. 1002rp Answer: C Question 8. When installing CallPilot Reporter RIs. 5.0 on the standalone Web server, additional required software is also installed. Which version of Crystal Reports is installed? A. Crystal Reports 8 B. Crystal Reports X C. Crystal Reports 8.5 D. Crystal Reports Xl Answer: D Question 9. Which software is required before installing CallPilot Manager on a stand-alone Web server? A. PC Anywhere B. Sybase Database C. Java Runtime Environment D. Internet Information Server (IIS) Answer: D Question 10. Your customer is upgrading to CallPilot RIs. 5.0. The current keycode authorizes 500 Speech Activated Messaging seats but the customer is currently only using 100 seats. With the upgrade and a new CallPilot Rls. 5.0 keycode, what two options does the customer have for the unused Speech Activated Messaging seats? (Choose two.) A. No options are available; the number of seats cannot be reduced. B. Take no action and retain the unused Speech Activated Messaging seats. C. Reduce the number of Speech Activated Messaging seats authorized in the new keycode to 100 or more. D. Reduce the number of Speech Activated Messaging seats authorized in the new keycode to any number as long as the feature is supported on at least 1 seat. Answer: B, C
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Question 1. Which cache management algorithm is based on the assumption that data will not be requested by the host when it has not been accessed for a while? A. LRU B. HWM C. LWM D. MRU Answer: A Explanation: Question 2. What does the area ID of the FC address identify? A. Group of ports within a switch B. An individual port within a fabric C. Location of the name server within the fabric D. Unique number provided to each switch in the fabric Answer: A Explanation: Question 3. An organization performs copy on first access (CoFA) replication to create a local replica of application data. To perform a successful restore, what should be considered? A. Source devices must be healthy B. Save location size must be larger than the size of all source devices C. Save location size must be equal to the size of all source devices D. All changes to the source and replica must be discarded before the restore starts Answer: A Explanation: Question 4. Which host component eliminates the need to deploy separate adapters for FC and Ethernet communications? A. Converged network adapter B. TCP Offload Engine NIC C. FCIP bridging adapter D. iSCSI host bus adapter Answer: A Explanation: Question 5. What is a function of unified management software in cloud computing? A. Defining cloud service attributes B. Consolidating infrastructure resources scattered across one or more data centers C. Metering based on usage of resources by the consumer D. Providing an interface to consumers to request cloud services Answer: A Explanation: Question 6. Which EMC product provides the capability to recover data up to any point-in-time? A. RecoverPoint B. NetWorker C. Avamar D. Data Domain Answer: A Explanation: Question 7. What is needed to perform a non-disruptive migration of virtual machines (VMs) between hypervisors? A. Hypervisors must have access to the same storage volume B. Physical machines running hypervisors must have the same configuration C. Hypervisors must be running within the same physical machine D. Both hypervisors must have the same IP address Answer: A Explanation: Question 8. Which iSCSI name requires an organization to own a registered domain name? A. IQN B. EUI C. WWNN D. WWPN Answer: A Explanation: Question 9. Which data center requirement refers to applying mechanisms that ensure data is stored and retrieved as it was received? A. Integrity B. Availability C. Security D. Performance Answer: A Explanation: Question 10. What describes a landing zone in a disk drive? A. Area on which the read/write head rests B. Area where the read/write head lands to access data C. Area where the data is buffered before writing to platters D. Area where sector-specific information is stored on the disk Answer: A Explanation:
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Question 1 Exhibit: You work as a network administrator at Certpaper.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Identify the HBA and F port in the SAN Core/Edge exhibit. A. 7 and 1 B. 7 and 5 C. 4 and 5 D. 6 and 3 Answer: B Question 2. What is a benefit of tracking changes to the source and target devices after a point in time replica is created? A. Reduces the Recovery Time Objective for restart operations from the target B. Speeds up the re-synchronization of the source and target C. Speeds up the initial synchronization of the source and target D. Reduces the Recovery Point Objective for restart operations from the target Answer: B Question 3. What does a cache dirty bit flag? A. Changed data not yet written to disk B. Data read from disk but not accessed by the host C. Changed data written to disk D. Data requested by host but not yet fetched Answer: A Question 4. Which remote replication solution has the lowest bandwidth requirement? A. Log shipping over IP networks B. Array based synchronous replication C. Asynchronous ordered writes D. Host based LVM Mirroring Answer: A Question 5. An application uses ten 9 GB Devices. A pointer based replica of the application is required every 4 hours. Each replica will be kept for 24 hours. The data changes by 10% every 4 hours. How many replica devices are required? A. 10 B. 90 C. 6 D. 60 Answer: D Question 6. What is a remote replication solution on EMC Symmetrix Arrays? A. SnapView B. EMCTimeFinder/Mirror C. SRDF/S D. MirrorView/A Answer: C Question 7. What is a benefit of a NAS Solution? A. Introduces block level I/O to the networked environment B. Enables the ability to share data across platforms C. Improved network bandwidth D. Improved network performance Answer: B Question 8. What is a logical component of a storage environment? A. Storage array B. Bus C. Memory D. Application Answer: D Question 9. Which statement describes the iSCSI protocol? A. SCSI over ATA B. SCSI over IP SCSI over IP C. IP over SCSI D. ATA over SCSI Answer: B Question 10. Exhibit: You work as a network administrator at Certpaper.com. You study the exhibit carefully. In the environment shown in the exhibit, the storage devices are RAID-1 protected. Which two components are Single Points of Failure? A. Switch andStorage Array Port B. Host and Switch C. Storage Array Port and Storage Device D. HBA and Host Answer: A
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Question 1. Name the Celerra software feature which creates a remote synchronous copy of production file systems at a remote location. A. SnapSure B. Celerra TimeFinder/FS C. Celerra SRDF D. Celerra Checkpoint Answer: C Question 2. State the function of Centera Viewer for the System Administrator. A. Create and manage volumes B. Develop and maintain filesystem structure C. Verify data authenticity D. Monitor capacity and performance Answer: D Question 3. Explain how free space is maintained in CLARiiON write cache. A. Low watermark flushing is suspended during write operations B. Cache is flushed using three algorithms: Idle, Watermark and Forced C. Cache is flushed only during read operations D. Cache is automatically flushed every 90 minutes Answer: B Question 4. Explain how cache is allocated in a CLARiiON array. A. track B. partition C. page D. segment Answer: C Question 5. How much space must be set aside in the array for the SnapView Clone Private LUN (CPL), per CLARiiON Storage Processor? A. CPL must be same size as Source LUN B. 256MB C. 128MB D. 64 MB Answer: C Question 6. In addition to EMC arrays, name the other arrays which are supported by PowerPath. A. NETAPP FAS980 B. IBM ESS(Shark) C. IBM DS800 D. Sun StorEdge A5200 Answer: B Question 7. Explain what an iSCSI naming convention is. A. DNS B. CHAP C. EUI D. DHCP Answer: C Question 8. Name two [2] features of Celerra Replicator. A. Only sends changed data over the IP network B. Synchronous data recovery C. Point-in-time copy over IP network D. Only sends Control Station configuration parameters over the IP network Answer: C, D Question 9. Name the failover mode which is provided by Celerra TimeFinder/FS Near Copy. A. Real-time adaptive copy B. Full duplex asynchronous C. Real-time semi-synchronous D. Real-time synchronous Answer: D Question 10. Name a characteristic of cache memory on a CLARiiON array with cache enabled on the SP. A. Page size is set for the array B. Write cache is not mirrored C. Page size is set for each LUN D. Write cache is always mirrored Answer: D
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Question 1. Which command is used to assign root privileges to an existing user? A. /nas/sbin/enableRootToUser B. /nas/sbin/addRootIdToUser C. /nas/sbin/switchToRoot D. /nas/sbin/enableRootID Answer: B Explanation: Question 2. Which Unisphere storage domain role will limit a user to the administration of file system checkpoints, LUN mirrors, and Replication Manager tasks? A. Data recovery B. Data protection C. Administrator D. NAS administrator Answer: A Explanation: Question 3. In a VNX system, which feature manages access to specific management clients? A. IP address filtering B. Auditing C. Public key infrastructure D. User privileges Answer: A Explanation: Question 4. Which LDAP username format is correct for CLI authentication on a VNX system? A.\ B. .FQDN C. @FQDN D. Answer: C Explanation: Question 5. What is the maximum number of LDAP service connections available when configuring LDAP for VNX Block storage systems? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 Answer: B Explanation: Question 6. What is the default port used for secure LDAP (LDAPS) communications on a VNX system? A. 389 B. 443 C. 563 D. 636 Answer: D Explanation: Question 7. In which file are the default audit events defined? A. /etc/auditd.conf B. /nas/audit/audit.rules C. /nas/etc/audit.rules D. /etc/audit/audit.rules Answer: D Explanation: Question 8. In which directory are VNX audit logs located? A. /celerra/audit B. /nas/var/log C. /nas/log D. /var/log Answer: A Explanation: Question 9. What is the length of RSA keys used to encrypt and decrypt network traffic in a VNX environment? A. 2048 bits B. 1024 bits C. 2048 bytes D. 1024 bytes Answer: A Explanation: Question 10. Which authority (ies) signs certificates generated for Data Movers? A. Data Movers B. External CA, Control Station C. Management server D. Data Movers, management server Answer: B Explanation:
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Question 1. Which VNX enclosures use a common motherboard architecture? A. DME and SPE B. DPE and SPE C. DPE and 25-drive DAE D. Control Station and DME Answer: A Explanation: Question 2. What protocols does the Data Mover support? A. CIFS, NFS, pNFS and MPFS B. CIFS, pNFS, and SCSI C. MPFS, HTTP, FTP, and NFS D. NFS, FC, and CIFS Answer: A Explanation: Question 3. What are the minimum components required to configure a VNX5500 for Block storage system? A. Control Station, SP, DAE B. Control Station, SP, DME C. SP, DME, DAE D. SPS, SPE, DAE Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. Which kind of back-end bus connectivity is supported on a VNX storage system? A. 4 lane 6 Gb/s SAS B. 4 lane 6 Gb/s FC C. 2 lane 6 Gb/s SAS D. 2 lane 6 Gb/s FC Answer: A Explanation: Question 5. How are SAS bus hardware IDs configured for the VNX enclosures? A. Automatically assigned during system boot process B. Assigned by the address switch located on each enclosure C. Assigned by Unisphere Service Manager D. Assigned by the Backend Bus Reset Wizard in Unisphere Answer: A Explanation: Question 6. A customer asks your help in determining which types of DPE and disk drives are supported in a VNX storage system. How would you respond? A. 2U DPE with either fifteen 2.5” SAS or twenty-five 3.5" EFD disk drives B. 3U DPE with either fifteen 3.5” EFD, SAS or twenty-five 2.5" SAS disk drives C. 4U DPE with either fifteen 3.5” FC, EFD or twenty-five .2.5" SAS disk drives D. 3U DPE with either fifteen 2.5” EFD, FC or twenty-five 2.5” EFD disk drives Answer: B Explanation: Question 7. Refer to the exhibit. Where is DM 3 located? A. Location 6 B. Location 5 C. Location 7 D. Location 10 Answer: A Explanation: Question 8. What IP address is assigned to the eth2 interface on a Control Station? A. IP address for the B management network B. IP address for the A management network C. Public IP address for the customer's network D. IP address for the peer Control Station Answer: A Explanation: Question 9. What IP address is assigned to the eth3 interface on a Control Station? A. IP address for the A management network B. IP address for the B management network C. Public IP address for the customer's network D. IP address for the peer Control Station Answer: C Explanation: Question 10. Refer to the exhibit. Which component is located in location 3? A. CS 1 B. CS 0 C. DAE 0 D. DAE 1 Answer: A Explanation:
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