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Braindumps for "70-230" Exam

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Braindumps for "MB2-631" Exam

Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0 Customization and Configuration

 Question 1.
You work as the system administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com contains a Business Unit that has two child Business Units that are direct children of the root Business Unit. Some of the users both child Business Units need to access the same Contracts. You need to allow the users access without changing the user permissions on the entities.

What should you do?

A. You should create a team for each child Business Unit and add the users that need access to 
    the appropriate team in their Business Unit. You should also create another team in the root 
    Business Unit, and add the two teams in the child Business Units to the team in the root 
    Business Unit. Thereafter you should share the Contracts with the team in the root Business 
    Unit.
B. You should create one team for both child Business units and add the selected users from 
    Both business units to the team and share the Contracts with this team.
C. You should create a team for each child Business Unit and add the users that need access to 
    the appropriate team in their Business Unit. You should also assign the Contracts to one team, 
    and share the Contracts with the other team.
D. You should create a new Business Unit and add the selected users to this new Business Unit 
    and assign the contracts to a user within the new parent Business Unit.

Answer: B

Question 2.
You work as the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0 manager at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com's Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0 implementation contains a Business Units named Northern Section and Southern Section. The Northern Section and Southern Section have the same parent Business Unit, Channel Sales & Financing. A ITCertKeys.com user named Andy Reid is a member of the Northern Section. Andy Reid is a member of the sales Team Leader security role, which was created in the Channel Sales & Financing Business Unit. Andy Reid has now moved and works in the Southern Section. However, he needs the same access to records in the Southern Section that he formerly had in the Northern Section.

What should you do?

A. You should change the user Business Unit to Southern Section and copy the Sales Team 
    Leader role from the Northern Section to the Southern Section. You should also add Andy Reid 
    to this newly copied role.
B. You should change the user Business Unit to Southern Section and remove Andy Reid from 
    the Sales Team Leader role in the Northern Section. You should then add his name to the 
    Sales Team Leader role in the Southern Section.
C. You should change the user Business Unit to Southern Section and add Andy Reid to the 
    Sales Team Leader role in the Southern Section.
D. You should remove Andy Reid from the Sales Team Leader role in the Northern Section and 
    add his name to the Sales Team Leader role in the Southern Section.

Answer: C

Question 3.
You work as the system administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0 implementation of ITCertKeys.com contains a custom 1:N relationship between the Account entity and a custom entity called Project. Project has a unique identifier called projected and the relationship is maintained via an attribute on the Project entity called accounted. However, the attribute is used by CRM users. You have received instruction from the CEO to remove the relationship and the account id attribute.

What should you do? (Choose THREE)

A. You should delete the relationship.
B. You should remove the accountid attribute from the Project form.
C. You should publish the Project entity.
D. You should delete the projectid attribute.

Answer: A, B, C

Question 4.
You work as the Microsoft CRM Consultant at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com has changed the name of its root Business Unit. You need to edit the root Business Unit to reflect this change.

What should you do?

A. You should create a new Business Unit with the new name. After the creation you should 
     assign it to the original root and then disable the original root.
B. You should edit the Business Unit name, save and publish it to all users.
C. You should disable the Business Unit and create a new Business Unit with the new name.
D. You should uninstall and re-install Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0 using the new Business Unit 
    name.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Part 2: Configuring Security (2 questions)

Question 5.
You work as the Microsoft CRM Consultant at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com has a Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0 implementation that contains a Business Unit with three child business units named Finance, Marketing and Sales. The account managers at ITCertKeys.com each belong to a child business unit and have the Salesperson security role assigned to them. This gives them permissions to create and delete their own accounts. Some of the account managers have added responsibilities which allow them to delete the accounts created by any account manager. You have received instruction from the CIO to give the senior account managers the correct level of permission. However it should not affect the other account managers. You also need to do this with the minimum of effort.

What should you do?

A. In the root business unit, you should create a new security role called Senior Account Manager 
    and assign the new privileges to this role, and add each senior account manager to the  
    respective Senior Account Manager role for their business unit.
B. In the root business unit, you should create a new security role called Senior Account Manager 
    and assign the new privileges to this role, and add each senior account manager to the Senior 
    Account Manager role in the root business unit.
C. You should set up a team called Senior Account Managers in the root business unit and add 
    all senior account managers to the Senior Account Managers team. You should also share all 
    accounts with the Senior Account Managers team and grant delete access to all accounts.
D. You should set up a new security role called Senior Account Manager in each of the child 
    business units and assign the new privileges to each of these roles. You should also add each 
    senior account manager to the respective Senior Account Manager role for their business unit.

Answer: B

Question 6.
You work as the Microsoft CRM Consultant at ITCertKeys.com. The CIO has contacted you know more about the combination of Microsoft Dynamics CRM security privileges that will allows a user to attach a Note to an Account.

What should you reply.

A. This will allow them Read privilege on the Note and Write privilege on the Account.
B. This will allow them Share privilege on the Note and Write privilege on the Account.
C. This will allow them Append privilege on the Note and Append To privilege on the Account.
D. This will allow them Append To privilege on the Note and Append privilege on the Account.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Part 3: Configuring Users and Teams (4 questions)

Question 7.
You work as the Microsoft CRM administrator at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com contains a Research department. The users in the Research department need access to a custom entity called ITKProj that is user owned. The users in the Research department need to view ITKProj within their business unit, however they can only create new Projects for themselves. You then make a copy of the role of the users who owns ITKProj and assign it to the users in the Research department. You need to set the security settings for ITKProj.
What settings should you use?

A. You should grant the Business Unit, Read privilege and create privilege with access level set 
    to User.
B. You should grant to User, Read privilege and create privilege with access level set to Business 
    Unit.
C. You should grant to Organization, Read privilege and create privilege with access level set to 
    User.
D. You should grant to Parent: Child Business Unit, Read privilege and create privilege with 
    access level set to User.

Answer: A

Question 8.
You work as the Microsoft CRM Consultant at ITCertKeys.com. A ITCertKeys.com user named Andy Booth has started with your company. Andy Booth was given the instruction to assist with the recording of license information. He will also be managing the deployments that your company hosts, however will not be do other CRM related tasks. You need to give Andy Booth the least amount of rights.

What should you do?

A. You should give Andy Booth the System Customizer role.
B. You should give Andy Booth the Domain Administrator role.
C. You should give Andy Booth the Deployment Administrator role.
D. You should give Andy Booth the System Administrator role.

Answer: C

Question 9.
You work as the Microsoft CRM Consultant at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com contains a Research department that has 1,500 employees. The employees in the Research department are divided into four groups of contract staff, who work for different parts. Each of the four groups contains 15 users that access the CRM for a few days in the month. The manager does not want the 15 users to have more that the required days they need to access the CRM.

What should you do?

A. You should create a new child Business Unit for each group of contract staff. Add the 
    appropriate group of 15 users to each Business Unit and remove the users from their Business 
    Unit when you want to prevent access.
B. You should add all the users to CRM and enable each user when you want to allow access, 
    and disable each user when you want to prevent access.
C. You should create a Business Unit and add all the users to it. After their access time, delete 
    The Business Unit and recreate the Business Unit when the users need access again.
D. You should create a new child Business Unit for each group of contract staff, and add the 
    appropriate group of 15 users to each Business Unit. Enable the appropriate Business Unit 
    when the users need access, and disable the Business Unit when you want to prevent access.

Answer: D

Question 10.
You work as the Microsoft CRM administrator at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com contains a Sales department. The ITCertKeys.com CIO wants to know what effect it will have if you change the format of firstname lastname to lastname, firstname in the System Settings General tab.

What should you reply?

A. The new format of the Contact records will be displayed.
B. Only if the Contact entity is published, it will change and will display the new format.
C. Only the new Contacts will display the new format, not the existing Contacts.
D. All Contact records will be updated; however the Outlook users must close and re-open 
   Outlook to see the change.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Part 4: Configuring Organizational Settings (2 questions)


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Braindumps: Dumps for 4H0-002 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "4H0-002" Exam

Hyperion Essbase 5 Certificaton

 Question 1.
What is the most efficient development tool to use for rapid deployment of formatted reports without requiring coding?

A. Essbase Objects application
B. basic Spreadsheet Add-In with template files
C. Essbase Web Gateway deployed over their Intranet
D. basic Spreadsheet Add-In with template files and Extended Spreadsheet Macros

Answer: B

Question 2.
Input data exhibit;
 
Outline Exhibit:
 
Given the Input data and the Outline in the exhibits, if Product and market are sparse, which is an input level data block?

A. East->Root beer
B. New York->Colas
C. New York->Diet Cola
D. New York->Root Beer

Answer: A, B, D

Question 3.
Given that product and Market are the only sparse dimensions, which file(s) would be restructured if a new member were added to the Product dimension?

A. none
B. data files only
C. index files only
D. both index and data files

Answer: C

Question 4.
Exhibit:
 
Given the outline in the exhibit, if Incremental Restructuring is enabled and Product and Market are the only sparse dimensions,what is the incremental restructing implication if the Product dimension is moved after the Market dimesion?

A. none
B. restructure deferred
C. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures data files only
D. overrides incremental restructing and restructures index files only
E. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures both index and data files

Answer: D

Question 5.
If the average block density is between 10% and 90% and there are few consecutive repeating values or zeros, which data compression type is recommended?

A. RLE
B. Bit-Map
C. No Compression

Answer: B

Question 6.
When would disabling data compression be recommended?

A. when the average block density is very low (<3%)
B. when the average block density is very high (>95%) and few consecutive repeating values exist
C. When the database contains many consecutive zero values or other consecutive repeating values

Answer: B

Question 7.
Exhibit
 
In the outline in the exhibit, Year and Measure are dense dimensions. Data is loaded for every month, Measure, Market and Scenario. After a CALC ALL is run, how many blocks are there?

A. 12
B. 18
C. 24
D. 30

Answer: A

Question 8.
During calculation,what is the calculator cache used for?

A. for storing blocks
B. for tracking index page usage
C. for storing dynamically calculated values
D. for tracking calculation progress through the blocks

Answer: D

Question 9.
Exhibit:
 
Given the following database statistics, what is the block size?

A. 192 bytes
B. 1536 bytes
C. 1600 bytes
D. 12800 bytes

Answer: B

Question 10.
If committed Access is being used, which statements are true?

A. It retains redundant data until a transaction commits
B. It acquires and releases Write locks as needed during the transaction
C. It retain Write locks on all afected blocks until the transaction commits
D. It does not restrict Read/Write access on data blocks during the transaction

Answer: A, C


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Braindumps for "000-716" Exam

DB2 Data Warehouse Edition V9.1

 Question 1.
A classification model (in PMML format) was created by a third party vendor tool such as SPSS. After importing the model into DB2, where is it stored?

A. In a user-specified table . under an automatically generated name, e.g. SPSS_017.
B. In the table IDMMX.CLASSIFMODELS under a user-specified MODELNAME. The default is the value of the attribute "modelname" in the PMML TreeModel.
C. In the table .CLASSIFMODELS under a user-specified MODELNAME. The default is the value of the attribute "modelname" in the PMML TreeModel.
D. In a user-specified table . under a user-specified MODELNAME. The default is the value of the attribute "modelname" in the PMML TreeModel.

Answer: B

Question 2.
Which of the following must be fulfilled to execute a mining flow that creates a classification model in the database?

A. All input and output ports of all operators must be connected.
B. The flow must contain a Predictor operator whose properties define a Cost Matrix.
C. The flow must contain a Predictor operator whose output port must be connected to a Visualizer.
D. The flow must contain a Predictor operator whose properties (Mining Settings) define a categorical target column.

Answer: D

Question 3.
Application data changes over time and differs from that used to train a classification model M. Assume that a mining flow with a Tester operator with M and the application data as input and a test model T as output has been defined. 

What must be done to check if M can still safely be applied?

A. Open T in a visualizer and check the tree depth. If the tree depth is greater than 10, the model is OK.
B. Open T in a visualizer and check the model quality figures. If the quality is greater than 0.5, the model is OK.
C. Open M and T in a visualizer and check the tree depth. If the tree depth of T is greater than the tree depth of M, the model is OK.
D. Open M and T in a visualizer and check the model quality figures. If the quality is about the same as the quality of M, the model is OK.

Answer: D

Question 4.
As part of a market basket analysis effort, a retail company needs to analyze sales transaction data to understand which products tend to be bought together by the same customer during each visit to the store. 

Which data mining function is most appropriate for this business problem?

A. Clustering
B. Regression
C. Associations
D. Classification

Answer: C

Question 5.
A group of Alphablox users needs a report which contains rule heads and bodies of an Association model in a tabular format. 

Which of the following describes a complete Mining Flow that loads the model output of an Associations operator into a table?

A. Table Source ---> Associations --> Table Target
B. Table Source ---> Associations --> Associations Extractor
C. Table Source ---> Associations --> Visualizer --> Table Target
D. Table Source ---> Associations --> Associations Extractor --> Table Target

Answer: D

Question 6.
An investment banking company wants to use data mining to predict customer lapsing behavior. The cost of losing existing customers is very high, and the company wants to keep all customers happy. Based on a recent customer survey with a small subset of existing customers, 2% of customers indicated they were not satisfied. To predict whether or not a customer is satisfied, Predictor and Tester operators in DWE Design Studio were used to analyze the survey results. 

Which of the following should be done in this situation?

A. Increase the Maximum tolerated systematic error (RSquared).
B. Decrease the Maximum tolerated systematic error (RSquared).
C. Increase the weight of "Satisfied (Actual) & Dissatisfied (Predicted)" in the Cost Matrix parameter option.
D. Increase the weight of "Dissatisfied (Actual) & Satisfied (Predicted)" in the Cost Matrix parameter option.

Answer: D

Question 7.
An insurance company wants to use data mining to predict fraudulent claims. Based on historical data, 1% of claim transactions were classified as fraud. To work on this problem, the Predictor and Tester mining operators in DWE Design Studio were used to analyze a small subset of claim history data. 

Which preprocessing function operator is the most efficient mechanism to feed data into the Predictor mining operator?

A. Sampler
B. Select List
C. Random Splitter
D. Field Extractor

Answer: C

Question 8.
Which mining model needs to be processed through training and testing phase before being applied into the Scoring function?

A. Sequential
B. Clustering
C. Association
D. Classification

Answer: D

Question 9.
Given the following association rule: 
[Tomato][Carrot]=>[Orange Juice] Support = 10 Confidence = 80 Lift = 4

Which of the following can be deduced from this information?

A. The number of orange juice sales is made up of 20% of all sales transactions.
B. Customers buy the combination of tomato, carrot and orange juice 80% more than expected.
C. There is a 10% chance that customers also buy orange juice when they buy tomato with carrot.
D. Out of 2 million sales transactions, approximately 1,600,000 show that tomato, carrot and orange juice are bought together.

Answer: A

Question 10.
Which of the following mining operator provides a model output that can be directed into the Visualizer operator in the DWE Mining Flow.

A. Associations
B. Cluster Table
C. Predict Column
D. Find Deviations

Answer: A


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Braindumps for "000-641" Exam

Robot

 Question 1.
Which of the following verification points appear in the Asset pane when a script is being viewed? (Select all that apply.)

A. Window Image
B. File Existence
C. File Comparison
D. Region Image
E. Module Existence

Answer: A, D

Question 2.
A GUI functional test script with no verification points can still be part of a valid application test

A. True
B. False

Answer: A

Question 3.
Which of the following are characteristics of scripts? (Select all that apply.)

A. They contain actual results of the verification points included
B. They are files that Robot can execute
C. They can be executed by a Robot suite
D. They can be executed by a TestManager suite
E. They may contain properties, such as the type and purpose of the script

Answer: B, D, E

Question 4.
Which of the following statements describe the baseline data of a verification point? (Select all that apply.)

A. Editable file containing input data used during the script playback
B. Actual state of the object when the script is played back
C. Object information captured during recording
D. Expected state of the object during subsequent builds

Answer: C, D

Question 5.
Where should verification points be inserted into scripts?

A. At every object in the application
B. At every data entry field
C. At every feature you want to test
D. At every window and dialog box

Answer: C

Question 6.
The Timeout value for a wait state is 30 seconds and the verification point passes in 5 seconds

What does Robot do?

A. Continues to wait until the 30 seconds has passed, then executes the remainder of the script
B. Waits 30 seconds, then attempts the verification point again
C. Waits 5 seconds, then executes the remainder of the script
D. Immediately continues the execution of the remainder of the script

Answer: D

Question 7.
What is the purpose of Datapools?

A. To report on errors written to log files during testing
B. To track or "pool" data written to log files during testing
C. To provide unique input data to scripts executed multiple times
D. To provide response time data for different types of input data

Answer: C

Question 8.
What is the purpose of the Alphanumeric verification point type?

A. To test data in windows objects that contain text;for example,pushbuttons and labels
B. To verify the existence of a file by comparing the name to a stored variable
C. To do a byte-for-byte comparison of data within a file
D. To capture data from a spreadsheet to compare to a file

Answer: A

Question 9.
What is the purpose of the Object Properties verification point type? 

A. To compare the properties of a window;e.g. normal,minimized,maximized,or hidden
B. To capture and compare properties 01 standard Windows objects
C. To compare the properties of the application ;e.g control location,menu options,etc
D. To test data in windows objects that contain text;for example,pushbuttons and labels

Answer: B

Question 10.
Which of the following can be viewed through the Comparators? (Select all that apply.)

A. Causes of application failures
B. Actual results of verification points for this run
C. Messages sent to external log files
D. Baseline data for verification points

Answer: B, D


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Braindumps for "000-630" Exam

ClearCase for Windows

 Question 1.
The semi-live backup strategy minimizes VOB downtime by locking the VOB only long enough to copy the database subdirectory of the VOB's physical storage area.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A

Question 2.
Which of the following actions can you complete using the clearicense command? (Select all that apply)

A. Enable license auditing
B. Report on current license use
C. Release a license
D. Add new license codes
E. Establish priority user licenses.

Answer: A, B, C

Question 3.
To access views and VOB's from a region they must have a tag in that region.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A

Question 4.
Which command lists all view-tags in the current region?

A. dir of the MVFS drive
B. cleartool setview -all
C. cleartool lsview
D. cleartool is of the MVFS drive

Answer: C

Question 5.
The storage directories of the dynamic view and snapshot view contain the same subdirectories.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A

Question 6.
Which of the following objects are viible in the ClearCase Explorer display? (Select all that apply)

A. Hyperlink
B. View-private file
C. Hard link
D. DIRECTORY ELEMENT
E. Symbolic link

Answer: A, B, C

Question 7.
The default behavior of the clearesport_rcs and clearexport_pvcs commands is to translate symbols into labels or branches as appropriate.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A

Question 8.
Entering a ClearCase command causes a trigger to fire. The trigger's associated script references a comment linked with that command.

Which environment variable does the script use to identify the comment entered with the ClearCase command?

A. CLEARCASE_CMNT_PN
B. CLEARCASE_CQ
C. CLEARCASE_CFILE
D. CLEARCASE_DESCRIP
E. CLEARCASE_COMMENT

Answer: E

Question 9.
The VOB semi-live backup strategy is only available for version 3.2.1 and higher VOB's

A. True
B. False

Answer: B

Question 10.
On the host where the view storage directory resides, an asterisk ( * ) appears to the left of a view - tag in Isview output.

What does the asterisk mean? (Select all that apply)

A. View storage directory resides on the local host.
B. View server process is running
C. View is currently in use
D. View is visible on the MVFS drive

Answer: B,D


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Braindumps for "000-535" Exam

IBM Certified Specialist- Advanced Manufacturing

 Question 1.
A team has a heavily conventional group style. Their solutions are below average and they do not achieve synergy. The team members feel that the group could be doing somewhat better. 

What is the best suggestion for minimizing the negative impact of this style?

A. Emphasize the importance of arriving at a consensus decision - one that all members can buy into.
B. Establish a feeling of unity among group members. Remind the team that when the group wins, everyone wins.
C. Play "devil's advocate" when group members keep proposing the same safe solution. Ask probing questions to pinpoint the pros and cons of their solution.
D. Encourage the more reserved group members to speak up. They may be able to supply missing information and a fresh perspective. Make sure to include them so they understand their value to the team.

Answer: C

Question 2.
Which of the following best describes an example of subordinating all decisions to the output capability of the constriction, or bottleneck?

A. Additional capacity is obtained by purchasing the capital equipment needed to keep up with demand.
B. The output of all operations in front of the bottleneck, including release, is reduced to match that of the constriction.
C. The output capabilities for processes downstream from the bottleneck are increased so that product will move quickly once it passes the constriction.
D. Capacity figures for all resources are reviewed and compared with demand in order to determine the bottleneck department so that work schedules can be established.

Answer: B

Question 3.
Which of the following is the best definition of Manufacturing Cycle Time?

A. It is the total time it takes to process, ship and deliver a product to a customer.
B. It is the total time that it takes to process a product through a Manufacturing line.
C. It is the total time it takes to process a product from receipt of raw materials to stock through delivery to the customer.
D. It is the total time it takes to process a product from receipt of raw materials through the last manufacturing operation excluding non-value-added process steps.

Answer: B

Question 4.
Which of the following best describes the benefits of Takt Management in a manufacturing line?

A. Hourly output is monitored versus hourly demand so that production shortfalls can be identified and addressed.
B. Hourly fluctuations in WIP are monitored and reasons for special cause variation are identified and addressed.
C. As constrictions, or bottlenecks, move throughout the manufacturing line, the bottleneck is identified and Takt targets are increased.
D. Ongoing process improvement is achieved by identifying enhancers and detractors to output resulting in improvement opportunities for the line.

Answer: D

Question 5.
Which of the following is a constructive cultural characteristic of an effective team?

A. The team leader is expected to provide initiative.
B. The team takes a "failure is not an option" attitude when identifying goals.
C. Individual accomplishment is recognized and rewarded as a model for other team members.
D. People are encouraged to be decisive, take moderate risks, take initiative and be accountable.

Answer: D

Question 6.
One of an organization's productivity values is "Prioritization is a major barrier to production." 

Which of the following run rules supports that value?

A. First In First Out (FIFO) will be practiced in all areas.
B. Engineering builds are exempt from any prioritization run rules.
C. Complete Takt charts hourly.
D. Respect customer Kanban limits.

Answer: A

Question 7.
Which of the following is a critical rule for the successful implementation of a Kanban system?

A. Limits may be violated by the supplier only.
B. Once established, limits should never change, regardless of the reason.
C. Limits should be reviewed regularly, and changed when necessary by a central authority.
D. A customer should feel free to request a violation of established limits for any reason, because they best recognize their own needs.

Answer: C

Question 8.
Which of the following is an attribute of an effective team?

A. Works toward reaching consensus
B. Expects conformity from team members
C. Uses a democratic process for decision-making
D. Encourages discussion until the leader closes the topic

Answer: A

Question 9.
Which of the following is the most effective technique for performing queuing analysis?

A. Process Mapping
B. Pareto Analysis
C. Simulation Modeling
D. Statistical Process Analysis

Answer: C

Question 10.
Which of the following WIP management techniques promotes the concept of root cause analysis?

A. A capacitated release strategy implementation
B. Dynabans implementation
C. Kanbans implementation
D. Takt management implementation

Answer: D



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Braindumps for "000-445" Exam

IBM Certified System Administrator - Document Manager

 Question 1.
Prior to installing Document Manager servers, the PATH system environment variable should include which of the following?

A. Information Integrator C++ Connector DLL directory
B. %IBMCMROOT%\cmgmt directory
C. Information Integrator installation directory
D. Information Integrator Java Connector directory

Answer: A

Question 2.
Which application must be used by DM to create a thumbnail rendition from a CAD file?

A. Cimmetry AutoVue
B. AutoDesk AutoCAD
C. Bentley MicroStation
D. Informatative Graphics MYRIAD

Answer: A

Question 3.
If the Name field of the properties of a Cache Service does not equal a LibraryName value in ddmcasrv.ini, what happens to the Document Manager Desktop when an attempt to log on is made?

A. The Document Manager Desktop will fail to connect to the selected library and return an error.
B. The Document Manager Desktop will succeed in connecting to the selected library.
C. The Document Manager Desktop will hang until a predetermined timeout value is reached.
D. The Document Manager Desktop will succeed in connecting to the selected library with degraded performance.

Answer: A

Question 4.
When configuring Designer to connect to a library, the Name field in the Library Configuration must match the LibraryName in which file?

A. ddmsmtp.ini
B. ddmcasrv.ini
C. ddmcfgsv.ini
D. ddmlogconfig.properties

Answer: B

Question 5.
In order to conduct a web based install of the Document Manager Desktop, which of the following files must be copied to the web server directory?

A. ddminst.htm, ddmdsktp.cab, ddmdsktp.js, index.htm, default.htm
B. ddmdsktp.htm, ddmdsktp.cab, ddmdsktp.js, index.htm, default.htm
C. ddminst.htm, ddmdsktp.htm, ddmdsktp.cab, ddmdsktp.js, default.htm
D. ddmdsktp.htm, ddmcasrv.ini, ddmdsktp.cab, ddmdsktp.js, default.htm

Answer: C

Question 6.
The System Administrator can configure datastore pooling to improve the overall performance of a DB2 Document Manager system. 

How does datastore pooling improve performance?

A. It allows the specification of a department-level cache server that is used to "pool" document data that is local to that department.
B. It allows the administrator to specify allocation of pools of memory that can be shared by different item types in the repository.
C. It reduces the overhead associated with opening a new connection each time a request is issued by a user by reusing cached datastores.
D. It retains a database connection for each user of the system for a period of hours as defined in the DdmConnCfg.ini file.

Answer: C

Question 7.
Assuming standard naming conventions, which metadata information is required, in Document Manager's Library Configuration, to work with data in the library?

A. Class and Revision
B. Class and State
C. Revision and Properties
D. State and Revision

Answer: B

Question 8.
In addition to a user name, password, and DM Library Server name, which additional item is required for the Designer to login to the library?

A. The Content Manager machine name.
B. A user with the SysAdminCM privilege set.
C. The Content Manager database name.
D. SOAP information if the server is not behind a firewall.

Answer: C

Question 9.
Which of the following commands can be used to determine the currently installed version of IBM Information Integrator for Content?

A. cmlevel
B. dmlevel
C. db2level
D. ii4clevel

Answer: A

Question 10.
Which INI file must be configured after the Document Manager Server is installed?

A. ddmconncfg.ini
B. ddmcache.ini
C. ddmcfgsv.ini
D. ddmcasrv.ini

Answer: D


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Braindumps for "000-426" Exam

IBM System z Technical Support

 Question 1.
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the IBM System z SAPR guide?

A. Provide information on product details
B. Mitigate potential installation issues before hardware installation
C. Determine IBM resources available for post-sales support
D. Document pricing and contract information on a sale

Answer: B

Question 2.
A customers created a z/VM with a Linux environment. After installation, the customer notices that some Linux applications are not running as fast as expected. A decision is made to tune the system because of these performance problems. 

Which of the following must be done before making tuning changes to the system or workload?

A. Provide additional memory in the z/VM / Linux LPAR
B. Upgrade z/VM and Linux to the latest releases
C. Install an additional Integrated Facility for Linux (IFL)
D. Determine what resource is the limiting factor in the configuration

Answer: D

Question 3.
The System z sales specialist has brought the System z technical specialist in very late in the pre sale process. This caused several problems, and the specialist had to correct some misunderstandings about the technology and capabilities. 

To avoid these misunderstandings in future, which of the following would be the most appropriate way to handle this?

A. Document the problems and send a written summary to the sales specialist.
B. Explain the situation to the customer and document the problems in the SAR.
C. Ask the sales specialist to bring them in earlier so that they can better understand the account.
D. Discuss the situation and the related issues with the sales manager and ask them to discuss with the sales specialist.

Answer: C

Question 4.
A company wants to enable customers to access their sales catalog via the Internet but is concerned about security. 

What z9 features are available to prevent an unauthorized person from viewing the data as it passes through the Internet?

A. OSA/Express GbE card and QDIO or non-QDIO features of z/OS
B. Crypto Express2 card and System SSL in z/OS
C. PCICC or PCICA adapter and the Ported Tools feature of z/OS
D. CPACF and RACF

Answer: B

Question 5.
A customer is installing a z9 EC for their DR site. There is a short narrow driveway to the loading dock at the DR site. 

Which of the following should the customer do to ensure the truck can deliver the z9 EC?

A. Specify height reduction for the z9 EC
B. Ask the System z Technical Specialist request city truck delivery
C. Specify the z9 EC be delivered in two separate frames
D. Order a crane to move the z9 EC through a window

Answer: B

Question 6.
A performance analysis indicates that a customer's current z9 needs more processing power. The MES is being requested based on the analysis to add additional processors as soon as possible. The customer cannot afford the maintenance window for installation. 

Which of the following is the preferred action?

A. Ask the customer to schedule the installation when the machine can be stopped.
B. Tune the current machine to improve the performance as much as possible and delay the installation until the machine can be stopped.
C. Persuade the customer to schedule the installation window immediately.
D. Schedule the installation to be performed concurrently.

Answer: D

Question 7.
A System z Technical Specialist is directing the implementation planning process. This customer has several non IBM software licenses and an OEM storage subsystem. 

Which of the following describes how these two non IBM areas are addressed?

A. Customer is responsible to contact all vendors to ensure the proper level of software support and all planned features are tolerated or exploited. The customer is also responsible to contact hardware vendors to ensure all devices are attachable and supported on the planned z9.
B. IBM is responsible to contact all vendors to ensure the proper level of software support and all planned features are tolerated or exploited. IBM also is responsible to contact hardware vendors to ensure all devices are attachable and supported on the planned z9.
C. Each vendor is responsible to physically demonstrate the function of each software and hardware component with the z9.
D. The customer must upgrade their existing System z to the planned z/OS system level to test the function of both non IBM software and hardware.

Answer: A

Question 8.
The z990 Model A08 has 2 SAPs, 2 spares, and how many characterizable processor units?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10

Answer: C

Question 9.
A customer is planning to replace several older mainframes with z9, but is concerned about the current operating system levels installed. 

What is the first release of z/OS that requires a System z hardware architecture?

A. z/OS Version 1.4
B. z/OS Version 1.5
C. z/OS Version 1.6
D. z/OS Version 1.7

Answer: C

Question 10.
What zSeries virtualization technique is required to run 50 instances of DB2 Connect on Linux zSeries on a z9?

A. VM/ESA software
B. z/VM software
C. LPAR only
D. LPAR with the chaining function activated

Answer: B


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Braindumps for "000-425" Exam

System z Solutions Sales

 Question 1.
A prospective manufacturing customer with an existing complex environment is requesting a proposal for a TSM data management solution. 

What should be the first step taken to validate the customer's project?

A. Perform a TSM benchmark
B. Verify funding
C. Contact the IBM Software Sales Professional
D. Survey customer's current environment

Answer: C

Question 2.
Which of the following statements best describes a customer's pain point that a sales specialist can immediately act upon?

A. "Which solution is right for my environment? There are so many to pick from
B. "I cannot get the payroll done in time each month, and it is costing me dearly in penalties."
C. "Our outage window is one weekend a month. I cannot afford to have the system down any additional time."
D. "We are on oldertechnology. I know that getting upto date will help us improve on our customer satisfaction."

Answer: B

Question 3.
A customer has an older mainframe installed and is considering moving to a new z9. The IT Director asks the System z Sales Specialist for reasons to move to the z9. 

Which of the following is exclusive to the z9?

A. Server Time Protocol
B. Multiple Logical Channel Subsystem
C. Multiple Subchannel Sets
D. System Managed CF Structure Duplexing

Answer: C

Question 4.
A Syslem z competitor has announced their potential entry into the main? lame market. It Rather claims that thew system can run z/OS. 

What should the sales rep male sure the customer understands.

A. z/OS can only run on IBM mainframe systems.
B. Customer should verify the system wIll also run zNM and Linux.
C. Programs such as OS/390 and z/OS are licensed for use only on Designated Machines, subject to IBM licensing terms.
D. Programs such as OS/390 and z/OS must be demonslrabd to run on Designated Machines. subject to IBM System z Technical Specialist approval.

Answer: C

Question 5.
A company is running many small applications, each on their own Intel server with the Linux operating system. They would like to consolidate the servers but maintain the flexibility to scale as business grows. 

Which of the following describes the characteristics of z9 virtualization to address this issue?

A. A virtual machine may use as little as 1/10,000th of a physical processor.
B. A virtual machine may use as little as 1% of a physical processor.
C. A virtual machine may use as little as 10% of a physical processor.
D. A virtual machine may use any percentage of a physical processor.

Answer: A

Question 6.
What is the advantage of dynamic oscillator switchover?

A. Allows the backup oscillator to detect the failure, switch over and provide redundant power capabilities.
B. Allows the backup oscillator to detect the failure, switch over requiring only an IPL instead of a full Power on Reset.
C. Allows the backup oscillator to detect the failure, switch over, and provide the clock signal to the server transparently.
D. Supports enhanced availability for z890, z900, and z9

Answer: C

Question 7.
A System z9 customer is evaluating z/OS capacity requirements. 

Which of the following IBM tools can perform capacity planning from customer SMF data?

A. zPCR
B. LSPR
C. CP3000
D. AD Tools

Answer: C

Question 8.
A System z9 retail customer has several underutilized distributed Linux servers and is considering options to consolidate. This business has many database servers, application servers, and a test and development environment. 

Which of the following directly impacts the financial justification for this plan?

A. Virtualization to reduce software licensing costs
B. Improved use of data center floor space
C. Increased performance of server workloads
D. Enhanced infrastructure cooling efficiency

Answer: A

Question 9.
A universally physics department issues a RFP for a large system for research purposes. The System z Sales Specialist has never met this group previously. 

Which of the following describes the likely financial justification process?

A. The department will conduct a study of all the operating systems available
B. The department will compare distributed, clustered, and centralized implementations and decide based on TCA
C. The department will compare communication sub systems, and LAN topologies between all vendors
D. The department will purchase a system to meet pertormance needs at the best price and consider the total cost of ownership

Answer: B

Question 10.
A new ClO plans to reduce the complexity of the IT infrastructure. 

Which of the follow features or approaches will appeal to this individual?

A. TCO
B. Server consolidation
C. Linux
D. Virtualization

Answer: B


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