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Braindumps for "Linux+" Exam

Julia from London

 

Question 1.
Which of the following would correctly format a 3.5” diskette?

A. mkfs /dev/fd0
B. fdisk /dev/fd0
C. mount –f /mnt/floppy
D. mkfs –t vfat /mnt/floppy

Answer: A

Explanation:
The mkfs (make file system) command is used to format a disk. /dev/fd0 is the first floppy disk on a Linux system.

Reference:
Roderick W. Smith. Sybex Linux + Study Guide: Page 459-460.

Incorrect Answers:
B. Fdisk is used for partitioning a hard disk, not formatting a floppy disk.
C. The mount command is used to mount a drive, not to format a floppy disk.
D. Vfat is the wrong file system for a floppy disk. You should use the msdos option.

Question 2.
The administrator wants to use /sbin/special.sh to do a backup every Friday the 13th.

What would be a solution?

A. Run at “Fri, 13” < /sbin/special.sh
B. Run at ‘date | cut –d –e \f3’ /sbin/special.sh
C. Add “5 1 13 * 5 /sbin/spcial.sh “ to his crontab
D. Add “1 1 13 ** if [ ‘date’ == “Frid” ]; then /sbin/special.sh fi “ to his crontab

Answer: C

Explanation:
The crontab is used to schedule a program such as a backup program. The first 5 signifies 5 minutes past the hour. The 1 signifies 01:00 (1.00 a.m.). The 13 signifies the date of the month.

The * signifies any month. The 5 signifies a Friday. This means that if the 13th day of a month is a Friday, the program will run at 01:05 (5 past 1 in the morning).

Reference:
Michael J. Tobler. New Riders, Inside Linux: Page 408/9.

Incorrect Answers:

A. The ‘at’ command can schedule a program, but it will only run once. Also, the syntax is incorrect.
B. The ‘at’ command can schedule a program, but it will only run once. Also, the syntax is incorrect.
D. The syntax is incorrect.

Question 3.
Which of the following commands is used to determine if network interfaces are up and running?

A. cksum
B. netcfg
C. siginit
D. ifconfig

Answer: D

Explanation:
The ifconfig command will display detailed information about an interface. The information will include the operational status of the interfaces.

Reference:
Roderick W. Smith. Sybex Linux + Study Guide: Page 335.

Incorrect Answers:
A. Cksum is used to calculate a Cyclic Redundancy Check to check a file for errors. It is not used to determine if network interfaces are up and running.
B. Netcfg is not used to determine if network interfaces are up and running.
C. Siginit is not used to determine if network interfaces are up and running.

Question 4.
Which of the following is LEAST affected by electromagnetic interference (EMI)?

A. Fiber Optic Cable
B. Encrypted Wireless
C. RG-68 Coaxial Cable
D. Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)

Answer: A

Explanation:
Fiber Optic cable uses pulses of light along a glass fiber to transmit data. As it uses no copper wires, it is immune to electromagnetic interference.

Reference:
http://www.erg.abdn.ac.uk/users/gorry/course/phy-pages/fibre.html

Incorrect Answers:
B. Wireless data transmission is susceptible to electromagnetic interference.
C. Coaxial Cable uses copper wires and is therefore susceptible to electromagnetic interference.
D. Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) cable uses copper wires and is therefore susceptible to electromagnetic interference. It is less susceptible to EMI than UTP (unshielded twisted pair) because the copper wires are shielded.

Question 5.
If the Linux installation process continuously locks up, which of the following should be done?

A. Repartition the drive.
B. Remove all unnecessary hardware.
C. Enable power management in the BIOS.
D. Ensure that the network card is installed prior to the installation.

Answer: B

Explanation:
If a Linux installation continuously locks up, it is likely that a hardware device is incompatible with Linux. To troubleshoot this, you should remove all unnecessary hardware, and add the hardware one device at a time, to discover the incompatible device.

Incorrect Answers:
A. Repartitioning the drive will not resolve the problem.
C. Power management is more likely to cause problems, than resolve them.
D. It is not necessary to install the network card prior to an installation.

Question 6.
Under which of the following hardware upgrades would a system NOT have to be rebooted?

A. Upgrading the CPU.
B. Replacing a PS/2 mouse.
C. Adding a USB CDROM drive.
D. Installing additional RAM.

Answer: C

Explanation:
One of the features of USB devices is that they are ‘hot swappable’. This means that you can disconnect and reconnect USB devices without needing to reboot the system.

Reference:
Roderick W. Smith. Sybex Linux + Study Guide: Page 402.

Incorrect Answers:
A. The CPU can only be changed when the system is shut down.
B. A PS/2 mouse may not work if it has been replaced without rebooting the machine.
D. RAM can only be installed when the system is shut down.

Question 7.
Which of the following connectors is hot pluggable?

A. Serial port
B. Parallel port
C. IEEE-1394 port
D. Ultra2 SCSI external connector

Answer: C

Explanation:
An IEEE-1394 port is a firewire port. This is a relatively new technology provide high data transfer rates and is hot pluggable.

Reference:
http://www.apple.com/firewire/

Incorrect Answers:
A. Serial ports are not hot pluggable.
B. Parallel ports are not hot pluggable.
D. Ultra2 SCSI ports are not hot pluggable.

Question 8.
When SCSI, video and I/O boards are installed in a PC, which of the following allows the installed card to be integrated with the current system on a hardware level?

A. CMOS
B. POST
C. BIOS
D. Boot strap

Answer: A

Explanation:
The CMOS chip is the ‘configurable’ part of the BIOS. When the computer boots, the BIOS reads configuration information from the CMOS. The BIOS and CMOS are hardware and are not related to the operating system which is software.

Reference:
http://www.wimsbios.com/

Incorrect Answers:
B. The POST (power on self test) is the process of the BIOS checking the system for installed hardware during system boot up.
C. The BIOS cannot be directly configured. It reads its configuration information from the CMOS.
D. Boot Strap is the process of a computer booting up.

Question 9.
A user has three SCSI devices (two internal and one external) connected to his computer. He adds another external device, and this device and one of the internal devices do not work.

Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A. An ID conflict
B. AN IRQ conflict
C. A memory conflict
D. A driver is not installed

Answer: A

Explanation:
SCSI devices use SCSI identifiers (IDs). Each device must have a unique SCSI ID to function correctly. If two devices have the same ID, none of the two devices will work.

Reference:
Roderick W. Smith. Sybex Linux + Study Guide: Page 32.

Incorrect Answers:
B. The SCSI devices don’t have separate IRQs. The SCSI controller (to which the SCSI devices are attached) uses one IRQ.
C. A memory conflict is less likely than an ID conflict.
D. If the driver wasn’t installed, only the recently added device would not work. The previously added devices would still work.

Question 10.
After the failed memory has been replaced, the PC does not boot and beeps several times. The beep code indicates there is no memory. The technician observes that the old SIMMs use 9 chips while the new SIMMs only use 8 chips. What is most likely the problem?

A. EDO memory is required
B. Parity memory is required
C. Fast Page Mode memory is required
D. Unregistered SDRAM memory is required

Answer: B

Explanation:
Parity memory boards have an extra chip for parity checking.

Reference:
http://www.anandtech.com/showdoc.html?i=113&p=6

Incorrect Answers:
A. The extra chip indicates parity memory, not EDO memory.
C. The extra chip indicates parity memory, not Fast Page Mode memory.
D. The extra chip indicates parity memory, not SDRAM memory.

Question 11.
All of the following are common BIOS options EXCEPT

A. mouse type
B. parity/non parity
C. floppy drive type
D. hard drive auto-detect

Answer: A

Explanation:
The mouse type is not a common BIOS option although the PS/2 mouse PORT is often mentioned.

Incorrect Answers:
B. The option to disable or enable parity checking is common.
C. The floppy drive type, (3.5 inch or 5.25 inch) is a common option.
D. The option to disable or enable hard drive auto detection is common.

Question 12.
A user has just installed a new 3.5” diskette drive in his desktop computer. He turns the computer on and discovers that the diskette drive light stays on all the time.

What is the most likely reason the light stays on?

A. The system BIOS is misconfigured.
B. The light on diskette drive is broken.
C. The power cable has not been connected properly.
D. The ribbon cable is inserted backwards in the drive.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Inserting the ribbon cable backwards is an easy mistake to make and often causes the symptoms mentioned in this question.

Reference:
http://www.computerhope.com/issues/ch000278.htm

Incorrect Answers:
A. The only configurable floppy drive option is the size. The BIOS default would most likely have
the correct size (3.5 inch) configured.
B. If the light was broken, it wouldn’t come on at all.
C. If the power cable wasn’t connected, the light wouldn’t come on at all.

Question 13.
Which network interface card has BNC connector on it?

A. IR
B. Thinnet
C. Fiber optic
D. Twisted pair

Answer: B

Explanation:
Thinnet (otherwise known as 10Base2) uses the BNC connector.

Reference:
http://searchnetworking.techtarget.com/sDefinition/0,,sid7_gci211681,00.html

Incorrect Answer:
A. IR (infra-red) is a wireless technology and therefore uses no connectors.
C. Fiber Optic does not use BNC connectors.
D. Twisted Pair does not use BNC connectors.

Question 14.
On a Plug-and-Play system, some legacy hardware (non-Plug-and-Play) is required.

Which of the following should be done to ensure the proper operation of all hardware on the system?

A. Enable IRQ routing in the BIOS.
B. Replace the BIOS with a non-Plug-and-Play BIOS.
C. Reserve the resources in CMOS for the legacy hardware.
D. Replace the legacy devices with current Plug-and-Play devices.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The resources for the legacy devices should be reserved in the CMOS. This will prevent the resources being dynamically assigned to plug and play devices, which would cause a resource conflict.

Reference:
Roderick W. Smith. Sybex Linux + Study Guide: Page 30.

Incorrect Answers:
A. It is not necessary to enable IRQ routing in the BIOS.
B. It is not necessary to replace the BIOS.
C. It is not necessary to replace the devices.

Question 15.
A battery fails in a Linux workstation. Which of the following will need to be reconfigured to get the system working after replacing the battery?

A. MBR settings
B. CMOS settings
C. POST settings
D. Data on each partition

Answer: B

Explanation:
The CMOS relies on a battery to ‘remember’ its configuration. If the battery fails, the
CMOS will need to be reconfigured.

Reference:
http://www.pcmech.com/show/motherboards/80/

Incorrect Anwers:
A. The MBR settings are written to the hard disk and do not rely on battery power.
C. The POST settings are in the BIOS which does not rely on battery power.
D. The data on each partition is written to the hard disk and does not rely on battery power.

Question 16.
A user adds a new CD-RW to an existing system with a diskette drive, single IDE hard disk drive, and CDROM drive. The user then reports the system is taking longer to load applications.

Which of the following will most likely resolve the problem?

A. Switch the CD-RW to cable select.
B. Install CD-R accelerator software.
C. Replace the CD-RW drive, as it is damaged.
D. Move the CD-RW to the secondary IDE controller.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Most systems come with two IDE controllers. The hard disk is always on the primary IDE controller. System performance can be improved by installing CD devices on the secondary IDE controller so that they are separate to the hard drive.

Reference:
Roderick W. Smith. Sybex Linux + Study Guide: Page 31.

Incorrect Answers:
A. Using cable select will not improve system performance.
B. Moving the CD device to the secondary IDE controller will improve performance without the need for extra software. CD-R accelerator software may improve the CD-R performance, but it won’t improve the overall system performance.
C. It is unlikely that a faulty CD-RW would degrade the system performance.

Question 17.
A system’s serial device is not operating correctly. Which of the following IRQs is likely to be conflicting and causing the problem?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 7
D. 13

Answer: A

Explanation:
Serial devices use COM ports. COM ports 1 and 3 use IRQ 4.

Reference:
Michael J. Tobler. New Riders, Inside Linux: Page 137.

Incorrect Answers:
B. IRQ 5 is commonly used by sound cards.
C. IRQ 7 is commonly used by the parallel port.
D. IRQ13 is used by the Math co-processor.

Question 18.
A user has just hot-swapped the CDROM with the diskette drive in his mobile system.

Now the diskette drive is not responding. Which of the following actions will correct the problem?

A. Reboot the system.
B. Reinstall the driver.
C. Remove the drive and reinstall it.
D. Set up hot-swapping capabilities in CMOS.

Answer: C

Explanation:
If a device doesn’t work after hot plugging it into a mobile system, the first troubleshooting step would be to remove the device and reinstall it.

Incorrect Answers:
A. It may not be necessary to reboot the system. Try refitting the device first.
B. If the device worked before, then the driver is already installed and does not need reinstalling.
D. Laptop PCMCIA devices are hot swappable. This does not need to be configured in the CMOS.

Question 19.
Which if the following IDs should be avoided when assigning IDs to SCSI peripherals?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7

Answer: D

Explanation:
SCSI devices need separate SCSI IDs. The SCSI controller itself uses a SCSI ID. This is usually
ID 7.

Reference:
http://cmtunix.tstc.edu/database/hardware/scsi.html

Incorrect Answers:
A. The SCSI controller usually uses SCSI ID 7, not 2.
B. The SCSI controller usually uses SCSI ID 7, not 4.
C. The SCSI controller usually uses SCSI ID 7, not 5.

Question 20.
Which device commonly uses the ATAPI interface?

A. Modem
B. CD-ROM
C. Video card
D. Network card

Answer: B

Explanation:
CD-ROM devices commonly use the ATAPI interface.

Reference:
Roderick W. Smith. Sybex Linux + Study Guide: Page 24.

Incorrect Answers:
A. Modems commonly use the serial interface, not the ATAPI interface.
C. Video Cards commonly use the AGP interface, not the ATAPI interface.
D. Network cards commonly use PCI interfaces, not the ATAPI interface.

Question 21.
A user believes that his telecommunications software is not dialing his modem properly.

Which of the following AT commands can be used to have the modem dial 432-3604?

A. AT4323604
B. ATM4323604
C. ATDT4323604
D. AT4323604DT

Answer: C

Explanation:
The ATDT<number> command is used to have a modem dial a number.

Reference:
http://www.option.co.za/hayesat.htm#Hayes%20AT%20Commands

Incorrect Answers:

A. You need the ATDT command, not the AT command.
B. You need the ATDT command, not the ATM command
D. You need the ATDT command, not the AT command

Question 22.
A Linux vendor has recently come out with a necessary patch to the server software to improve security on the server. Which of the following is the best practice, if any, for updating this patch on a production system?

A. Never apply patches on production servers, because they may introduce errors and conflicts.
B. Apply the patch during business hours, to validate the patch under normal system operation.
C. Apply the patch onto a secondary system to test the patch before installing it on a production
machine.
D. Apply the patch immediately to the production system, because security patches need to be
installed right away.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Any new software or software patch should be installed on a secondary system and thoroughly tested before installation of production systems.

Reference:
Roderick W. Smith. Sybex Linux + Study Guide: Page 203.

Incorrect Answers:
A. A patch may introduce errors and conflicts, but this is why should test it first on a secondary system.
B. A patch should be tested on a secondary system before installation on a production system.
D. Security patches should be installed as soon as possible, but not before testing on a secondary system.

Question 23.
A Linux system crashes every day at the same time and needs to be rebooted.

Which of the following would provide evidence of what was happening on the system at that time?

A. Run dmesg
B. Run uptime
C. Look in /etc/shutdown
D. Look in /var/log/messages

Answer: D

Explanation:
Most applications write error messages to files in the /var/log/messages directory.

You should look here to see if you can discover what is causing the system to crash.

Reference:
Roderick W. Smith. Sybex Linux + Study Guide: Page 613.

Incorrect Answers:
A. Dmesg is a utility that displays the text that is displayed during system startup. You need find out what caused the system to crash before the reboot was necessary.
B. Uptime is a utility that displays how long the system has been running for.
C. Error messages are not written to this file or directory.

Question 24.
After installing Linux onto a dual-processor machine, the administrator suspects that only one processor initialized successfully during the boot process. How could this be verified?

A. Run cpuinfo
B. Check /var/log/messages for errors.
C. Run dmesg to review the log file.
D. Run ps to see if both CPUs appear.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Cpuinfo is a utility that displays information about all running processors on a system. If the output contains information about only one processor, then only one processor is working.

Reference:
http://www.cpan.org/modules/by-category/04_Operating_System_Interfaces/Linux/Linux-Cpuinfo-1.5.readme

Incorrect Answers:
B. A non-functional processor would generate any error messages in the error logs.
C. Dmesg displays the text that was displayed when the system booted. This will not contain any information about a non-functional processor.
D. Ps lists the running processes, not the processors.

Question 25.
A system has a utility that is regularly updated with new versions. Rather than overwriting the older versions, they need to be retained for testing purposes. Therefore, they keep older versions in the following format utility1.3 utility1.4 utility1.5 What is the best way the system can be set up so that users cam simply type “utility” to run the latest version of the application?

A. Copy the latest version of the utility to “utility”.
B. Move the latest version of the utility to “utility”.
C. Make a symbolic link “utility” to the latest version.
D. Make a symbolic link from the latest version to “utility.lnk”.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A symbolic link is like a shortcut. A symbolic link named utility will open the file (program/utility) that the link points to, when a user types ‘utililty’.

Reference:
Roderick W. Smith. Sybex Linux + Study Guide: Page 134.

Incorrect Answers:
A. A copy of the latest version of the program should not be renamed ‘utility’ because other files that the program uses, might have links to the original program name.
B. The latest version of the program should be renamed ‘utility’ because other files that the program uses, might have links to the original program name.
D. The symbolic link needs to point to the latest version of the program.

Question 26.
A machine that usually executes its tasks very quickly becomes remarkably slow.

What information from the ps command would suggest that a process is problematic and must be killed?

A. A high CPU time.
B. A high process ID.
C. A high load average.
D. A high memory percentage.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The PS command is used to display information about the running processes. A faulty process can be recognized by having a high CPU time. This means that a high percentage of the processor time is spent trying to run the process. This can usually be fixed by restarting the process.

Reference:
Roderick W. Smith. Sybex Linux + Study Guide: Page 514.

Incorrect Answers:
B. The process ID is just an identifier for the process. A high ID would not slow the machine.
C. The PS command does not display the load average for the processor.
D. The PS command does not display information about the memory.



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Braindumps for "000-397" Exam

IBM WebSphere Portal V5.1, Deployment and Administration

 Question 1.
The administrator executed the following wpsconfig command to create a wps database in DB2.
WPSconfig create-wps-db-DDbPassword=

Why did the administrator specify the password property on the command line?

A. For security reasons, passwords should not be stored in the wpconfig.properties file. Password 
    can be provided on the command line when executing the configuration task.
B. For security reasons, the -D prefix of the password property will delete the password in 
    wpconfig properties file after executing the configuration task.
C. For security reasons, the command line password is used to verify against the password set in 
    the wpconfig.properties file.
D. For security reasons, DB2 server will not use the password directly from the command line to 
    its servers.

Answer: A

Question 2.
After installing a Portlet Application to a Portal Cluster, an administrator sees the following message.
"Portlets were successfully installed, but could not be activated at this time. Please manually activate the portlet application in the Manage Applications portlet"

Which of the following BEST describes the reason for this message?

A. The portlets could not be activated because the cluster nodes need to be stopped when 
    deploying portlets
B. Portal cannot guarantee that the portlet has been synchronized to each clustered node, so it 
    does not automatically activate it.
C. This message occurs because there are two or more clustered Portal Servers on the same 
    node, and they are not all stopped.
D. The DeploymentService.properties file has not been updated with the cluster name.

Answer: B

Question 3.
A user reports getting the following message on the login page: "Login failed.Please specify a valid ID and password." 

Which of the following is the MOST probable cause?

A. WebShere Portal has public session enabled
B. WebSphere Application Server does not have global security enabled
C. The user was enrolled with the wrong suffix in the LDAP directory
D. There is time synchronization problem between the user's login machine and the LDAP server

Answer: C

Question 4.
Which of the following files contains the output generated by enabling WebSphere Portal v5.1?

A. /log/SystemOut_log
B. /log/wps_log
C. /log/SystemErr.log
D. /log/native_stdout_log

Answer: B

Question 5.
When problems occur in the production environment, the administrator should review and inspect logs to detect the source of the problem. 

What should the administrator do once a problem has been detected and more information is needed to further investigate?

A. By default, detailed WebSphere Portal information is captured in the activity.log.No further 
    tracing is required
B. Enable tracing for WebSphere Portal to capture messages and trace information in wps 
    Trace.log
C. Enable tracing for WebSphere Portal trace through the AdminConsole and error information 
    will be captured in SystemErr.log
D. Enable WebSphere Portal trace through the AdminConsole and error information will be 
    captured in SystemErr.log

Answer: C

Question 6.
Consider the following error from the WebSphere Portal run-time log: 2003.05.16 13:36:14.449 w
Com.ibm.wps.services.database.DataStoreServiceimplInit DSTO0063W. The transaction isolation level is not set to READ_COMMITTED. 

What does DSTO0063W refer to in this error message?

A. The logmessage describing the logged event.
B. The classification of the type of message or traces
C. The messaecode that uniquely identifies the specific message
D. The name of the Java method containing the code that triggered the log event

Answer: C

Question 7.
After adding WebSphere Portal to the cluster, the administrator accesses Portal using http:///wps/portal and receives error page not found on the browser". 

Which of the following actions should the administrator perform to begin troubleshooting this error?

A. Check that plugin-cfg xml has been copied over from the WebSphere Portal nodes to the 
    deployment manager and the nodes have been synchronized.
B. Check that plugin-cfg xml has been copied over from the IBM HTTP Server to all WebSphere 
    Portal nodes have been synchronized.
C. Check that the web server host name has been added to the virtual host for the WebSphere 
    Portal cluster and the nodes have been synchronized.
D. Check that plugin-cfg xml has been regenerated,copied to the IBM HTTP Server,and the IBM 
    HTTP Server has been restarted

Answer: D

Question 8.
An administrator has added the Reminder portlet to the publically accessible Welcome page so that all users will see this reminder in their virtual portal Welcome page as well. However, all virtual portal users claimed that they cannot see the Reminder portlet. 

Which of the following BEST describes what happened? 

A. The administrator did not restart WebSphere_Portal server to propagate the changes to all 
    virtual portal Welcome Page.
B. The Reminder portlet needs to be added to each virtual Welcome page manually
C. The Reminder portlet was not installed on the virtual portal.
D. Users have not been assigned with VIEW access to the Reminder portlet.

Answer: B

Question 9.
Which of the following properties files are used by migration tasks during WebSphere Portal migration?

A. AccessControlConfigService.properties and ConfigService properties
B. migratePortalCore.properties and migrateConfigService.properties
C. PumaService.properties and Deployment Service.properties
D. Mig_core properties and mig_wmm.properties

Answer: D

Question 10.
After executing the following releaseBuilder command: 
Releasebuilder .sh-InOld stagingserver_Release1_config.xml –InNew stagingServer_Release2_config.xml -out outputfile.xml

What should the administrator do with the output file?

A. The outputfile.xml which contains the differences between release 1 and release 2 of the 
    staging portal is used to analyze consistency in the production server.
B. The outputfile.xml which contains the differences between release 1 and release 2 of the 
    staging portal is then used to import these differences onto the production server.
C. The outputfile.xml which contains the checklist from both release 1 and release 2 of the 
    staging portal is used as a reference before deploying the release onto the production server.
D. The outputfile.xml which contains the error messages from running the releasebuilder between 
    release 1 and release 2 of the staging portal is used to used as a reference to eliminate 
    problems before releasing to the production server.

Answer: B



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