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Braindumps for "646-202" Exam

New Update Questions!!!

 

Question 1.
A typical service contract provides advance replacement of hardware the next business day.
Under must warranties, advance replacement shipping is provided within _______ business days from the Return Material's Authorization (RMA).

A. 3
B. 7
C. 10
D. 14

Answer: C

Question 2.
What is a Cisco warranty?

A. the company's assurance that new parts will be delivered to the customer in fewer than ten
business days
B. the company's promise to customers that Cisco will be responsible for all repair and
replacement of products at the customer's site.
C. the company's assurance that the company will be responsible for the repair and replacement
of defective parts associated with equipment for an unlimited period of time.
D. the Cisco promise to customers that Cisco will be responsible for the repair and replacement
of defective parts associated with equipment during a designated (finite) period of time.

Answer: D

Question 3.
How can businesses, schools, or government organizations benefit from Cisco ACNS?
Select two.

A. by using the content engines for instruction detection
B. by compressing packets to improve WAN bandwidth
C. by accelerating SAP, student information systems and other intranet applications
D. by delivering live and on-demand video for salesforce readiness, distance learning or
communications

Answer: C, D

Question 4.
What are two components of a wide-area network (WAN)? Select two.

A. video-area networks (VANs)
B. local-area networks (LANs)
C. security-area networks (SANs)
D. metropolitan-area networks (MANs)

Answer: B, D

Question 5.
Which two devices are considered customer premises equipment (CPE) for digital subscriber line (DSL) systems? Select two.

A. DSL modem
B. DSL router
C. DSL Internet Protocol (IP) switch
D. "smart" DSL access multiplexer (DSLAM)

Answer: A, B

Question 6.
Cisco.com is a portal that provides customers access to________.

A. spare parts
B. unlimited software downloads
C. major upgrades for their CiscoWorks 2000 software
D. online product and technology information, interactive network management and diagnostic
tools, and empowering knowledge transfer resources.

Answer: D

Question 7.
Which component should you reduce collision issues on a large LAN?

A. host
B. switch
C. printer
D. repeater

Answer: B

Question 8.
A Layer-2/3 switch increases traffic efficiency on the network by combining some of the functionalities of ___________.

A. hubs and switches
B. switches and routers
C. switches and access points
D. switches and Gigabit Ethernet

Answer: B

Question 9.
How does a switch respond when it receives a message?

A. It reads the Layer-5 information and sends the message directly to the intended computer.
B. It reads the Media Access Control (MAC) address and sends the message directly to the
intended computer.
C. It reads the Layer-5 information and broadcasts the message to all the computers that are
connected to the switch.
D. It reads the Media Access Control (MAC) address and broadcasts the message to all the
computers that are connected to the switch.

Answer: B



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Braindumps for "1Z0-023" Exam

architecture and administration

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Braindumps for "PW0-200" Exam

Nice Questions from ITCertKeys

 

Question 1.
Given: ITCertKeys.com wants to implement a secure VoWLAN system that is compliant with the 802.11i standard and has the fastest roaming capability available.

What WLAN system type is best suited for ITCertKeys.com?

A. Wireless VoIP routers
B. WLAN mesh routers
C. WLAN switches with lightweight access points
D. Autonomous (thick) access points

Answer: C

Question 2.
When using a Wireless Network Management System (WNMS), how are rogue access points discovered?

A. Access points report all BSSID values they can hear to the WNMS via SNMP.
The BSSID values are compared against an authorized access point list.
B. Authorized access points detect unauthorized RF fluctuations on channels where rogue
access points are deployed. These fluctuations are reported via SNMP to the WNMS.
C. An open source finder tool is deployed by all WNMS vendors. This tool probes the RF
channels for rogue access points and reports to the WNMS.
D. Dedicated sensor access points are deployed throughout the coverage area.
E. Proprietary detection protocols run on the 802.11a/g access points and report all discovered
access points to the WNMS analytics engine.

Answer: A

Question 3.
RFC 3748 specifies that the EAP-response/identity frame must comply with what criteria?

A. The EAP-response/identity frame must contain the user identity.
B. When TLS-tunneling mode is active, the EAP-response frame must have a blank user identity.
C. The EAP-response/identity frame must not contain a null identity value.
D. The user identity value must be hashed prior to insertion into the EAP-response identity frame.

Answer: C

Question 4.
Given: A small company is implementing a single WLAN switch/controller with 6 lightweight (thin) access points that can authenticate users directly against a Kerberos-based authentication database. The company does not have a RADIUS server.

What device generates new encryption keys as wireless client devices roam between access points?

A. Client device
B. WLAN switch/controller
C. Kerberos server
D. Ethernet switch
E. Lightweight access points

Answer: B

Question 5.
Given: The illustration shows the 802.11i amendment's STAKey handshake.

When is this handshake used?

A. When a supplicant wishes to receive WMM information from an authenticator
B. When two wireless client stations wish to establish a WDS
C. When a wireless client station wants to roam to a peer station
D. When two client stations want to communicate directly while associated to an AP
E. When a wireless client station wants to establish a VPN tunnel to a peer station

Answer: D

Question 6.
Given: ITCertKeys.com is an Internet Service Provider with thousands of customers. It uses an LDAP server as the central user credential database.

How can ITCertKeys.com use their existing user database for wireless user authentication as they implement a large-scale WPA2-Enterprise WLAN security solution?

A. Import all users from the LDAP server into the RADIUS server with an LDAP-to-RADIUS
conversion tool.
B. Implement an x.509 compliant Certificate Authority and enable SSL queries on the LDAP
server.
C. Install a TACACS+ server, configure an ODBC connection between the TACACS+ and LDAP
servers, and have the TACACS+ server query the LDAP server.
D. Implement a RADIUS server and proxy user authentication requests to the LDAP server.

Answer: D

Question 7.
Given: A wireless network has recently been subjected to numerous Layer 1 and Layer 2 Denial of Service (DoS) attacks.

What security solution can detect and report when and where a DoS attack is occurring?

A. Wireless IPS
B. WLAN positioning system
C. Distributed spectrum analyzers
D. WPA2-Enterprise
E. Wireless LAN discovery tools with GPS

Answer: A

Question 8.
When using a VPN-enabled router as a WLAN segmentation device, what are the performance-limiting factors?

A. Each VPN tunnel must have one x.509 certificate
B. Encrypted throughput of the VPN router
C. 802.11e QoS frame tagging support
D. The maximum number of tunnel terminations supported by the VPN router
E. No support for private (non-routable) IP addresses inside VPN tunnels

Answer: B, D

Question 9.
Given: The ITCertKeys.com 802.11g WLAN has worked perfectly for the last 6 months. One morning, none of the company's 10 users can connect to the company's only access point. When the administrator logs into the access point, there are hundreds of users associated using Open System authentication.

What is the problem?

A. The AP has been the victim of an RF DoS attack.
B. The AP has experienced an AP spoofing attack from a rogue AP.
C. The AP firmware has been corrupted and is erroneously reporting the number of users.
D. The AP has experienced an association flood attack.

Answer: D

Question 10.
Given: You have a laptop computer and a Wi-Fi compliant PC card. What statements describe the limited effectiveness of locating rogue access points using WLAN discovery software such as Nets tumbler or Kismet?

A. Discovery tools like Nets tumbler and Kismet cannot determine the authorization status of an
access point.
B. A laptop computer can only be in one location at a time, even in large enterprise environments.
C. When WEP, WPA, or WPA2 are in use, access points cannot be detected using discovery
tools like Nets tumbler and Kismet.
D. Rogue access points using non-Wi-Fi frequency bands or unpopular modulations are not
detected.
E. Discovery tools like Nets tumbler and Kismet cannot determine if an access point is attached
to a wired network.

Answer: A, B, D, E

Question 11.
How does a wireless network management system (WNMS) discover WLAN usernames?

A. The WNMS finds the MAC address of the wireless client device in the authentication database
and parses the username from the entry.
B. The WNMS polls access points using SNMP.
C. The client device sends the username to the WNMS on port 113 (ident service) after
successful authentication.
D. The RADIUS server sends the username to the WNMS after the wireless device successfully
authenticates.
E. The WNMS captures the username by sniffing the wireless network during the authentication
process.

Answer: B

Question 12.
In a WLAN environment, what is one advantage of using EAP-TTLS instead of EAP-TLS as an authentication mechanism?

A. EAP-TTLS sends client credentials through an encrypted TLS tunnel to the server.
B. EAP-TTLS supports smart card clients.
C. EAP-TTLS is integrated into Microsoft Active Directory and Novell eDirectory.
D. EAP-TTLS allows clients to authenticate to the server using passwords.
E. EAP-TTLS uses proven standards-based technology, but EAP-TLS is still in draft format.
F. EAP-TTLS supports mutual authentication between supplicants and authentication servers.

Answer: D

Question 13.
Given: ITCertKeys has just completed the installation of a WLAN switch/controller with 10 lightweight (thin) access points. All VLANs use one RADIUS server. The VLANs are configured as follows:

VLAN red (5 access points) - SSID red - Lightweight EAP (LEAP) authentication -
CCMP cipher suite
VLAN blue (5 access points) - SSID blue - EAP-TTLS authentication - CCMP cipher suite
Jack's computer can successfully authenticate and browse the Internet when using the red
VLAN. Jack's computer cannot authenticate when using the blue VLAN.

What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. The blue VLAN does not support certificate-based authentication traffic.
B. The CCMP cipher suite is not a valid option for EAP-TTLS authentication.
C. The clock on Jack's computer pre-dates the RADIUS server's certificate creation date/time.
D. Jack does not have a valid Kerberos ID on the blue VLAN.
E. The WIPS has been configured to perform a DoS attack on blue VLAN RADIUS packets.
F. The Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) does not support EAP-TTLS authentication
over lightweight access points.

Answer: C

Question 14.
Given: ABC University has an Information Technology (IT) building where the Active Directory server is located. They are installing a small WLAN switch and a small RADIUS server in each of 20 campus buildings. WLAN encryption keys are generated by the RADIUS servers. Each RADIUS server will proxy user authentication to the Active Directory server in the IT building.

What AAA model is described?

A. Single site deployment
B. Distributed autonomous sites
C. Distributed sites, centralized authentication and security
D. Distributed sites and security, centralized authentication

Answer: D

Question 15.
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) allows a WLAN administrator to perform what network function?

A. Provide wireless network access to users through specific access points, based on their
802.11e priority level.
B. Allow access to specific files and applications based on the user's IP subnet.
C. Allow specific user groups more bandwidth than others.
D. Allow simultaneous support of multiple EAP types on a single access point.

Answer: C

Question 16.
What security hole results from a lack of staging and installation procedures for WLAN infrastructure equipment?

A. MAC address filters with mismatched OUIs on access points
B. Default QoS priority settings
C. Incorrect RADIUS IP address configuration on WLAN switches
D. Default usernames and passwords on access points

Answer: D

Question 17.
Given: ITCertKeys.com is deploying an 802.11i-compliant wireless security solution using 802.1X/EAP authentication. According to company policy, the security solution must prevent an eavesdropper from decrypting data frames traversing a wireless connection.

What security solution feature meets this policy requirement?

A. Mutual Authentication
B. Encrypted Pass phrase
C. Message Integrity Check (MIC)
D. 4-Way Handshake
E. Integrity Check Value (ICV)

Answer: D

Question 18.
Given: ITCertKeys.com currently utilizes a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) to allow employees to securely access network resources using smart cards. The wireless segment of the network uses WPA-Enterprise as its primary security solution. You have been hired to recommend a Wi-Fi Alliance-approved EAP method.

What solutions will require the least change in how users are currently authenticated and still integrate with their existing PKI?

A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. PEAPv1/EAP-GTC
D. LEAP
E. PEAPv0/EAP-MSCHAPv2

Answer: B, C

Question 19.
Given: ITCertKeys.com has recently installed a WLAN switch and RADIUS server and needs to move authenticated wireless users from various departments onto their designated network segments.

How should this be accomplished?

A. The RADIUS server coordinates with an authenticated DHCP server.
B. Manually map each wireless user's MAC address to a VLAN number in the Ethernet switch.
C. Implement multiple 802.1Q VLANs in both the WLAN and Ethernet switches.
D. RADIUS will send a return list attribute with the GRE tunnel number to the WLAN switch.
E. The WLAN user must contact the network administrator at step 4 of the 802.1X/EAP
authentication process to receive a network number.

Answer: C

Question 20.
Given: ITCertKeys.com has recently installed a WLAN switch/controller solution that uses WPA2-Enterprise security. They have configured a security profile on the WLAN switch for each group within the company (Marketing, Sales, and Engineering).

How are authenticated users assigned to groups to receive the correct security profile?

A. The WLAN switch retrieves a complete list of authenticated users and groups from a
RADIUS server during each user authentication.
B. The RADIUS server sends a group name return list attribute to the WLAN switch
during every user authentication.
C. The RADIUS server forwards the request for a group attribute to an LDAP database
service, and LDAP sends the group attribute to the WLAN switch.
D. The RADIUS server sends the list of authenticated users and groups to the WLAN
switch prior to any user authentication.

Answer: B

Question 21.
For WIPS to describe the location of a rogue WLAN device, what requirement must be part of the WIPS installation?

A. The predictive site survey results must be imported into the WIPS.
B. A GPS system must be installed including the coordinates of the building's corners.
C. All authorized AP radios must be placed in RF monitor mode so that the WIPS knows where
the authorized APs are in relation to the WIPS sensors.
D. A graphical floor plan diagram must be imported into the WIPS.

Answer: D

Question 22.
Given: You manage a wireless network that services 100 wireless users. Your facility requires 7 access points, and you have installed an 802.11i-compliant implementation of 802.1X/LEAP (CKIP) as an authentication and encryption solution.

In this configuration, the wireless network is susceptible to what type of attack?

A. Man-in-the-middle
B. Password dictionary
C. Layer 3 peer-to-peer
D. WEP cracking
E. Session hijacking
F. Eavesdropping

Answer: B

Question 23.
Given: A strong security policy is the first step in securing an 802.11 WLAN. What are the appropriate sections for a WLAN security policy?

A. Off-site data backups
B. Acceptable use and abuse of the network
C. Periodic security audits
D. Attack classification
E. Application performance standards

Answer: B, C

Question 24.
Given: ITCertKeys.com employs 20 data entry clerks that use an unencrypted wireless LAN to access the main network. An intruder is using a laptop running a software access point in an attempt to hijack the wireless users.

How can the intruder cause all of these clients to establish Layer 2 connectivity with the software access point?

A. WLAN clients can be forced to re-associate if the intruder laptop uses a WLAN card capable of
emitting at least 5 times more power than the authorized access point.
B. A higher SSID value programmed into the intruder software access point will take priority over
the SSID in the authorized access point, causing the clients to re-associate.
C. When the signal between the clients and the authorized access point is temporarily disrupted
and the intruder software access point is using the same SSID on a different channel than the
authorized access point, the clients will re-associate to the software access point.
D. When the signal between the clients and the authorized access point is permanently disrupted
and the intruder software access point is using the same SSID and the same channel as the
authorized access point, the clients will re-associate to the software access point.

Answer: C

Question 25.
Given: A network security auditor is assessing a wireless network's exposure to security holes.

What task would save the most time if performed before the audit?

A. Identify the IP subnet information for each network segment.
B. Identify the wireless security solutions currently in use.
C. Identify the skill level of the wireless network security administrator(s).
D. Identify the manufacturer of the wireless infrastructure hardware.
E. Identify security holes in the wireless security policy.

Answer: B

Question 26.
What elements should be addressed by a WLAN security policy?

A. Enabling encryption to prevent SSIDs from being sent in clear text
B. Use of rotating encryption key mechanisms as defined in the 802.11 standard
C. End user training on security solutions
D. Verification that all wireless infrastructure devices are attached to the network core
E. Social engineering mitigation techniques
F. Security policy details should only be known by IT staff to prevent abuse

Answer: C, E

Question 27.
Given: ITCertKeys uses a coffee shop's Internet hotspot to transfer funds between his checking and savings accounts at his bank's website. The bank website uses the HTTPS protocol to protect sensitive account information. A hacker was able to obtain Jack bank account user ID and password and transfer all of Jack money to another account.

How did the hacker obtain Jack bank account user ID and password?

A. Jack's bank is using an expired x.509 certificate on their web server. The certificate is on
Jack's Certificate Revocation List (CRL), causing the user ID and password to be sent
unencrypted.
B. Jack uses the same username and password for banking that he does for email. Jack used a
POP3 email client at the wireless hotspot to check his email, and the user ID and password
were not encrypted.
C. Jack uses the same username and password for banking that he does for his IPSec VPN
software. Jack accessed her corporate network with his IPSec VPN software at the wireless
hotspot. An IPSec VPN only encrypts data. The user ID and password are sent in clear text.
D. The bank web server is using an x.509 certificate that is not signed by a root CA and is also
using an expired public key, causing the user ID and password to be sent unencrypted.

Answer: B

Question 28.
Given: ITCertKeys.com is designing a security solution for their new wireless network. Some client device applications use Layer 3 protocols other than IP. A consultant has recommended VPN technology as part of the wireless solution, but ABC does not know which VPN protocol should be used.

What VPN protocol is appropriate?

A. IPSec
B. EAP-TTLS
C. Kerberos
D. PPTP
E. SSH2
F. WPA

Answer: D

Question 29.
Exhibit:
What type of WLAN system is illustrated?

A. Wireless Intrusion Prevention System
B. Wireless Network Management System
C. Wireless Switch Configuration GUI
D. Enterprise Encryption Gateway
E. EAP-enabled RADIUS Server

Answer: B

Question 30.
When a rogue access point is discovered on a network, what should be the immediate response of the network administrative staff?

A. Immediately dispose of the rogue access point and notify management.
B. Shut down the entire network until an investigation can be completed and the logs reviewed.
C. Call the police and lock everyone inside the facility.
D. Make a list of everyone who was near the access point at the time of its discovery.
E. Detach the access point from the wired network and follow the organization response policy.
F. Inform the security guard staff to begin parking lot patrols immediately.

Answer: E



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Braindumps for "70-290" Exam

please send 70-290 dump

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Braindumps for "E20-330" Exam

Some Questions from ITCertKeys

 


Question 1.
For a Data Migration implementation, what is the primary benefit from using Robocopy?

A. Minimum network impact
B. Seamless integration with NFS
C. Maintains file and directory NTFS security from source to destination
D. Maintains drive letter from migration source

Answer: C

Question 2.
Name the command which will perform a restore of DEV001 from volume VDEV002.

A. symsnap -g proddg restore VDEV002 ld DEV001
B. symsnap -g proddg restore DEV001 pd VDEV002
C. symsnap -g proddg restore DEV001 ld VDEV002
D. symsnap -g proddg restore DEV001 vdev ld VDEV002

Answer: D

Question 3.
On a TimeFinder split command what does the PowerPath (-ppath) option do?

A. The -ppath option is not valid on the split command
B. Allows the use of native host devices for the split by passing PowerPath
C. Forces the split command to be processed on only one path
D. Suspends I/O to PowerPath devices before splitting

Answer: D

Question 4.
Name the platform the XCopy Data Migration application supports?

A. IBM AIX
B. Sun Solaris
C. Red Hat Linux
D. Windows 2000

Answer: D

Question 5.
For a successful SRDF/A implementation, what is the most important requirement?

A. Amount of cache must be calculated for the secondary site
B. Amount of cache must be calculated for the primary site
C. Distance must be greater than60 Kilometers
D. Must calculate the back end disk impact at the primary site

Answer: B

Question 6.
Name the SRDF technology which would be needed to guarantee data integrity on the target side in the event of a link failure initiated at one of the SRDF source sites.

A. Composite group
B. Instant split
C. SRDF/A
D. Concurrent SRDF

Answer: A

Question 7.
When implementing SRDF in Adaptive Copy Write Pending mode, what is a consideration?

A. Additional cache allocation at primary site
B. Consider expanding skew values to account for invalid tracks
C. Target site should match the performance of primary site
D. Additional bandwidth between sites

Answer: A

Question 8.
For Remote Replication, what special considerations for database environments are there?

A. All data must be mirrored in Synchronous Mode only
B. All data must be consistent point-in-time copies
C. Tablespace and log files must be fully synchronized
D. Log files must be ahead of tablespaces

Answer: B

Question 9.
An SRDF/AR configuration for disaster recovery is what your customer has. For recovery and backup at both locations, they want to have identical database copies.

Name the TimeFinder option in a SRDF environment which will allow simultaneous point in time copies at both locations.

A. Use SRDF commands
B. Consistent instant split using the both_sides option
C. Split with consistent instant
D. Split with both_sides option
E. Not Supported

Answer: D



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Newly Questions from ITCertKeys

 

Question 1.
Which of the following SRDF operations changes status of Target (R2) volumes to Write Disabled, resumes SRDF link, synchronizes Target (R2) to Source (R1), and write enables Source (R1) volumes?

A. Establish
B. Suspend
C. Failover
D. Failback

Answer: D

Question 2.
Which of the following statements best describes the difference between Storage Area Networks (SANs) and Network Attached Storage (NAS)?

A. NAS I/O operations use filesystem level I/O protocols while SAN I/O operations use block level
I/O
B. In a NAS environment, clients are aware of the disk geometry of the device they access while
in a SAN they are not
C. NAS I/O operations use block level I/O protocols while SAN I/O operations use filesystem level
I/O
D. NAS devices cannot allow multiple client connections while SAN devices can

Answer: A

Question 3.
Which two of the following represents benefits of the CLARiiON SnapView Clones local replication solution? (Choose two.)

A. It utilizes a FIFO (First In, First Out) buffer
B. It removes performance impact on production volume
C. Independent physical copies of data reduces risk of data loss due to failure
D. It creates immediately available copies instantly

Answer: B, C

Question 4.
Which of the following Symmetrix connectivity options cannot be used with mainframe hosts? (Choose two)

A. FICON
B. SCSI
C. Fibre Channel
D. ESCON

Answer: B, C

Question 5.
Which of the following statements is true?

A. The SRDF/Asynchronous solution provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, that will be a few
seconds to a few minutes behind the Source
B. The SRDF/Asynchronous solution provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, up to the last
committed transaction
C. The SRDF/Asynchronous solution provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, which will be at
most one write behind for each Source (R1) device
D. The SRDF/Asynchronous solution provides a copy of the data on the Target (R2) device,
which will be several minutes to hours behind the Source

Answer: A

Question 6.
Exhibit:



The exhibit above shows the basic architecture of a CLARiiON CX400.

Which components are labeled #4 and #5?

A. #4 = 2 SPS and #5 = Power supplies
B. #4 = 2 Fans and #5 = Power supplies
C. #4 = 2 Fans and #5 = Storage processors
D. #4 = 2 SPS and #5 = Storage processors

Answer: D

Question 7.
What is the purpose of storage groups in a CLARiiON storage array?

A. LUN mirroring
B. LUN expansion
C. LUN masking
D. LUN groups

Answer: C

Question 8.
Which of the following statements is true?

A. Concurrent SRDF has the capability of dynamically defining relationships between SRDF
Source (R1) and Target (R2) devices
B. With concurrent SRDF, a single SRDF Source device (R1) can be simultaneously paired with
two SRDF Target devices (R2)
C. Concurrent SRDF has the ability to use both RAF processors for Fibre Channel host
connections
D. Concurrent SRDF enables SRDF between Symmetrix systems using Fibre Channel switches

Answer: B

Question 9.
What is the purpose of the TimeFinder/SRDF Manager in Control Center?

A. It automatically allocates storage device to hosts
B. It converts device types between standard and BCV
C. It reports key historical performance data
D. It splits and establishes with standard and Business Continuance Volume (BCV) devices

Answer: D

Question 10.
What is the purpose of the At A Glance Task Bar in Control Center?

A. Monitoring
B. ECC Administration
C. Storage Allocation
D. Data Protection

Answer: A

Question 11.
Which of the following is monitored by the Control Center Host agent?

A. Brocade switch
B. CLARiiON
C. Windows 2000 disk
D. Legato Networker
E. SQL Server

Answer: C

Question 12.
When is the Port Bypass Card used on a Symmetrix DMX?

A. When the Channel Director fails
B. When the Power Supply fails
C. When the Global Cache Memory fails
D. When the Disk Director fails

Answer: D

Question 13.
Which two of the following storage connectivity types are associated with Block level data?

A. CAS
B. SAN
C. NAS
D. DAS

Answer: B, D

Question 14.
Which of the following statements best describes a Fan-out Ratio for a SAN attached array?

A. The maximum number of HBA and storage ports that can be contained in a zone on a switch
B. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be attached to an initiator port in a
SAN
C. The qualified maximum number of initiators that can access a single Target port through a
SAN
D. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be direct attached to a HBA port in a
SAN

Answer: C

Question 15.
Which of the following represents Parity RAID in a Symmetrix?

A. Difference data (results of XOR calculation) passed between drives by Das
B. Mirror of Symmetrix Logical Volume maintained in separate Symmetrix frame
C. Mirrored Striped Volumes
D. Two Mirrors of one Symmetrix Logical Volume located on a separate physical drive

Answer: A

Question 16.
Which of the following statements is true?

What is a benefit of?

A. The SRDF/Automated Replication solution provides a copy of the data on the Target (R2)
device, which will be several minutes to hours behind the Source
B. The SRDF/Automated Replication solution provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, which
will be at most one write behind for each Source (R1) device
C. The SRDF/Automated Replication solution provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, up to
the last committed transaction
D. The SRDF/Automated Replication solution provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, that will
be a few seconds to a few minutes behind the Source

Answer: A



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Question 1.
How does TimeFinder/Snap save disk space while providing full access to the original data on the snapshot copy?

A. It only copies the data track that is read to the snapshot
B. It creates pointers to the original data
C. It compresses the original data before making the snapshot
D. It compresses the original data after making the snapshot

Answer: B

Question 2.
How is free space in the CLARiiON write cache maintained?

A. Low watermark flushing is suspended during write operations
B. The cache is automatically flushed every 90 minutes
C. The cache is flushed to the drives during I/O bursts and only the least-recently used pages are
flushed
D. Low watermark flushing is suspended during read operations

Answer: C

Question 3.
Which of the following recovery methods is used after a Data Mover failover?

A. Automatic
B. EMC support
C. Manual
D. Retry

Answer: C

Question 4.
What does NDMP represent?

A. Network Data Management Protocol
B. Network Data Mirroring Protocol
C. Network Duplex Migration Policy
D. Network Duplication Mirror Policy

Answer: A

Question 5.
Which of the following is optional when using Synchronous MirrorView?

A. write intent log
B. event error log
C. fracture log
D. connection log

Answer: A

Question 6.
Which of the following protocols uses TCP/IP to tunnel Fibre Channel frames?

A. FCP
B. FCIP
C. CIFS
D. iSCSI

Answer: B

Question 7.
Which of the following is the correct sequence for starting a Control Center component?

A. Repository, Server, Store
B. Server, Repository, Store
C. Repository, Store, Server
D. Store, Server, Repository

Answer: A

Question 8.
Which of the following Symmetrix system uses a two bus architecture that is referred to as an "X" and a "Y" bus?

A. Symmetrix 5.0 LVD
B. Symmetrix 4.8
C. Symmetrix 5.0
D. Symmetrix DMX

Answer: B

Question 9.
Which of the following statements is true?

A. SRDF/Automated Replication provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, which will be at most
one write behind for each Source (R1) device
B. SRDF/Automated Replication provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, up to the last
committed transaction
C. SRDF/Automated Replication provides a copy of the data on the Target (R2) device, which will
be several minutes to hours behind the Source
D. SRDF/Automated Replication provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, that will be a few
seconds to a few minutes behind the Source

Answer: C

Question 10.
Which of the following series of switches can you use EMC Connectrix Manager to manage?

A. M-Series
B. MDS-Series
C. Q-Series
D. B-Series

Answer: A

Question 11.
Which two of the following statements are features of CLARiiON Access Logix? (Choose two.)

A. LUN masking requires the use of storage groups
B. The storage processors in the array do not share Access Logix databases
C. Hosts need to be connected to the storage group to perform LUN masking
D. Storage groups cannot be destroyed once created

Answer: A, C

Question 12.
Which of the following Celerra replication options offers synchronous replication over campus distances for disaster recovery?

A. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/NearCopy
B. TimeFinder/FS SnapSure
C. TimeFinder/FS Snapcopy
D. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/FarCopy

Answer: A

Question 13.
Which of the following are configuration options on the NS600 Data Movers? (Choose two.)

A. One Data Mover is primary, and one acts as a standby
B. All four (4) Data Movers are primary
C. Both Data Movers are primary
D. One Data Mover acts as a standby for the other three (3) Data Movers

Answer: A, C

Question 14.
Which of the following statements is true?

A. Concurrent SRDF has the capability of dynamically defining relationships between SRDF
Source (R1) and Target (R2) devices
B. Concurrent SRDF has the ability to use both RAF processors for Fibre Channel host
connections
C. Concurrent SRDF enables SRDF between Symmetrix systems using Fibre Channel switches
D. With concurrent SRDF, a single SRDF Source device (R1) can be simultaneously paired with
two SRDF Target devices (R2)

Answer: D

Question 15.
In the first step of the copy on first write mechanism used with Reserved LUN Pool, the host sends a write request to the Source LUN.

What is the next step?

A. The snapshot pointer is changed to chunk in Reserved LUN Pool
B. The original Source LUN data chunk is written to Reserved LUN Pool
C. The snapshot pointer writes to Reserved LUN Pool
D. The host data is written to Source LUN

Answer: B

Question 16.
In the first step of a read cache miss operation on a Symmetrix, the host sends a read request.

What is the next step?

A. The Channel Director checks the track table
B. The Channel Director sends data to the host
C. The Disk Director retrieves data
D. The Disk Director sends data to the host

Answer: A

Question 17.
Which of the following statements represents a feature of file level host storage access?

A. The host sees Logical Volumes as Physical Volumes
B. Data is accessed using NFS, CIFS, and FTP
C. The host typically has exclusive access to Logical Volumes
D. The storage system presents LUNs to hosts

Answer: B

Question 18.
Which of the following sequences would ensure that an I/O is completed when a HBA on a host with Power Path fails when the I/O is being driven through it?

A. Power Path receives I/O timeout, drives I/O through an alternate path, and takes the failed
path offline
B. Power Path receives I/O timeout, takes the failed path offline and drives I/O through an
alternate path
C. Power Path takes the failed path offline, drives I/O through an alternate path, and receives I/O
timeout
D. Power Path takes the failed path offline, receives I/O timeout and drives I/O through an
alternate path

Answer: B

Question 19.
Which two of the following are features of TimeFinder/Mirror Clone? (Choose two.)

A. Utilizes VDEVs
B. Copy on access to allow for instant access to data
C. Point in time copy of Standard or BCV device
D. Requires only a small fraction of Source volume capacity

Answer: B, C

Question 20.
Which of the following statements is true regarding active zone sets in Control Center?

A. Associate an active zone set with multiple fabrics or VSANs at once.
B. Place a copy of an active zone set in the Planned Zone Sets folder for activation/modification.
C. Directly modify an active zone set.
D. Directly delete an active zone set.

Answer: B



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