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Braindumps for "70-230" Exam

Latest Dump

 Hi Buddies,
Can any one help me out in getting the latest 70-229 dump?..I hav test in march 1st week.
THanks in advance to whoever is sending.
my email: khurramaarahe@gmail.com 



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Braindumps: Dumps for HP0-M12 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "HP0-M12" Exam

HP WinRunner 9.2 Software

 Question 1.
Exhibit:
 

You want to synchronize on the Status Bar with the text "Insert Done... ". 

Which TSL statement would meet this requirement?

A. wait(10);
B. obj_check_gui("Insert Done...", "list1.ckl", "gui1", 16);
C. obj_wait_info("Insert Done...","label","Insert Done...",10);
D. obj_check_info("Insert Done...","label","Insert Done...",10);

Answer: C

Question 2.
How do you specify a 15-second timeout in the global timeout settings?

A. 15
B. 150
C. 1500
D. 15000

Answer: D

Question 3.
Exhibit:
 

Which method should you use to synchronize the application after logging in?

A. wait for a bitmap to refresh
B. wait for a window to appear
C. wait for an object state change
D. wait for a process screen to complete

Answer: B

Question 4.
You are testing a banking application. At 8 AM an employee logs in successfully and it takes about 5 seconds for the main menu window to appear. At 9 AM it takes approximately 15 seconds for the main menu window to appear after login. 

If you were to incorporate this time difference in a script, which WinRunner feature would you use so that the script runs successfully despite the difference in time for the main menu window to appear?

A. Verify
B. Data drive
C. Synchronize
D. Parameterize

Answer: C

Question 5.
Which synchronization statement is automatically generated during recording?

A. win_activate("Flight Reservation");
B. set_window ("Flight Reservation 10");
C. obj_wait_bitmap("Flights","Img2",6,7,8,101,114);
D. obj_wait_info("Insert Done...","label","Insert Done...",10);

Answer: B

Question 6.
The process for building a functional WinRunner script goes through four steps. What are these
steps? (Select four.)

A. plan the test
B. synchronize
C. record steps
D. parameterize
E. add verification
F. analyze results
G. execute the test

Answer: B, C, E, G

Question 7.
A test script contains both Context Sensitive and Analog recording. The script keeps failing on the window where the Analog recording is played back. 

Which function can you include in your script to ensure that windows and objects are in the same locations as when the test was recorded?

A. win_move function
B. GUI_load function
C. invoke_app function
D. set_window function

Answer: A

Question 8.
In which file does WinRunner store user actions on the application under test captured during recording?

A. lock
B. script
C. chklist
D. debug

Answer: B

Question 9.
During recording, WinRunner "listens" to the actions a user performs on the application (and to the response from the server) and creates a log of these steps. 

Which language does WinRunner use to create these steps in a script?

A. C Language
B. VBScript Language
C. Test Script Language
D. Virtual User Language

Answer: C

Question 10.
What is the default recording mode that WinRunner uses?

A. Analog
B. Low-level
C. Standard / Default
D. Context Sensitive

Answer: D



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Braindumps: Dumps for EE0-503 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "EE0-503" Exam

F5 3-DNS v4 Exam

 Question 1.
After a configuration change is made on a member of a Sync Group, how is that change distributed to the other members?

A. Changes are distributed at set intervals as specified in the System / General Settings.
B. Changes are distributed when the synchronize button is pressed within the 3-DNS Sync page.
C. Not all changes are distributed. The administrator must choose the changes to distribute.
D. Changes are distributed automatically to all members of a Sync Group.

Answer: D

Question 2.
What is likely to happen if you were to define a BIG-IP System in the wrong Data Center?

A. There would be no effect if the BIG-IP System is defined in the wrong Data Center.
B. Data from probes from that BIG-IP System might result in inaccurate path metrics and load balancing decisions.
C. The 3-DNS System would not be able to resolve Wide-IPs to the addresses associated with   that BIG-IP System's Virtual Servers.
D. The 3-DNS System would not be able to communicate with that BIG-IP System.

Answer: B

Question 3.
When is a Virtual Server hosted by a BIG-IP System defined with two IP addresses?

A. Two addresses are used to define a Virtual Server when the Wide-IP should resolve to a different address depending on which BIG-IP System is active.
B. Two addresses are used to define some Virtual Servers so that the 3-DNS System can choose the better address when resolving the name.
C. Two addresses are used to define Virtual Servers when the BIG-IP System hosting it is behind a firewall that is translating the Virtual Server address.
D. Two addresses are used to define the Virtual Server when it is managed by redundant BIG-IP Systems.

Answer: C

Question 4.
A pool is using Round Trip Time as its load balancing method (Alternate: Round Robin; 
Fallback: None). The last five resolutions have been C, D, C, D, C. 

Given the current conditions shown in the table below, what address will be used for the next resolution?

A. B
B. D
C. C
D. A

Answer: A

Question 5.
Which statement about Wide-IP names is always true?

A. Wide-IP names are denoted by a fully qualified domain name.
B. Wide-IP names are always associated with resource records in BIND database files.
C. Wide-IP names are associated with one or more Virtual Servers.
D. Wide-IP names are associated with a specific 3-DNS System.

Answer: A

Question 6.
Which three access methods are available for administration and configuration of 3-DNS Systems prior to running the Setup Utility? (Choose three.)

A. network access via https
B. serial console access
C. network access via telnet
D. network access via ssh
E. network access via rsh

Answer: A, B, D

Question 7.
What is the difference between primary and secondary DNS servers?

A. Only primary servers can issue authoritative responses.
B. Primary servers host the original copy of the zone database file.
C. Primary servers resolve names more efficiently than secondary servers.
D. Secondary servers act as back-ups and will respond only if the primary fails.

Answer: B

Question 8.
Which statement is true about remotely accessing zone database files?

A. Access is always restricted. Secondary devices are required to present userid / password credentials before getting a copy of the database.
B. Access is always restricted. Secondary devices must present the proper serial number before getting a copy of a zone database file.
C. Access is intentionally easy. Since secondary servers need access to zone files, any device can retrieve a copy of a zone database file.
D. Access can be restricted. While secondary servers need access to zone files, access can be limited to select devices.

Answer: D

Question 9.
Which three methods are available for authentication of users allowed to administer a 3-DNS System through the Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)

A. Local master.passwd database
B. Local LDAP database
C. Local Radius database
D. Remote LDAP database
E. Remote Radius database

Answer: B, D, E

Question 10.
A Wide-IP has two pools. The first has a set of five Virtual Servers. The second pool redirects requests to a Content Delivery Network (CDN). How can limits and thresholds be used to manage traffic for this Wide-IP? (Choose two.)

A. If requests exceed the second pool's threshold, additional requests can be load balanced between the Virtual Servers and the CDN.
B. If requests exceed the second pool's threshold, additional requests can be sent to the Virtual Servers in the first pool.
C. If requests exceed the Wide-IP's threshold, additional requests can be ignored to prevent overloading the Virtual Servers.
D. If requests exceed the first pool's threshold, additional requests can be sent to the CDN.

Answer: B, D


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Braindumps: Dumps for EE0-505 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "EE0-505" Exam

F5 Fire Pass v5

 Question 1.
Which two statements are true about initial access to the FirePass Controller? (Choose two.)

A. The Admin has limited command line access through a serial terminal using "maintenance" at  the console login.
B. The Admin has Unix command line access through a serial terminal using root / default as the userid and password.
C. The Admin has web configuration access to https://10.10.1.99/admin/ using admin / admin as the userid and password.
D. The Admin has web configuration access to https://192.168.1.99/admin/ using admin / admin as the userid and password.
E. The Admin has Unix command line access through a keyboard and monitor using root / default as the userid and password.

Answer: A, D

Question 2.
Which two are valid ways to tell whether the Admin is connected to the Primary or a Secondary Node in a cluster of FirePass Controllers? (Choose two.)

A. Admin console / Application Access option is present.
B. Admin console / Network Access option is present.
C. Admin console / Clustering option is present.
D. Admin console / Clustering option absent.
E. Admin console / Portal Access option is present.

Answer: A, E

Question 3.
What answer contains the correct Source IP Address combination of the Network packet as it traverses the FirePass Server for an established Network Access connection given the following conditions? 

NAPT - disabled, Client machine IP Address - 216.34.94.17 VPN Pool Address range -104.21.47.0/24 FirePass Interface Addresses – External 110.121.32.10, Internal 205.229.151.10 - The first Source IP Address listed is from client to FirePass, the second is from FirePass to Server.

A. 216.34.94.17 -- 205.229.151.10
B. 104.21.47.12 -- 205.229.151.10
C. 104.21.47.12 -- 104.21.47.12
D. 216.34.94.17 -- 104.21.47.12
E. 216.34.94.17 -- 216.34.94.17
F. 205.229.151.10 -- 205.229.151.10

Answer: D

Question 4.
Which three are valid options for EndPoint security checks? (Choose three.)

A. file present
B. client network access speed
C. client MAC address
D. McAfee Antivirus running certain version of Scan Engine
E. processes present

Answer: A, D, E

Question 5.
Which five types of connections to application servers can be supported by the FirePass Application Access feature set? (Choose five.)

A. email access to Windows Exchange Server
B. X-windows access to Windows Server
C. Terminal Server access to Windows Terminal Server
D. X-windows access to Unix host
E. Terminal Server access to Citrix Server
F. ssh access to mainframe
G. ssh access to Unix host

Answer: A, C, D, E, G

Question 6.
Which two statements are true about Clustering on FirePass? (Choose two.)

A. The boxes are synched from Master to Secondary automatically every 10 to 30 seconds.
B. The boxes are synched from Master to Secondary manually by an Administrator.
C. If using failover pairs, the Standby Secondary boxes get their configuration from their Active failover partner.
D. The boxes are synched from Secondary to Master automatically every 10 to 30 seconds.
E. The boxes are synched from Secondary to Master manually by an Administrator.
F. If using failover pairs, the Standby Secondary boxes get their configuration directly from the Master box.

Answer: A, C

Question 7.
Which two settings can be configured by Group for a Network Access connection? (Choose two.)

A. Split Tunneling
B. FQDN for attached client machine
C. NAPT
D. Gateway
E. IP Address pool for client source addresses

Answer: A, E

Question 8.
Which two statements are true about the IP Address Pool for Network Access? (Choose two.)

A. Only one IP Address pool may be configured on the FirePass Controller.
B. The IP Address range for the pool must not include any of the configured FirePass interface addresses.
C. The IP Address range for the pool must include one of the configured FirePass interface addresses.
D. Different user groups may be configured to use different IP Address pools.
E. The IP Address range for the pool must include all of the configured FirePass interface addresses.

Answer: B, D

Question 9.
Which three are valid Terminal Server configurations on FirePass? (Choose three.)

A. TN3270 connection for Mainframe
B. AppTunnel connection for Windows Terminal Server
C. Portal Access (no client download) connection for Citrix Server
D. Terminal Server connection for Citrix Metaframe
E. Web Application connection for Windows Terminal Server
F. Terminal Server connection for VNC

Answer: B, D, F

Question 10.
Which FirePass Admin navigation screen is correct for installing either a Client SSL Certificates or a Client Revocation List?

A. Device Management / Maintenance / Security / Certificates
B. Device Management / Security / CRL
C. Device Management / Install / Certificates
D. Device Management / Install / CRL
E. Device Management / Maintenance / Security / CRL
F. Device Management / Security / Certificates

Answer: F


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Braindumps: Dumps for EE0-511 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "EE0-511" Exam

F5 BIG-IP V9 Local traffic Management

 Question 1.
Which three methods can be used for initial access to a BIG-IP system? (Choose three.)

A. serial console access
B. SSH access to the management port
C. SSH access to any of the switch ports
D. HTTP access to the management port
E. HTTP access to any of the switch ports
F. HTTPS access to the management port
G. HTTPS access to any of the switch ports

Answer: A, B, F

Page 1-9 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide

Question 2.
Which three files/data items are included in a BIG-IP backup file? (Choose three.)

A. the BIG-IP license
B. the BIG-IP log files
C. the BIG-IP host name
D. the BIG-IP administrator addresses

Answer: A, C, D

The BIG-IP backup file contains the following:
System-specific configuration files
Product licenses
User account and password information
Domain Name Service (DNS) zone files
Installed SSL Keys and certificates
Page 16-1 BIG-IP Network and System Management Guide

Question 3.
Which two statements are true concerning differences between BIG-IP platforms? (Choose two.)

A. The 1500 host more ports than the 3400
B. All F5 switch ports are tri-speed; 10 100 or 1000 Mbps.
C. All BIG-IP platforms use both an ASIC and CPU(s) to process traffic.
D. The 1500 and 3400 are in a 1U chassis while the 6400 is in a 2U chassis.
E. The 1500,3400 and 6400 have grater SSL capabilities after the initial SSL handshake than the  1000, 2400, and 5100,

Answer: D, E

Not A: The 1500 has 4 ethernet ports + 2 gig fiber and the 3400 has 8 ethernet ports + 2gig fiber.
Page 1-3 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide

Question 4.
Which three methods are available for remote authentication of users allowed to administer a BIG-IP system through the Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)

A. LDAP
B. OCSP
C. Radius
D. VASCO
E. Active Directory

Answer: A, C, E

Page 1-11 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide

Question 5.
What is the default IP address on a BIG-IP's management port?

A. 192.168.1.245/16
B. 192.168.1.245/24
C. 192.168.245.245/16
D. 192.168.245.245/24

Answer: B

Page 1-6 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide

Question 6.
Which two can be a part of a pool's definition? (Choose two.)

A. rule(s)
B. profile(s)
C. monitor(s)
D. persistence type
E. load-balancing method

Answer: C, E

Pool definition can include the following:
1. Name (1-31 characters)
2. Members
3. Load Balancing Method
4. Optional Monitors
5. Priority Group Activation

Page 2-4 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide

Question 7.
A site has six members in a pool. All of the servers have been designed, built, and configured with the same applications. It is known that each client's interactions vary significantly and can affect the performance of the servers. 

If traffic should be sent to all members on a regular basis, which load-balancing method is effective if the goal is to maintain a relatively event load across all servers?

A. Priority
B. Observed
C. Round Robin
D. Ration Member

Answer: B

Priority is not a load balancing method. Observed is the best answer, since round robin and ratio load balance without regard to system performance.

Page 2-10 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide

Question 8.
Which statement accurately describes the relation between the two load-balancing modes specified as "member" and "node"?

A. There is no difference; the two terms are referenced for backward compatibility purposes.
B. When the load-balancing choice references "node", priority group activation is unavailable.
C. Load-balancing options referencing "nodes" are available only when the pool members are defined for the "any" port.
D. When the load-balancing choice references "node', the address' parameters are used to make  the load-balancing choice rather than the member's parameters.

Answer: D

Nodes have only an IP address and may represent multiple pool members while pool members always have an IP address and service port designation.

Page 2-17 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide

Question 9.
A load-balancing virtual server has been associated with a pool with multiple members.

 Assuming all other settings are left at their defaults, which statement is always true concerning traffic processed by the virtual server?

A. The client IP address is unchanged whether the traffic is between the BIG-IP and client or the BIG-IP and server.
B. The server IP address is unchanged whether the traffic is between the BIG-IP and client or the BIG-IP and server
C. The TCP port used in the client to BIG-Ip connection are the same as the TCP ports in the BIG-IP to server connection
D. The IP addresses used in the client to big-IP connection are the IP addresses in the BIG-IP to server connection.

Answer: A

Page 2-1 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide

Question 10.
Which two properties can be assigned to a pool? (Choose two.)

A. ratio values
B. priority values
C. health monitors
D. connection limits
E. load-balancing mode

Answer: C, E

Pool definition can include the following:
1. Name (1-31 characters)
2. Members
3. Load-Balancing Mode
4. Health Monitors
5. Priority Group Activation

Page 2-4 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide



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Braindumps: Dumps for 1D0-538 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "1D0-538" Exam

Object Oriented Analysis and Design Test (JCERT)

 Question 1.
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question.

Which of the following are TRUE about the activity diagram?

Exhibit:
 
A. Alerting management of a conflict and getting building approval can be done simultaneously.
B. Getting departmental approval and getting building approval can be done simultaneously.
C. A CourseSection can be added to the CourseCatalog with just department approval.
D. Getting departmental approval and getting building approval can be done in any order.

Answer: B, D

Question 2.
Which one of the following OOAD artifacts would be MOST useful in helping to plan the content of iterations in a project plan?

A. CRC cards.
B. Collaboration diagrams.
C. Use cases.
D. State diagrams.

Answer: C

Question 3.
An Interaction Diagram should be associated with:

A. a Use Case.
B. a State Transition Diagram.
C. an Activity Diagram.
D. a CRC card.

Answer: A

Question 4.
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question. A Course Section can be added to, deleted from and retrieved from a Course Schedule. 

What is the BEST way to model the relationship between a Course Schedule and a Course Section?

Exhibit:
 
A. CourseSchedule is defined as a subclass of a Collection type and inherits the adding, deleting and retrieving capabilities for CourseSections.
B. CourseSchedule delegates the management of CourseSections to Student.
C. CourseSchedule delegates the adding, deleting and retrieving of the CourseSections to a collection it holds.
D. CourseSection has a number attribute by which it can identify the CourseSchedule to which it belongs.

Answer: C

Question 5.
When considering OOAD artifacts and the resulting software, how far should one be able to trace specific user requirements?

A. Interaction diagrams
B. Use cases
C. Class diagrams
D. Public methods
E. Private methods

Answer: D

Question 6.
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question.

Which of the following is the BEST list of candidate interaction diagrams to directly or indirectly support the use case?

Exhibit:
 

A. Receive a deposit, Withdraw funds, Buy a stock, Sell a stock, Cancel an order, View a portfolio, Log on, Log off, View a quote.
B. Manage accounts, Handle deposits and withdrawals, Trade stocks, View a portfolio, Get a quote, View a quote.
C. Open an account, Close an account, Receive a deposit, Withdraw funds, Buy a stock, Sell a stock, View a portfolio, Log on, Log off, View a quote.
D. Open an account, Close an account, Receive a deposit by wire, Receive a deposit by check, Buy a stock, Sell a stock, View a portfolio, Successful log on, Failed log on, Log off, View a quote.

Answer: A

Question 7.
Refer to the exhibits to answer the question.

Which of the following statements are TRUE with respect to the Event Planning class diagram? A Facility:

Exhibit:
 

Exhibit:
 

A. can get to a particular Seat by type of Seat.
B. may find a Seat when accessing by number.
C. may get multiple Seats back when accessing by price.
D. can access Seats by price or by Seat number.

Answer: B, C, D

Question 8.
The following are the requirements for a Report-generation module in an application: 
1. When new data is generated, the user-interface should be refreshed automatically to reflect the latest values
2. Multiple view types are possible

Which of the following Model and View interactions BEST satisfies the above requirements?

A. Combine the view and model layers into a single entity so that the interactions are localized and notifications are instantaneous.
B. Establish subscribe/notify mechanism between view and model, with the model updating the view based upon the view type.
C. Establish a subscribe/notify mechanism between the view and model layers so that the views get notified of the change.
D. Develop intelligence within the model so that it decides which views are to be refreshed based on the view type.

Answer: C

Question 9.
The developer should be able to trace a class' public operations back to its:

A. public attributes.
B. associations.
C. states.
D. responsibilities.

Answer: D

Question 10.
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question.
Suppose there is a new requirement to keep track of which instructors teach what courses and sections as well as students' evaluations of the instructor. A new Instructor class has just been added. 

Which of the following is the BEST approach for handling the information and processing requirements?

Exhibit:
 
A. Add an association class called TeachingAssignment between CourseSection and Instructor. 
    Add the new attributes and methods in TeachingAssignment.
B. Add the new attributes and methods in Instructor.
C. Add the new attributes and methods in CourseSection.
D. Add an association relationship between CourseSection and Instructor. Add some new attributes and methods in CourseSection and some in Instructor.

Answer: A


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Braindumps for "70-262" Exam

Microsoft Office Live Communications Server 2005 - Implementing, Managing, and Troubleshooting

 Question 1.
Your company's network consists of one Active Directory forest. You deploy Live Communications Server 2005 in the forest. The company's written security policy states that all instant messaging (IM) communications must be archived. You install and configure Live Communications Server 2005, Archiving service. You need to configure the components that will be archived. 

Which component or components should be archived? (Choose all that apply.)

A. IM communications between internal users
B. IM communications between internal users and federated partners
C. audio and video communications between internal users
D. audio and video communications between internal users and federated partners
E. file transfers between internal users
F. file transfers between internal users and federated partners

Answer: A, B

Question 2.
Your company's network consists of one Active Directory domain. You deploy a Live Communications Server 2005, Enterprise pool in the domain. A user named Susan changes her last name. Susan's last name is changed in Active Directory. However, her new last name is not found by using the Find feature of Microsoft Office Communicator 2005. You discover that you can find Susan by searching on her previous last name. You need to ensure that users can immediately find Susan by searching on her new last name. 

What should you do?

A. Restart the Address Book Service (ABS).
B. Run the Replmon.exe tool to force Active Directory replication.
C. Run the Abserver.exe tool with the syncnow parameter on the Address Book Service (ABS) server. Instruct all users to sign out of Office Communicator and then sign in again.
D. Run the Gpudate.exe tool with the sync parameter on the server running Live Communications Server 2005. Then restart the server.

Answer: C

Question 3.
Your company's network consists of one Active Directory forest. You deploy Live Communications Server 2005 on a server named Server1 in the forest. Server1 is configured to communicate over TCP. Your company wants to support an additional Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) namespace. You create a DNS SRV record for the new namespace. You need to allow all users to sign in to Server1 by using the new SIP namespace. 

What should you do?

A. Change all users' e-mail addresses to use the new namespace.
B. Add the new namespace to the list of supported SIP domains.
C. Add the new namespace to the list of User Principal Name suffixes.
D. Add the new namespace to the Host Authorization list.

Answer: B

Question 4.
Your company's network consists of one Active Directory forest. You deploy a Live Communications Server 2005, Enterprise pool with multiple front-end servers in the forest. Live Communications Server 2005, Access Proxy runs on a server named Server2. Live Communications Server 2005, Archiving service runs on a server named Server3. Server3 runs Microsoft SQL Server 2000 with Service Pack 4. The company's written security policy states that all instant messaging (IM) communications must be archived for auditing purposes. You need to ensure that all IM communications are archived. 

What should you do?

A. Install Microsoft SQL Desktop Engine (MSDE) on all front-end servers.
B. Install Microsoft Message Queuing (MSMQ) on Server2. Enable and configure the archiving agent on Server2.
C. Install Microsoft Message Queuing (MSMQ) on all front-end servers. Enable and configure the archiving agent on all front-end servers.
D. Install Microsoft Message Queuing (MSMQ) on one front-end server. Enable and configure the archiving agent on that front-end server.

Answer: C

Question 5.
Your company's network is configured as shown in the exhibit.
 
Live Communications Server 2005 is deployed in the forest.
Users in na.contoso.com can locate users in na.contoso.com and sales.na.contoso.com by using the Search for a contact feature of Microsoft Office Communicator 2005. Users in asia.contoso.com cannot locate users in asia.contoso.com and research.asia.contoso.com by using the Search for a contact feature of Office Communicator.

You need to ensure that users in each domain can use the Search for a contact feature to locate users in all domains. You want to ensure that no additional rights are granted.

Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the complete solution. Choose two.)

A. On contoso.com, run the DomainAdd command to add na.contoso.com and asia.contoso.com.
B. On na.contoso.com and sales.na.contoso.com, run the DomainAdd command with the usersonly parameter to add asia.contoso.com.
C. On na.contoso.com and asia.contoso.com, run the DomainAdd command with the usersonly parameter to add contoso.com.
D. On research.asia.contoso.com and research.contoso.com, run the DomainAdd command with the usersonly parameter to add na.contoso.com.

Answer: B, D

Question 6.
Your company's network consists of one Active Directory forest. You deploy a Live Communications Server 2005, Enterprise pool in the forest. You are preparing to perform routine maintenance on one of the servers in the Enterprise pool. You need to ensure that services are not disrupted for users homed on the Enterprise pool. 

What should you do?

A. Stop the Live Communications Server service on the front-end server that requires maintenance.
B. Stop the MSSQLSERVER service on the back-end database server for Live Communications Server 2005.
C. Create a new Enterprise pool. Move all users to the new pool.
D. Back up the existing Enterprise pool. Create a new Enterprise pool. Restore all users to the new pool.

Answer: A

Question 7.
Your company's network consists of one Active Directory domain named fabrikam.com. You deploy a Live Communications Server 2005, Enterprise pool in the domain. The Address Book Service (ABS) is published to a network file share. You need to provide the Microsoft Office Communicator 2005 clients with the location of the ABS files. 

What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A. Create an SRV record for _ABSInsideURL._TCP.fabrikam.com.
B. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that specifies the location of the ABS files. Link the GPO to the fabrikam.com domain object.
C. Configure the Enterprise pool to specify the location of the ABS files.
D. Configure the Office Communicator client on each user's computer to point to the ABS server as the sign-in server.

Answer: B, C

Question 8.
Your company's network consists of one Active Directory forest. You deploy a Live Communications Server 2005, Enterprise pool in the forest. You configure Live Communications Server 2005 to archive all instant messaging (IM) communications. You discover that IM communications for users in the accounting department are not being archived. You confirm that IM communications for users in other departments are being archived. You need to ensure that all IM communications are archived. 

What should you do?

A. Run the Configure Live Communications Users Wizard. Select the Configure Archiving option. Select Use Default Archiving Settings.
B. Associate the front-end servers of the Live Communications Server 2005, Enterprise pool with a new Live Communications Server 2005, Archiving service.
C. Run the Move Live Communications Users Wizard. Move the accounting users to a different pool that is configured for archiving.
D. Run the Delegation of Control Wizard on the organizational unit (OU) holding the domain object. Grant the accounting users Read-Write permissions on the Live Communications Server 2005, Archiving service computer objects.

Answer: A

Question 9.
Your company's network consists of one Active Directory forest. You deploy a Live Communications Server 2005, Enterprise pool in the forest. You configure Live Communications Server 2005 to archive all instant messaging (IM) communications. The company's written security policy states that all IM communications must be archived. IM communications that are sent by the users in the finance and legal departments must include the full IM communication. IM communications that are sent by users in the sales and marketing departments require only the usage data. All user accounts are stored in organizational units (OUs) for their respective department. You need to ensure that the archiving requirements are met. 

What should you do? 

A. Edit the Global Properties archiving settings. Select the Do not archive message body check box.
B. Run the Configure Live Communications Users Wizard on the Sales and Marketing OUs. Select the Configure Archiving check box. Select the Archive Without Message Content option.
C. Run the Configure Live Communications Users Wizard on the Finance and Legal OUs. Select the Configure Archiving check box. Select the Use Default Archiving Settings option.
D. Run the Configure Live Communications Users Wizard on the Sales and Marketing OUs. Select the Configure Archiving check box. Select the Use Default Archiving Settings option.

Answer: B

Question 10.
Your company's network consists of one Active Directory forest. You deploy Live Communications Server 2005 and Live Communications Server 2005, Access Proxy in the forest. Archiving is configured to store all instant messaging (IM) communications. The company's written security policy states that internal users must be notified, upon initiation of each IM session, that the communication will be archived. You need to ensure that the Microsoft Office Communicator 2005 client is configured to meet this requirement. 

What should you do?

A. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) to enable the Warning Text GPO setting and enter the appropriate notification text. Link the GPO to the domain object.
B. On the Access Proxy, select the Enable archiving disclaimer notification to federated users check box.
C. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) to enable the Interactive logon: Message text for users attempting to log on GPO setting and enter the appropriate notification text. Link the GPO to the domain object.
D. Create a new tab for the Office Communicator client that connects to the company's internal Web site that defines the company's archiving policy.

Answer: A


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Microsoft Internet Security and Acceleration (ISA) Server 2006, Configuring

 Question 1.
You are the administrator of an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 is configured to generate daily and monthly reports. ISA1 publishes the reports to a folder named IsaReports. You
generate custom reports to indicate user activity during the weekends of the last three months. The reports for the last five weekends display correct data. However, reports for previous weekends cannot be displayed. Only monthly activity summary reports are available for previous months. You need to provide custom reports that show the actual activity for all the weekends during the last three months. 

What should you do?

A. Configure the Microsoft Data Engine (MSDE) database log files to be saved for 130 days. Restore the MSDE database log files from backup for the last three months.
B. Configure daily reports to be saved for 130 days. Restore the log summary files from backup for the last three months.
C. Delete the log summary files. Configure daily reports to be saved for 130 days. Disable and then re-enable log summary reports.
D. In the IsaReports folder, create a new folder for each of the weekends. Copy the respective daily report files for each day of a weekend into their corresponding folders.

Answer: A

Question 2.
You are the administrator of an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 has two network adapters. Access rules allow users on the Internal network to have HTTP access to the Internet. You add a third network adapter to ISA1 and connect the third network adapter to a perimeter network.

You place a Web server named WebServer2 on this perimeter network segment. WebServer2 must be accessible to computers on the Internal network. You create a computer object for WebServer2 and then create an access rule that allows Internal network clients HTTP access to WebServer2.

Users are not required to authenticate with ISA1 to access WebServer2. Users report that they cannot access information on WebServer2. When they attempt to access the Web site, they receive the following error message: Error Code 10060: Connection timeout. Background: There was a time out before the page could be retrieved. This might indicate that the network is congested or that the website is experiencing technical difficulties. You need to ensure that users on the Internal network can access information on WebServer2. First, you verify that WebServer2 is operational.

What should you do next?

A. Create a network rule that sets a route relationship between the Internal network and the 
    perimeter network.
B. Create a server publishing rule that publishes WebServer2 to the Internal network.
C. Create a Web publishing rule that publishes WebServer2 to the Internal network.
D. Create an access rule that allows WebServer2 access to the Internal network.

Answer: A

Question 3.
Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. The IP address bound to the external network adapter of ISA1 is 192.168.100.141. You run the netstat Cna command on ISA1. The relevant portion of the output is shown in the following table. 
 
You need to be able to quickly verify whether ISA1 is allowing traffic to TCP port 139. 

What should you do?

A. From a remote computer, run the pathping command to query ISA1.
B. From a remote computer, use a port scanner to query ISA1.
C. On ISA1, use the Portqry.exe tool to query ISA1.
D. On ISA1, use the Netdiag.exe tool to query ISA1.

Answer: B

Question 4.
Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 is configured to provide forward Web caching for users on the Internal network. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 Desktop Engine (MSDE 2000) database logging is enabled on ISA1. ISA1 is configured with 512 MB of RAM and a single 60-GB hard disk. During periods of peak usage, users report that it takes longer than usual for Web pages to appear. You need to identify the source of the slow performance. 

Which two System Monitor performance counters should you add? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Memory\Pages/sec
B. Memory\Pool Nonpaged Bytes
C. MSSQL$MSFW:Databases(*)\Transactions/sec
D. MSSQL$MSFW:MemoryManager\Target Server Memory (KB)
E. Physical Disk\Avg. Disk Queue Length
F. Physical Disk\Split IO/sec

Answer: A, E

Question 5.
Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 provides Internet access for all users on the companys network. All computers on the network are configured as SecureNAT clients. You create an access rule on ISA1 that allows all users access to all protocols on the External network. You view the Firewall log and the Web Proxy filter log on ISA1 and notice that the URLs of Web sites visited by company users are not displayed. You need to ensure that the URLs of Web sites visited by company users are displayed in the ISA1 log files. 

What should you do?

A. Configure all network computers as Web Proxy clients.
B. Configure all network computers as Firewall clients.
C. Configure ISA1 to require authentication for Web requests.
D. Configure ISA1 to require authentication for all protocols.

Answer: D

Question 6.
You are the administrator of an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 is configured to publish two Web sites named www.fabrikam.com and www.contoso.com. Both Web sites are located on a Windows Server 2003 computer named Server1. The IP address of Server1 is 10.0.0.2.

The Web publishing rules are configured as shown in the following display. 
 
Both the www.fabrikam.com/info and www.contoso.com/info virtual directories point to a common file share. The default log view does not allow you to easily distinguish between requests for www.fabrikam.com/info and requests for www.contoso.com/info. A sample of the log with the relevant entries is shown in the following table.
 
You need to ensure that the log viewer displays the fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) for the Web site requests. In addition, you need to filter the log viewer to display only the requests for both the www.contoso.com/info and the www.fabrikam.com/info virtual subdirectories.

What should you do?

A. On ISA1, configure two Hosts file entries that resolve both FQDNs to 10.0.0.2. Configure each Web publishing rule to use the FQDN of its respective Web site on the To tab. In the log viewer, add to the default log filter expression a condition where the URL contains the text string info.
B. On ISA1, configure two Hosts file entries that resolve both FQDNs to the external IP address of ISA1. Configure each Web publishing rule so that requests appear to come from the original client computer. In the log viewer, add a column to display the destination host name. In the log viewer, add to the default log filter expression a condition where the URL contains the text string info.
C. In the log viewer, add two conditions to the default log filter expression. Configure the first condition so that the Rule equals Web Publish 1. Configure the second condition so that the Rule equals Web Publish 2. In the log viewer, add a column to display the destination host name.
D. In the log viewer, add two conditions to the default log filter expression. Configure the first condition so that Server contains Fabrikam. Configure the second condition so that Server contains Contoso. In the log viewer, add a column to display the destination host name.

Answer: B

Question 7.
You install ISA Server 2006 on a computer that has three network adapters. One of the network adapters is connected to the Internet, one is connected to the Internal network, and one is connected to a perimeter network. The perimeter network adapter and the internal network adapter are connected to private address networks. You configure ISA Server by applying the 3-Leg Perimeter network template. You run the 3-Leg Perimeter Network Template wizard. You then make the following changes to the firewall policy: 
• Create an access rule to allow all traffic between the Internal network and the Internet.
• Create an access rule to allow all traffic between the Internal network and the perimeter network.
• Create an access rule to allow SMTP traffic from an SMTP server on the perimeter network to a Microsoft Exchange Server computer on the Internal network.
• Create a server publishing rule to allow SMTP traffic from the External network to the SMTP server on the perimeter network.

Users report that they cannot receive e-mail messages from users outside of the Internal network. You need to allow users to receive e-mail messages from other users on the Internet. You do not want to create a server publishing rule.

What should you do?

A. Change the network rule that controls the route relationship between the perimeter network and the Internal network to Route.
B. Change all network rules that control the route relationships between the Internal network, perimeter network, and External network to Route.
C. Change the network rule that controls the route relationship between the perimeter network and the External network to NAT.
D. Change all network rules that control the route relationships between the Internal network, perimeter network, and External network to NAT.

Answer: A

Question 8.
Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 is configured to provide forward Web caching for users on the Internal network. During periods of peak usage, users report that it takes longer than usual for Web pages to appear. You suspect that insufficient memory is the source of the slow performance of ISA1. You need to verify whether insufficient memory is the source of the slow performance. 

Which two System Monitor performance counters should you add? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Memory\Pages/sec
B. Process(W3Prefch)\Pool Nonpaged Bytes
C. ISA Server Cache\Memory Usage Ratio Percent (%)
D. Physical Disk\Avg. Disk Queue Length
E. ISA Server Cache\Disk Write Rate (writes/sec)
F. Memory\Pool Nonpaged Bytes

Answer: A, C

Question 9.
Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 is connected to the Internet. VPN access is configured to ISA1. RADIUS is configured as the only type of authentication for VPN connections. All remote users can connect to ISA1 by using a VPN connection.

All internal users can connect to the Internet. You are replacing ISA1 with a new ISA Server computer named ISA2. You export the network-level node configuration settings on ISA1 to a file named ISAconfig.xml. You import the ISAconfig.xml file on ISA2. You replace ISA1 with ISA2 on the network. Remote VPN users report that they cannot authenticate to gain access to the network. Internal network users report that they cannot connect to the Internet. You need to configure ISA2 to allow incoming and outgoing access for company users. 

What should you do?

A. Export the system policy configuration settings on ISA1 to an .xml file. Import the .xml file on ISA2.
B. Export the array configuration settings on ISA1. Include confidential information in the exported configuration file. Import the file on ISA2.
C. Export the array configuration settings on ISA1. Include user permission settings in the exported configuration file. Import the file on ISA2.
D. Export the VPN Clients configuration on ISA1. Include confidential information in the exported configuration file. Import the file on ISA2.

Answer: B

Question 10.
Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1, which runs Windows Server 2003. ISA1 has three network adapters. Each adapter is connected to one of the following: Internal network, perimeter network, and Internet. All administrative hosts exist in the Internal network. You create a file named C:\Alerts\NetworkAlert.cmd. The NetworkAlert.cmd uses net.exe to send the following message to all administrative computers: Problem with network connectivity on ISA1.

You enable the default Network configuration changed alert. You add a custom alert named Network Connectivity. The properties of the Network Connectivity alert are configured as shown in the Alert Events exhibit and the Alert Actions exhibit. 
 

You test the Network Connectivity alert by disabling the ISA1 network adapter that is connected to the perimeter network. You see the corresponding alert in both the Alerts view and the application log of Event Viewer. However, the message is not received on any of the administrative computers.

You need to ensure that the administrative computers receive the text message when the Network Connectivity alert is triggered. You also need to be able to test the alert by disabling the perimeter network adapter on ISA1.

What should you do?

A. Disable the default Network configuration changed alert.
B. Enable and start the messenger service and the alert service on ISA1 and on your administrative computer.
C. On ISA1, configure the DisableDHCPMediaSense entry with a value of 1.
D. Configure the Network Connectivity alert actions to run NetworkAlert.cmd by using an account that has the Log on as a batch job right.

Answer: A


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Visual Studio 2005 Team Foundation Server

 Question 1.
You have an application in Source Control. You create a branch from a development baseline. Development activity on the branch is isolated from the baseline. You need to synchronize the baseline and the branch by merging them on a regular basis.

Which four actions should you perform? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
 
Answer:
 
Question 2.
You migrate two projects named MyWebApp and MyWindowsApp from a Microsoft Visual SourceSafe (VSS) database to two folders named ConvertedWebApp and ConvertedWindowsApp respectively on Team Foundation Server (TFS). You create a file named settings.xml to use during the migration process. You need to configure the settings.xml file.

Which XML fragment should you use?

A. 
    
B. 
    
C. 
    
D. 
    

Answer: C

Question 3.
You have a folder named $/MyProj/Dev in Source Control. The $/MyProj/Dev folder maps to a workspace named MyDev. The MyDev workspace maps to a local folder named C:\Dev. There is another folder in Source Control named $/MyProj/Apps. You create a folder named C:\Dev\Apps on the hard disk. You try to create a workspace named MyDevClean by mapping the $/MyProj/Apps folder to the C:\Dev\Apps folder. The creation of the MyDevClean workspace fails.
You need to modify the settings to successfully create the MyDevClean workspace.

What should you do?

A. Change the status of the mapping of the MyDevClean workspace to Active.
B. Change the status of the mapping of the MyDevClean workspace to Cloaked.
C. Change the mapping of the MyDevClean workspace to another local folder.
D. Change the mapping of the MyDevClean workspace to another folder on source control.

Answer: C

Question 4.
You have a source control folder named Dev that is branched into a source control folder named Q

A. Active development continues on the Dev branch. You check in two files into the Dev branch for a hotfix. The Quality Assurance department tests all hotfixes from the QA branch. You need to transfer only the hotfix from the Dev branch into the QA branch.

What should you do?

A. Merge the Dev branch into the QA branch by Date.
B. Merge the Dev branch into the QA branch by Label.
C. Merge the Dev branch into the QA branch by Changeset.
D. Merge the Dev branch into the QA branch by Latest Version.

Answer: C

Question 5.
You apply a label named 6.4 to a source control folder for the build of your application. The developers on your team have started work on version 7.0 for the build and have checked incode. 
A developer checked in version 6.4 related updates after the label was applied. You need to include the 6.4 related updates that were missed in your label.

What should you do?

A. Apply a label named 6.4 to the latest version of the project.
B. Apply a label named 6.4 to a specific changeset of the project.
C. Apply a label named 6.4 to the workspace version of the project.
D. Apply a label named 6.4 to the version of the project as on current date.

Answer: B

Question 6.
Your application will be built by four teams working simultaneously. Each team must be able to build and deploy the application independently and merge code by using labels. You need to design a strategy to meet the requirements.

Which strategy should you use?

A. Permit each team to work on the original source code. Synchronize the development effort and merge the branches.
B. Create one branch for three teams. Permit the fourth team to work on the original source code. Synchronize the development effort and merge the branches.
C. Create three branches of the original source code for three teams. Permit the fourth team to work on the original source code. Synchronize the development effort and merge the branches.
D. Create three copies of the original source code for three teams. Permit the fourth team to work on the original source code. Synchronize the development effort, check out target, and get the latest version from the original source code.

Answer: C

Question 7.
You check out a file named MyClass.cs. You make modifications to the file. You need to provide a hotfix that includes the MyClass.cs file. You also need to ensure that the modifications made to the MyClass.cs file are not included in the hotfix.

What should you do?

A. Run the tf checkin MyClass.cs command from the command-line after shelving the file without preserving changes locally.
B. Run the tf checkin MyClass.cs command from the command-line and resolve conflicts by using the Merge tool.
C. Run the tf checkin /validate MyClass.cs command from the command-line after shelving the file without preserving changes locally.
D. Run the tf checkin /validate MyClass.cs command from the command-line and resolve conflicts by using the Merge tool.

Answer: A

Question 8.
You have a project in Source Control in a folder named $/MyProject. The project has a subfolder named Images. A developer on your team is unable to get files from the $/MyProject folder. You need to ensure that the developer can get the files from the $/MyProject folder but not from the Images subfolder.

What should you do?

A. Remove the folder mapping for the $/MyProject folder. Add a folder mapping to 
    $/MyProject/Images. Set the status to Cloaked.
B. Change the setting of the $/MyProject folder to Active. Add a folder mapping to
    $/MyProject/Images. Set the status to Cloaked.
C. Change the setting of the $/MyProject folder to Active. Add a folder mapping to
    $/MyProject/Images. Set the status to Active.
D. Change the setting of the $/MyProject folder to Cloaked. Add a folder mapping to
    $/MyProject/Images. Set the status to Active.

Answer: B

Question 9.
Your company decides to integrate a task named Audit into a new development process methodology.

To integrate the Audit task, you create a process template that contains the following structure:

Auditing Process
template












You need to ensure that the Audit task in the process template is present before the Build task and the Test task load.

What should you do?

A. Add a dependency element to the group elements for the Test task and the Build task that links the taskList element of the Audit group.
B. Add a dependency element to the group elements for the Test task and the Build task that links the groupid attribute of the Audit group.
C. Modify the process template to combine the Test task and the Build Task into one group element. Ensure that the first taskList element links the Audit.xml file to the filename attribute of the element.
D. Modify the process template to use one group element. Ensure that the first taskList element links the Audit.xml file to the filename attribute of the element.

Answer: B

Question 10.
All Team Foundation Server (TFS) projects use the MSF for Agile Software Development process template. Your company decides to create a custom process template that is based on an internal set of standards and practices. You need to install the new template on your TFS server.

What should you do?

A. Use the witimport command to import the process template.
B. Use the TFSFieldMapping command to import the process template.
C. Use the New Team Project Wizard to select the process template.
D. Use the Process Template Manager dialog box in Team Explorer to import the process template.

Answer: D



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Microsoft Windows Mobile Application Development

 Question 1.
You are creating a Microsoft Windows Mobilebased application. The application stores real-time order information for small businesses. The number of orders ranges from a minimum of 0 to a maximum of 5000. You need to ensure that the application achieves optimum performance for any number of orders within the specified range.

Which class should you choose?

A. OrderedDictionary
B. HybridDictionary
C. ListDictionary
D. Hashtable

Answer: B

Question 2.
You are creating a Microsoft Windows Mobilebased application. You are required to create custom data types that derive from a system type.

The system type must satisfy the following requirements:
Ensure the type safety of collections during compilation.
Improve the code readability of the application.
Minimize the potential for run-time errors.
You need to identify the system type that meets the outlined requirements.

Which system type should you choose?

A. Delegate type
B. Nullable type
C. Generic type
D. Value type

Answer: C

Question 3.
You are creating a Microsoft Windows Mobilebased application. The application uses a custom exception class named MyException that transmits stack information. The MyException class is derived from the Exception class. The application contains a method named ThrowException. You write the following code segment.
try { ThrowException(); }
The ThrowException method throws an exception of type MyException.
You need to rethrow the exception. You also need to preserve the stack information of previous exceptions.

Which code segment should you use?

A. catch ( MyException ex) {
    throw new Exception( ex.Message );
    }
B. finally {
    throw new MyException();
    }
C. catch {
    throw;
    }
D. catch (Exception ex) {
    throw ex;
    }

Answer: C

Question 4.
You are creating a Microsoft Windows Mobilebased application. You create a class named InventoryManager. The InventoryManager class uses events to alert subscribers about changes in inventory levels. You need to create delegates in the InventoryManager class to raise events to subscribers.

Which code segment should you use?

A. public event InventoryChangeEventHandler OnInventoryChange;
    public delegate void InventoryChangeEventHandler
    (object source, EventArgs e);
B. private event InventoryChangeEventHandler OnInventoryChange;
    private delegate void InventoryChangeEventHandler
    (object source, EventArgs e);
C. public event EventHandler OnInventoryChange;
    public void InventoryChangeHandler(object source, EventArgs e) {
    this.OnInventoryChange();
    }
D. private event EventHandler OnInventoryChange;
    private void InventoryChangeHandler(object source, EventArgs e) {
    this.OnInventoryChange();
    }

Answer: A

Question 5.
You are creating a Microsoft Windows Mobilebased inventory application. The application must create reports that display inventory part numbers. 

You need to write a method named WritePart that displays the part numbers in the following format:
A minimum of three digits to the left of the decimal point
Exactly two digits to the right of the decimal point
Left-aligned output

Which code segment should you use?

A. public static void WritePart(IFormattable t, CultureInfo ci) {
    Console.WriteLine
    ("{0,-30}{1,30}", "Part:", t.ToString("000.00", ci));
    }
B. public static void WritePart(IFormattable t, CultureInfo ci) {
    Console.WriteLine
    ("{0,-30}{1,30}", "Part:", t.ToString("000.##", ci));
    }
C. public static void WritePart(IFormattable t, CultureInfo ci) {
    Console.WriteLine
    ("{0,30}{1,30}", "Part:", t.ToString("###.##", ci));
    }
D. public static void WritePart(IFormattable t, CultureInfo ci) {
    Console.WriteLine
    ("{0,30}{1,30}", "Part:", t.ToString("###.00", ci));
    }

Answer: A

Question 6.
You are creating a Microsoft .NET Compact Framework application. The application uses a StringBuilder class to manipulate text.
You write the following code segment.
StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(100);

After the code segment is executed, the text buffer of the StringBuilder class displays the following text:
Microsoft Corporation, Redmond, WA.
You need to write a code segment to clear the text of the StringBuilder class.

Which code segment should you use?

A. sb.Capacity = 0;
B. sb.Length = 0;
C. sb.Replace(sb.ToString(), "", 0, 100);
D. sb.Remove(0, 100);

Answer: B

Question 7.
You are creating a Microsoft Windows Mobilebased application. The application will manage product inventory for retail stores. You are creating a class that will contain a method named Contains. The method will search for the items in the store. The items are of reference types and value types. You need to identify the code that uses the minimum amount of execution time for both reference types and value types.

Which code segment should you use?

A. public bool Contains(T[] array, T value) {
for (int i = 0; i < array.Length; i++) {
if (EqualityComparer.Default.Equals(array[i], value))
return true;
}
return false;
}
B. public bool Contains(T[] array, object value) {
for (int i = 0; i < array.Length; i++) {
if (array.GetValue(i).Equals(value))
return true;
}
return false;
}
C. public bool Contains(IEnumerable array, object value) {
foreach (object obj in array) {
if (obj.Equals(value))
return true;
}
return false;
}
D. public bool Contains(IEnumerable array, object value) {
foreach (object obj in array) {
if (obj == value)
return true;
}
return false;
}

Answer: A

Question 8.
You are creating a Microsoft Windows Mobilebased application. You create a class named Employee. You also create an Executive class, a Manager class, and a Programmer class. These three classes inherit from the Employee class. You need to create a custom type-safe collection that manages only those classes that are derived from the Employee class.

Which code segment should you choose?

A. class EmployeeCollection < T > : List < T >
B. class Emp l oyeeCollection < T > : ICollection
C. class EmployeeCollection < T > : CollectionBase where T:class
D. class EmployeeCollection < T > : CollectionBase where T:Employee

Answer: D

Question 9.
You are creating a multithreaded Microsoft Windows Mobilebased application. The application has two separate procedures. Each procedure must run on its own threads. public void ThreadProc1() { } 
public void ThreadProc2() { }
ThreadProc1 must complete execution before ThreadProc2 begins execution.
You need to write the code segment to run both procedures.

Which code segment should you use?

A. Thread thread1 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc1));
Thread thread2 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc2));
thread1.Start();
...
thread1.Join();
thread2.Start();
B. Thread thread1 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc1));
Thread thread2 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc2));
lock(thread1) {
thread1.Start();
...
}
thread2.Start();
C. Thread thread1 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc1));
Thread thread2 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc2));
thread1.Start();
...
Monitor.TryEnter(thread1);
thread2.Start();
Monitor.Exit(thread1);Reset Instructions Calculator
D. .Thread thread1 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc1));
Thread thread2 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc2));
thread1.Start();
...
Interlocked.Exchange(ref thread1, thread2);
thread2.Start();

Answer: A

Question 10.
You are creating a Microsoft .NET Compact Framework application.
You write the following code segment.
public class Target {
public void SetValue(int value) { }
}
You need to write a method named CallSetValue that calls the SetValue method by using late binding.

Which code segment should you use?

A. public void CallSetValue(int value) {
Target target = new Target();
MethodInfo mi = target.GetType().GetMethod("SetValue");
mi.Invoke(target, new object[] { value });
}
B. public void CallSetValue(int value) {
Target target = new Target();
MethodInfo mi = target.GetType().GetMethod("Target.SetValue");
mi.Invoke(target, new object[] { value });
}
C. public void CallSetValue(int value) {
Target target = new Target();
MethodInfo mi = target.GetType().GetMethod("Target.SetValue");
mi.Invoke(value, null);
}
D. public void CallSetValue(int value) {
Target target = new Target();
MethodInfo mi = target.GetType().GetMethod("SetValue");
mi.Invoke(value, null);
}

Answer: A


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