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Braindumps for "310-080" Exam

latest dump

 Can someone please upload the latest dump for 310-080.


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Braindumps: Dumps for 642-373 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "642-373" Exam

Cisco Express Foundation for Systems Engineers

 Question 1.
Which of these is a benefit of an integrated security management system?

A. It provides configuration, monitoring, and troubleshooting capabilities across a wide range of 
    security products.
B. It leverages existing network management systems such as HP Open View to lower the cost of 
    implementation.
C. It integrates security management capabilities into the router or switch.
D. It integrates security device management products and collects events on an "as needed" 
    Basis to reduce management overhead.
E. It provides a single point of contact for all security configuration tasks thereby enhancing the 
    return on investment.

Answer: A

Question 2.
DRAG DROP
Drop
 

Answer:
 

Question 3.
Which service component within the prepare phase recommends the appropriate technology strategy to address a business requirement of the customer?

A. identifying what a customer requires from a proposed solution
B. determining what end-user training a customer requires
C. analyzes the customer's business requirements and recommends the appropriate Cisco 
    technologies to meet business requirements
D. addressing a customer's physical requirements

Answer: C

Question 4.
What are two important approaches to communicate when identifying a customer's security risks? (Choose two.)

A. Security should be a continuous process.
B. Security solutions should come from multiple vendors to make it easier to coordinate security 
    events from the point of origin.
C. The designated security expert should report to the IT department, since that is where the 
    solution will be implemented.
D. Business strategy should directly relate to the security policy and budget.
E. Smaller companies are at less risk than larger enterprises, so their security needs are not as 
    great.

Answer: A, D

Question 5.
Which of the following best describe the customer benefit of creating a systems acceptance test plan in the design phase?

A. reduce operating costs and limit change-related incidents by providing a consistent and 
    Efficient set of processes
B. improve the return on investment and hasten migration by identifying and planning for 
    necessary infrastructure changes and resource additions, as well as reduce deployment costs 
    by analyzing gaps early in the planning process to determine what is needed to support the 
    system
C. improve its ability to make sound financial decisions by developing a business case based on 
    Its business requirements and establishing a basis for developing a technology strategy
D. reduce unnecessary disruption, delays, rework, and other problems by establishing test cases 
    for use in verifying that the system meets operational, functional, and interface requirements

Answer: D

Question 6.
A Cisco Catalyst switch can belong to how many VTP domains?

A. 2
B. 1 to 4,096
C. 1
D. 1 to 1,005
E. no limit

Answer: C

Question 7.
The Cisco ASA Security Appliance can offer the benefit of integrating which three security services into one device? (Choose three.)

A. PIX firewall
B. VPN Concentrator
C. IPS
D. DDoS Anomaly Guard and Detector
E. CSA MC
F. ACS server

Answer: A, B, C

Question 8.
A customer has deployed a wireless core feature set using autonomous access points and now wants to include a satellite building 4,500 feet away from the main campus. The customer also wants to provide wireless access to a courtyard for wireless clients in close proximity to the antenna mounting position. 

Which Cisco Aironet product is the most applicable solution?

A. Cisco Aironet 1000 Series
B. Cisco Aironet 1300 Series
C. Cisco Aironet 1100 Series
D. Cisco Aironet 1400 Series
E. Cisco Aironet 1200 Series

Answer: B

Question 9.
What is one benefit of the Cisco anti-X defense strategy?

A. virtual firewall protection
B. malware, virus, and worm mitigation
C. applications security
D. security events correlation for proactive response

Answer: B

Question 10.
Which two of these statements best describe the benefits of Cisco's wireless IDS functionality? (Choose two.)

A. Autonomous APs must be dedicated IDS sensors while lightweight APs can combine client 
    traffic and RF monitoring.
B. Cisco or CCX compatible client cards can extend the RF IDS service for autonomous APs.
C. 2.4GHz RF management can monitor both 802.11 and non-802.11 RF interference.
D. APs only monitor the RF channels that are servicing the clients.
E. AirDefense for wireless IDS is required by autonomous APs.

Answer: B, C



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Braindumps: Dumps for HP0-A01 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "HP0-A01" Exam

HP-UX 11i v3 System Administration

 Question 1.
What does the linkloop command test?

A. router activity
B. Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) size
C. MAC address connectivity between network cards
D. loopback address connectivity between network cards

Answer: C

Question 2.
Which file contains the information sent in response to a bootp request?

A. /etc/services
B. /etc/bootptab
C. /etc/inetd.conf
D. /etc/bootp.conf

Answer: B

Question 3.
Which commands can confirm host name resolution (DNS/Bind) is working correctly?

A. whois
B. uname
C. nsquery
D. hostname
E. gethostbyname

Answer: C

Question 4.
What is IP multiplexing on a UNIX host?

A. increasing throughput on the network interface
B. binding the same IP address to multiple network interface
C. binding more than one IP address to a single network interface
D. binding more than one MAC address to a single network interface

Answer: C

Question 5.
Which tools have been deprecated with the introduction of the nwmgr command? (Select three.)

A. netstat
B. ifconfig
C. linkloop
D. lanscan
E. lanadmin

Answer: C, D, E

Question 6.
How can you enable only NFS version 4 support on HP-UX 11i v3?

A. HP-UX v3 does not support NFSv4.
B. Change the NFSv4 kernel parameter to yes, recompile the kernel and reboot.
C. Using only NFSv4 is not supported; NFSv2 and NFSv3 are always enabled.
D. Set the configuration parameters NFS_SERVER_VERSMIN and NFS_SERVER_VERSMAX to 4.

Answer: D

Question 7.
Which NFS server file contains a list of clients that currently have the server's NFS file systems mounted?

A. /etc/fstab
B. /etc/rmtab
C. /etc/nfstab
D. /etc/mnttab
E. /etc/exports

Answer: B

Question 8.
What is the length of an IPv4 address?

A. 32 bits
B. 48 bits
C. 64 bits
D. 128 bits

Answer: A

Question 9.
What are the major features of IPFilter on HP-UX 11i v3? (Select three.)

A. creates extensive logs
B. supports X.25 Interfaces
C. installed and enabled by default
D. provides a new GUI configuration tool
E. supports Network Address Translation (NAT)

Answer: A, B, E

Question 10.
Which command displays Internet to Ethernet address resolution?

A. arp
B. lanscan
C. ifconfig
D. traceroute

Answer: A


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Braindumps: Dumps for HP0-A02 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "HP0-A02" Exam

HP-UX 11i v3 Advanced System Administration

 Question 1.
What are the benefits of IPQoS? (Select two.)

A. policy-based bandwidth provisioning
B. automatic configuration of IP interfaces
C. prioritize only inbound network bandwidth
D. prioritize only outbound network bandwidth
E. prioritize both outbound and inbound network bandwidth

Answer: A, D

Question 2.
Using drag and drop, match each record type with its correct definition.
 
Answer:
 
Question 3.
What is the first step when creating an NIS Master server?

A. nisinit -a
B. update all ASCII source files
C. /sbin/init.d/ypinit start
D. /sbin/init.d/nis.server start

Answer: B

Question 4.
Which feature allows concurrent access of NFS and CIFS clients on a file without corrupting it?

A. NFS v4
B. Unified File Cache
C. Memory-Mapped Access
D. CIFS File System Module (CFSM)

Answer: D

Question 5.
Which program initially starts rpcbind at boot?

A. /sbin/init.d/net
B. /sbin/init.d/named
C. /sbin/init.d/nfs.core
D. /sbin/init.d/rpcbind

Answer: C

Question 6.
Which feature allows the LDAP-UX client to retrieve user information from LDAP Directory Servers that do not support the posixAccount objectclass (RFC2307)?

A. SASL
B. attribute mapping
C. configuration profile
D. service search descriptors

Answer: B

Question 7.
What is the configuration file for the HP CIFS Server product?

A. /etc/opt/samba/smb.conf
B. /etc/opt/samba/cifs.conf
C. /etc/opt/samba/swat.conf
D. /etc/opt/samba/samba.conf

Answer: A

Question 8.
When a connection is established with inetd for a service, inetd runs the appropriate server specified in the /etc/inetd.conf file and waits for other connections. 

Which HP-UX application can be used in addition to inetd to verify whether a host or network can execute a service provided in inetd.conf?

A. IPsec
B. IPfilter
C. TCP wrappers
D. Security Advisor

Answer: C

Question 9.
Which command prints out the network routing table?

A. netstat
B. nwmgr
C. ifconfig
D. lanscan
E. lanadmin

Answer: A

Question 10.
Which command uses NTP to keep the local system clock in sync with other nodes on the network?

A. /usr/sbin/ntpsync
B. /usr/sbin/ntpdate
C. /usr/sbin/ntpscan
D. /usr/sbin/ntpd.conf

Answer: B


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Braindumps: Dumps for BCP-410 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "BCP-410" Exam

Maintaining a BlackBerry Enterprise Server in a Microsoft Exchange Environment

 Question 1.
 
What are three functions of the BlackBerry Policy Service? (Choose three.)

A. Sends a set of rules that configures BlackBerry device security features
B. Polls for applications that are installed on the BlackBerry device
C. Compresses and encrypts data to and from the BlackBerry device
D. Sends service books that configure BlackBerry device functionality
E. Synchronizes any custom security settings on the BlackBerry device

Answer: A, B, D

Question 2.
A system administrator wants to wirelessly deploy a third-party application to multiple BlackBerry devices while providing the BlackBerry device users with the ability to remove the software at a later time. 

What must the disposition of the assigned application control policy be set to, in order to accomplish this? (Choose one.)

A. Required
B. Optional
C. Disallowed
D. Prompt
E. Available

Answer: B

Question 3.
When setting up a software configuration, the Configuration Status field shows Unknown Configuration for a specific BlackBerry device user account. 

Which statement is true? (Choose one.)

A. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server has not polled the BlackBerry Configuration Database for which applications need to be installed/removed on the BlackBerry device.
B. The user has not yet been assigned to a software configuration.
C. The delivery method within the software configuration for this application has not yet been set.
D. The Disallow Third-Party Downloads IT policy has been set to True.
E. The Applications directory needs to be indexed so the software configuration status can be updated to reflect the current applications that need to be installed or removed.

Answer: A

Question 4.
A company utilizing a segmented network, installs the BlackBerry Attachment Server on its own server in a separate segment from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server. With which component would the BlackBerry Attachment Server be unable to communicate if it was installed in a different segment of the network? (Choose one.)

A. Microsoft Exchange Server
B. Microsoft SQL Server
C. BlackBerry Messaging Agent
D. BlackBerry Dispatcher
E. BlackBerry Controller

Answer: C

Question 5.
A new BlackBerry device user is unable to perform a wireless enterprise activation because there is insufficient network coverage. The user has the BlackBerry Desktop Manager installed. When attempting to perform a wired enterprise activation, the enterprise activation is unable to initialize. 

Which three actions ensure the enterprise activation initializes? (Choose three.)

A. Switch to a new USB port on the computer.
B. Create a new MAPI profile on computer.
C. Enable port 4101 on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
D. Delete and undelete the Desktop [SYNC] service book on the BlackBerry device.
E. Uninstall and reinstall the BlackBerry Desktop Manager software on the computer.

Answer: A, B, C

Question 6.
A company utilizing a segmented network structure recently installed the BlackBerry Collaboration Service, configured it to use the TLS protocol for Microsoft Windows Messenger on its own server, and placed it in a network segment from the Microsoft Live Communications Server. 

Which port must be open on the internal firewall to allow TLS traffic? (Choose one.)

A. 5061
B. 5060
C. 443
D. 8443
E. 1533

Answer: A

Question 7.
A PIN message is sent from the BlackBerry device and a letter D is displayed above the checkmark beside the message in the message list. 

What does this indicate about the status of the message? (Choose one.)

A. It is delayed.
B. It is denied.
C. It is delivered.
D. It is deleted.
E. It is dropped.

Answer: C

Question 8.
A company needs to reduce the load on the Microsoft SQL Server hosting the BlackBerryConfiguration Database. Which component can be configured to reduce the number of queries made by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to the database? (Choose one.)

A. Microsoft SQL Query Analyzer
B. BlackBerry Manager
C. Database Notification System
D. Database Replication System
E. Microsoft SQL Server Agent

Answer: C

Question 9.
What option can be disabled to restrict Microsoft Excel attachments only for the BlackBerry Attachment Service? (Choose one.)

A. The attachment type using the BlackBerry Server Configuration utility
B. The attachment type using an IT policy setting in the BlackBerry Manager
C. Attachment viewing through the BlackBerry device user properties on the BlackBerry Manager
D. The attachment type using the BlackBerry Resource Kit
E. The BlackBerry Attachment Service through Microsoft Windows services

Answer: A

Question 10.
Which type of database replication is supported in the BlackBerry Enterprise Solution? (Choose one.)

A. Transactional
B. Analytical processing
C. Merge
D. Snapshot
E. Architectural

Answer: A


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Braindumps: Dumps for N10-004 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "N10-004" Exam

Network+ (2009)

 Question 1.
Which of the following LAN connection technologies has a full duplex speed of 200Mbps and uses a CAT5e cable?

A. 1000Base-X
B. 100Base-FX
C. 1000Base-TX
D. 100Base-T

Answer: D

Question 2.
A technician must enable which of the following services to prevent broadcast storms?

A. DHCP
B. Port mirroring
C. Spanning tree
D. Bonding

Answer: C

Question 3.
One end of a CAT5 cable is punched down following the 568B standard. 

The other end should be terminated using which standard to make a straight-through cable?

A. 568B
B. RJ-45
C. 568A
D. RJ-11

Answer: A

Question 4.
Which of the following IPv4 address pairs would be able to share files on a network using a hub?

A. 10.192.2.220/16 and 10.254.2.222/16
B. 10.254.2.220/16 and 10.254.2.222/24
C. 10.192.2.220/16 and 10.254.2.222/16
D. 10.254.2.220/16 and 10.254.2.222/16

Answer: D

Question 5.
Which of the following networks has the LEAST likelihood of collisions?

A. Ring
B. Mesh
C. Star
D. Bus

Answer: A

Question 6.
A technician is configuring a router for a SOHO network. The technician has changed the IP address scheme on the router and disabled DHCP service before the wireless was configured. After the router updates the information, the PC can no longer connect to the router. 

Which of the following would be the BEST solution to reestablish the connection while maintaining the routers current configuration state?

A. Restart the PC so it obtains a new IP address from the router.
B. Restart the router so that the PC obtains a new IP address.
C. Assign a static IP address on the PC that matches the router.
D. Use APIPA to connect the PC to the router.

Answer: C

Question 7.
Which of the following is the number of bits used for IPv6?

A. 128
B. 32
C. 64
D. 256

Answer: A

Question 8.
Which of the following network components would be used to create VLANs?

A. Routers
B. Gateways
C. Switches
D. Bridges

Answer: C

Question 9.
Which of the following protocols is the MOST susceptible to a packet sniffer?

A. SFTP
B. SSH
C. HTTPS
D. SNMPv2

Answer: D

Question 10.
Which of the following WAN technologies uses fiber as a transmission medium?

A. T1
B. ADSL
C. E1
D. SONET

Answer: D

Question 11.
Which of the following would be a correct statement about VLANs?

A. VLANs help isolate network traffic.
B. VLAN broadcasts are limited to the switch.
C. VLANs create physical segments.
D. VLANs help prevent overlapping.

Answer: A



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Braindumps: Dumps for PK0-002 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "PK0-002" Exam

It Project+

 Question 1.
During the planning and implementation phases, there is often a need to conduct trade-offs between several approaches to the project execution.
The trade-offs are made between_______ .

A. Scope, issues, and risks.
B. Risk, schedule, and quality.
C. Cost, schedule, and quality.
D. Overhead, direct cost, and expenses.
E. Design, engineering, and implementation.

Answer: C

Question 2.
What is the core function of a project manager?

A. Project integration
B. Client interface
C. Systems design
D. Quality assurance
E. Facilitating meetings

Answer: A

Question 3.
Which two methods are valid for developing project task duration estimates? (Choose two)

A. Historical data
B. Expert judgement
C. Value engineering
D. Stochastic estimating
E. Bottoms-up estimating

Answer: A, B

Question 4.
Which component is used to estimate resource requirements, activity durations, and costs?

A. Project plan
B. Implementation plan
C. Business requirements
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Answer: D

Question 5.
DRAG DROP
Exhibit:
 
Task A is dependent on the completion of Task B. Task C is dependent on the starting of
Task B.
Place the tasks in the order in which they will start.

Answer:
 
Question 6.
The firm you are working with, ITCertKeys.com, has a number of stakeholders with a wide variety of backgrounds. The stakeholders do not agree on the objectives for the project. 

What is the first thing you should do in order to resolve the differences the stakeholders have with respect to the project objectives?

A. Conduct a series of meetings with all stakeholders.
B. Conduct a brainstorming session with all stakeholders.
C. Prepare and deliver a presentation on objective development to all stakeholders.
D. Conduct interviews with each stakeholder to understand which objectives they feel are critical.

Answer: D

Question 7.
The project is well under way and you notice that the enthusiastic support of an executive stakeholder has diminished. You believe the executive now has doubt about the project.

Which three abilities would best help a project manager resolve this situation? (Choose one)

A. The ability to manage team resources.
B. The ability to identify the areas of doubts.
C. The ability to develop meaningful status reports.
D. The ability to act without creating negative impact.

Answer: B

Question 8.
Your project team has five developers. Developers 1 has a personal issue with the work schedule of Developer 2, and refuses to work overtime unless Developer 2 also works overtime. All team members, except Developer 2 work five days a week, averaging between 45 to 52 hours per week. Developer 2 works four days a week, and averages 48 hours per week. Your project is 70 percent complete, and is three percent behind schedule. Everyone met their task duration goals up to this point, but the project has been slightly delayed by an external vendor. If everyone works together you think you can make up the slippage. You worry that Developer 1's issue will cause the project to be delayed further. The rest of the group is working well together and Developer 2 is not aware of the issue.

What should you do to resolve the issue?

A. Have the two team members get together and work out their issues.
B. Talk with Developer 1 to find out the real issues and help him work on these issues.
C. See if Developer 2 can change this work schedule until the project is back on track.
D. Conduct a team building process with all the team members and recognize each of them for  their accomplishments.

Answer: B

Question 9.
You project plan designates several development phases. Some of the phases overlap. Your plan indicates where executive management involvement should occur. Executive management involvement includes the sign-off upon completion of a phase and approval for the start of the next phase. The plan indicates that the executive management meeting should take place in ten days. You are aware that the current phase will not be completed for 20 days. You are three percent ahead of budget in terms of cost, and one percent ahead of budget in terms of time. These figures are in-line with the variance allowance set for the phase by the executive management at the inception of the phase. 

What should you do?

A. Reduce the estimates of work outstanding to minimize the reported overrun in time and cost.
B. Move some of the incomplete tasks into a later phase as there is some slack in the plan that could be utilized.
C. Speak to the executive on the executive management and explain the need to delay the executive management meeting by 10 days.
D. Hold the executive management meeting in the previously appointed date so there is no inconvenience to the executive management members.

Answer: C

Question 10.
The ratio of Budgeted Cost of Work Performed to Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled (BCWP/BCWS) is called______ .

A. Critical Ratio (CR)
B. Cost Variance (CV)
C. Cost Performance Index (CPI)
D. Schedule Performance Index (SPI)

Answer: D

Explanation:
Schedule performance index
The schedule performance index (SPI) is a ratio of the work performed on a task versus the work scheduled. Here is its formula:
SPI = BCWP/BCWSAn SPI of less than 1.0 means you're behind schedule; a value over 1.0 means you're taking less time than you expected.


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Braindumps for "SY0-301" Exam

CompTIA Security + (2008 Edition) Exam

 Question 1.
Who is responsible for establishing access permissions to network resources in the DAC access control model?

A. The system administrator.
B. The owner of the resource.
C. The system administrator and the owner of the resource.
D. The user requiring access to the resource.

Answer: B

Question 2.
Why do security researchers often use virtual machines?

A. To offer an environment where new network applications can be tested
B. To offer a secure virtual environment to conduct online deployments
C. To offer a virtual collaboration environment to discuss security research
D. To offer an environment where malware can be executed with minimal risk to equipment and software

Answer: D

Question 3.
Which access control system allows the system administrator to establish access permissions to network resources?

A. MAC
B. DAC
C. RBAC
D. None of the above.

Answer: A

Question 4.
You work as a network administrator for your company. Taking personal safety into consideration, what fire suppression substances types can effectively prevent damage to electronic equipment?

A. Halon
B. CO
C. Water
D. Foam

Answer: B

Question 5.
Which of the following access control models uses roles to determine access permissions?

A. MAC
B. DAC
C. RBAC
D. None of the above.

Answer: C

Question 6.
Given: John is a network administrator. He advises the server administrator of his company to implement whitelisting, blacklisting, closing-open relays and strong authentication techniques. Question: 

Which threat is being addressed?

A. Viruses
B. Adware
C. Spam
D. Spyware

Answer: C

Question 7.
Most current encryption schemes are based on

A. digital rights management
B. time stamps
C. randomizing
D. algorithms

Answer: D

Question 8.
Study the following items carefully, which one will permit a user to float a domain registration for a maximum of five days?

A. Spoofing
B. DNS poisoning
C. Domain hijacking
D. Kiting

Answer: D

Question 9.
Which of the following types of cryptography is typically used to provide an integrity check?

A. Public key
B. Asymmetric
C. Symmetric
D. Hash

Answer: D

Question 10.
The Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a set of hardware, software, people, policies, and procedures needed to create, manage, store, distribute, and revoke digital certificates. 

The public key infrastructure is based on which encryption schemes?

A. Symmetric
B. Quantum
C. Asymmetric
D. Elliptical curve

Answer: C


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Braindumps for "ED0-001" Exam

Ericsson MSC/BSC Competence Exam

 Question 1.
Which of the following commands is used to add a device to the route?

A. EXDRI
B. EXDAI
C. EXDRP
D. EXDRE

Answer: A

Question 2.
Which of the following is the correct command sequence for a CP Fault?

A. REPRI,REMRI,RECPI
B. REPCI,REMCI,RECCI
C. RECCI,REPCI,REMCI
D. GSTEI,NTTEI,TCTDI

Answer: B

Question 3.
Which of the following commands is used to make a copy of backup file RELFSW1 to the oldest file in the SFR group?

A. SYTUC
B. SYNIC
C. SYSFT
D. SYFSC

Answer: C

Question 4.
A rolling database of active and previous hardware alarms can be viewed using ______ ?

A. ATR
B. ALB
C. ALV
D. ASM

Answer: B

Question 5.
Which file is used for automatic data dumps and automatic system reloads?

A. RELFSW0
B. RELFSW1
C. .RELFSW2
D. RELFSW100

Answer: A

Question 6.
What MOs can be tested with a command-ordered equipment test?

A. TG,TRXC,TX,RX and TS
B. CF,IS,TF,TRXC,TX,RX and TS
C. TG,CF,IS,TF,TRXC,RX,TX and TS
D. TG,TS,RX and TX

Answer: B

Question 7.
Which of the following commands is used to define a channel group for a cell?

A. RLDEI
B. RLDGI
C. RLDEC
D. RLDSI

Answer: B

Question 8.
Which of the following commands is used to print the process control in service performance log data?

A. PRINTPROCESS
B. ALIST
C. ISPPRINT
D. ALOGLIST

Answer: C

Question 9.
Which of the following pairs of commands is used to replace the software version for the Managed Objects?

A. RXEST and RXPLI
B. RXMOI and RXMSC
C. RXMSC and RXPLE
D. RXMSC and RXPLI

Answer: D

Question 10.
Software Error Information can be retrieved by command_____ ?

A. PTRIP
B. SYRIP
C. SYDIP
D. SYRSP

Answer: B


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Braindumps for "ED0-002" Exam

Ericsson bts competence exam

 Question 1.
The abbreviation "VSWR" stands for ___.

A. Variable Signal Wave Radio
B. Voltage Strength Wire Ratio
C. Very Strong Wave Radio
D. Voltage Standing Wave Ratio

Answer: D

Question 2.
What is the proper resistance of an ESD wrist strap?

A. 1 ohm(O)
B. 1 Mega ohm (MO)
C. 10 O
D. 1 MO

Answer: B

Question 3.
In OMT, what view shows the RUs installed in the GSM cabinet?

A. System View
B. Radio view
C. MO View
D. Cabinet View

Answer: D

Question 4.
What could a flashing green LED indicate in an MPU?

A. Fault is localized
B. Wait, activity in progress
C. Battery Power depleted
D. None of the above

Answer: B

Question 5.
What common LED indicators are in the CDU, PSU, BFU, and dTRU?

A. RBS Fault
B. Operational
C. Fault
D. B and C

Answer: D

Question 6.
How many T1s can one DXU-21 support?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: D

Question 7.
An ESD wrist strap must always be used when handling or installing_____.

A. a DXU
B. printed circuit boards
C. TRU/dTRU
D. All of the above

Answer: D

Question 8.
Bends to RF cables (coaxial) should be a minimum often (10) times the cable diameter.

A. RLSTC:CELL=12002B, STATE=HALTED;
B. RLSTC:SITE=12002,STATE=HALTED;
C. RLSTP:CELL=12002B, HALTED,
D. RLSTP:CELL=12002B, STATE=HALTED;

Answer: A

Question 9.
The abbreviation "COD" stands for_____

A. Command Document
B. Command Description
C. Command On Demand
D. None of the above

Answer: B

Question 10.
In OMT, the System View shows:

A. BSC, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, ISP, and ESB
B. BTS, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, IDB, and ESI
C. BSC, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, IDB, and ETS
D. BSC, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, IDB, and ESB

Answer: D


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