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Braindumps for "1Z0-024" Exam

Well Done

 1. You always want to tune up the solution. How do you identify the unnecessary parse calls? 

a.Run your application with the SQL trace facility enabled. 

b.Run your application with the SQL trace facility disabled. 

c.Run your application with Oracle Expert enabled. 

d.Run your application with EXPLAIN PLAN enabled. 

e.None of the choices. 

Ans: Run your application with the SQL trace facility enabled. 


2. You always want to tune up the solution. You want to fine tune the memory settings. When should you increase the size of the redo log buffer? 

a . When the space request ratio is greater than 1:50 

b . When the space request ratio is greater than 1:500 

c . When the space request ratio is greater than 1:1000 

d . When the space request ratio is greater than 1:5000 

e . When the space request ratio is greater than 1:15000 

f . None of the choices. 


Ans: When the space request ratio is greater than 1:5000 

3. You always want to tune up the solution. How do you instruct Oracle to read the entire SGA into memory when you start your instance? 

a . Configure the initialization parameter PRE_PAGE_SGA to YES 

b . Configure the initialization parameter PAGE_SGA to YES 

c . Configure the initialization parameter PAGE_SGA_RAM to YES 

d . Configure the initialization parameter PAGE_SGA_LOAD to YES 

e . None of the choices. 


Ans: Configure the initialization parameter PRE_PAGE_SGA to YES 

4. You are the Database Administrator for your company. You are managing an Oracle 8i database solution. You always want to tune up the solution. You plan to use a nonunique index to enforce a UNIQUE constraint. What is the advantage of doing this? 

a . No need to rebuild the constraints index when you change the constraint from disabled to enforced 

b . You save 50% of the time spent on rebuilding the constraints index when you change the constraint from disabled to enforced 

c . You save 75% of the time spent on rebuilding the constraints index when you change the constraint from enabled to enforced 

d . You save 90% of the time spent on rebuilding the constraints index when you change the constraint from enabled to enforced 

e . None of the choices. 


Ans: No need to rebuild the constraints index when you change the constraint from disabled to enforced 

5. You are the Database Administrator for your company. You are managing an Oracle 8i database solution. You always want to tune up the solution. What command do you use to reorganize an existing index? 

a . ALTER DATABASE ... REBUILD INDEX 

b . ALTER SYSTEM ... REBUILD INDEX 

c . ALTER SESSION ... REBUILD INDEX 

d . ALTER INDEX ... REBUILD 

e . None of the choices. 


Ans: ALTER INDEX ... REBUILD 

6. You are the Database Administrator for your company. You are managing an Oracle 8i database solution. You always want to tune up the solution. What command do you use to compact an existing index? 

a . ALTER DATABASE ... REBUILD INDEX COMPACT 

b . ALTER SYSTEM ... REBUILD COMPACT 

c . ALTER SESSION ... REBUILD INDEX COMPACT 

d . ALTER INDEX ... REBUILD 

e . None of the choices. 


Ans: ALTER INDEX ... REBUILD 


7. You are the Database Administrator for your company. You are managing an Oracle 8i database solution. You always want to tune up the solution. What command do you use to change the storage characteristics of an existing index? 

a . ALTER DATABASE ... REBUILD INDEX SETTINGS 

b . ALTER SYSTEM ... REBUILD SETTINGS 

c . ALTER SESSION ... REBUILD INDEX CHANGE 

d . ALTER INDEX ... REBUILD 

e . None of the choices. 


Ans: ALTER INDEX ... REBUILD 

8. You always want to tune up the solution. You like to enable FAST FULL SCAN. How do you enable this feature? 

a . set the FAST_FULL_SCAN_ENABLED parameter to TRUE 

b . set the FAST_FULL_SCAN_ENABLED parameter to YES 

c . set the FAST_FULL_SCAN parameter to TRUE 

d . set the FAST_ SCAN_ENABLED parameter to YES 

e . None of the choices. 

Ans: set the FAST_FULL_SCAN_ENABLED parameter to TRUE 


9. You always want to tune up the solution. You like to enable FAST FULL SCAN. What is the index hint type associated with FAST FULL SCAN? 

a . INDEX_FFS 

b . INDEXFFS 

c . FFS_INDEX 

d . FFSINDEX 

e . FFS_INDEX 

f . None of the choices. 


Ans: INDEX_FFS 

10. You are advised to index only the columns with good selectivity. Which of the following correctly describe a columns selectivity? 

a . the percentage of rows in a table having the same value for the indexed column. 

b . the percentage of rows in a table having the different values for the indexed column. 

c . the percentage of rows in a table having the same value for the non-indexed column. 

d . the percentage of rows in a table having the different values for the non-indexed column. 

e . None of the choices. 

Ans: the percentage of rows in a table having the same value for the indexed column. 





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Braindumps: Dumps for 642-103 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "642-103" Exam

Nice Shot of this exam!!

 

Question 1.
Which PBX features are unnecessary for Cisco Unity to support a full integration? (Choose all that
apply.)

A. Message call service.
B. Call message retrieval.
C. Easy message access.
D. Direct message retrieval.
E. Message waiting indication.
F. Call forward to personal greeting.

Answer: A, B, D

Question 2.
Which of the following cannot be managed using the Cisco Unity
Assistant? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Password.
B. Class of service.
C. Message playback.
D. Message notification.
E. Public distribution lists.

Answer: B, E

Question 3.
Which of the following are invalid standard features of the Cisco Unity software? (Choose three)

A. voice mail
B. fax notification
C. multiple languages
D. audiotext application
E. RSA enhanced security

Answer: B, C, D

Question 4.
Which of the following are not the required objects that you should configure before adding the subscribers to Cisco Unity System? (Choose all that apply.)

A. The account policy
B. The subscriber IDs
C. The access control list
D. The subscriber template

Answer: B, C

Question 5.
You are the administrator of a Cisco Unity system at ITCertKeys. ITCertKeys is experiencing a problem with MWI performance. A number of ITCertKeys users have reported that their message lights are going on and off very slowly. This happens most often between 10:00 a.m. and 2.00 p.m.

Which of the following are unnecessary steps to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose all that apply.)

A. run a port usage report for all the ports on the Unity system for the past seven days.
B. check the MWI off codes in UTIM and on the telephone switch to ensure that they match.
C. check the ports page to see if the ports that perform MWIs are also answering calls.
D. run two port usage reports for the past seven days, one for the ports that turn MWIs on and the
other for all ports that answer calls.

Answer: A, B



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Braindumps: Dumps for 70-229 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "70-229" Exam

Need latest dump

 Hi, 
Can anyone plz update new and latest dump for 70-229 (SQL SERVER) Exam.
Thanks 



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Braindumps: Dumps for 1Z0-007 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "1Z0-007" Exam

Emabarrasing

 that someone complaints about gettijng only 60% of the questions delivered.

Why not just study to pass the remaining 40% !!!! 



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Braindumps: Dumps for MB4-211 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "MB4-211" Exam

on a way to success

 

Question 1.
When looking at the Properties window for a control on a screen, what tells you the control type?

A. Name property
B. Field Name property
C. Object Name and Control field at the top of the Properties window
D. Control Type property

Answer: C

Question 2.
Which or the following statements are true about the Heading property?

A. You can have a multi-line heading by inserting a semicolon to tell Solomon to create a new line
at that point.
B. The text entered into the Heading property or a label is used to describe a field on a screen
that is displaying data.
C. The Heading property is only used on objects that are bound and are being displayed in a grid.
D. There is no Heading property on Label type controls.

Answer: C, D

Question 3.
Which types of objects are bound to database fields?

A. Button
B. Text box
C. Combo box
D. Tab

Answer: B, C

Question 4.
Which of the following statements is true about a field TabIndex?

A. If you want the cursor to skip over a field when using the Tab key to move around the screen
you should set the TabIndex to 0 or 99.
B. When in Customize Mode you can display the TabIndex values for all the fields on the screen
at the same time.
C. When you move fields around, Solomon automatically adjust the TabIndex so that the
movement through the screen matches the physical layout.
D. The TabIndex property values determine how users move through the screen using the TAB
key, not the physical placement of the controls on the screen.

Answer: D

Question 5.
While Solomon supports several different types of lookups which lookup type can NOT be modified in Customization Manager?

A. Fixed list
B. Database
C. User-Specified
D. All lookup types can be modified in Customization Manager

Answer: B

Question 6.
Which of the following statements are true about how levels function in Customization Manager?

A. The Self level will results in screens opening with all customization levels for the screen being
loaded.
B. The Standard level can be used to identify if a customization is causing an error in a screen.
C. After creating customizations for a screen the last thing you must do is set the Level to store
the customization at the desired level.
D. Levels can be used when implementing field level security.

Answer: A, B, D

Question 7.
Which Customization Level will allow a screen to open with customizations applied but will never allow you to add new customizations or modify existing customizations at that level?

A. Standard
B. Supplemental Product
C. All User
D. One User

Answer: B

Question 8.
How can you tell what properties have been modified for an object?

A. While in Customize mode the control has an asterisk next to it.
B. Use Query Analyzer to look at the customization record in the Custom VBA table.
C. Use the Customized Property Browser window.
D. Export the customization and review the file that is created.

Answer: C, D



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Braindumps: Dumps for MB4-217 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "MB4-217" Exam

Successful Task

 

Question 1.
Which types of transactions can be entered in the Daily Cash Balances screen?

A. Disbursements only
B. Receipts only
C. Either Receipts or Disbursements
D. Transactions cannot be entered in this screen

Answer: D

Question 2.
When is a Cash Manager account balance updated in the Cash Manager module?

A. When a batch from GL, AP, AR or CA is Saved
B. When a batch from GL, AP, AR or CA is Released
C. When the Posting process is run in General Ledger
D. When the Posting process is run in Cash Manager

Answer: B

Question 3.
What happens when a batch of Cash Account Transactions that contains payments that update Accounts Receivable is released in Cash Manager?

A. A batch containing the payments is sent to the Payment Entry screen in Accounts Receivable.
B. The batch is left on Balanced status in Cash Manager until the payments are applied in the
Accounts Receivable module, then the batch is released in Cash Manager.
C. A batch is sent to the Accounts Receivable Payment Applications screen.
D. A batch of transactions is created in the General Ledger that debits the bank account and
credits the AR Holding account.

Answer: C, D

Question 4.
When is a new entry created for an account in the Daily Cash Balances screen?

A. A record is created for each transaction date for each account.
B. Whenever the General Ledger Posting process is run.
C. A record is created for each transaction, regardless of the date, for each account.
D. Whenever the Cash Manger Integrity Check Process is run.

Answer: A

Question 5.
Which of the following transactions would be included in the Daily Cash Balance Inquiry screen for an account?

A. A batch of cash receipts entered and released to the customers in Accounts Receivable
B. A batch of Accounts Payable checks on Hold
C. A batch of General Ledger transactions that has already updated General Ledger balances
(assuming the Accept Updates from General Ledger Transactions option is checked for the
cash account)
D. A Cash Account Transfer batch that has been Released

Answer: A, C, D

Question 6.
What happens if the Generate Consolidation process is executed more than one time for a given fiscal period?

A. Nothing.
B. The entire balance of the accounts is consolidated again.
C. A new file is created containing only the amounts entered since the previous consolidation was
calculated and processed.
D. The process can only be run one time.

Answer: C

Question 7.
A deposit to be entered contains several items that need to be coded to different income accounts, but the deposit total is the amount that will appear on the bank statement.

Which of the following should be done in the Cash Account Transaction screen to accomplish this?

A. Choose “By Detail” for the Reconciliation Mode.
B. Choose “By Batch” for the Reconciliation Mode.
C. Enter each item as a separate line with the designated account in the transaction section of
the screen.
D. Enter a transaction line for the entire deposit amount as well as a transaction line for each
individual amount.

Answer: B, C

Question 8.
When is the “Accept Updates from GL Transactions” option not available for a particular account in the Cash Account Maintenance screen?

A. The field is never available in this screen.
B. When the “Accept Updates from GL Transactions” option in the CA Setup screen has not been
checked.
C. When the “Show GL Bank Reconciliation Information” option in the CA Setup screen is
checked.
D. After the first Initializing entry has been made for the account.

Answer: B

Question 9.
When do Cash Flow items entered in the Cash Flow Item Maintenance screen update actual Cash Manager and General Ledger account balances?

A. As soon as an item is entered
B. When the Cash Flow Item batch is released
C. When the Cash Flow Projection Report is run
D. They never update actual balances

Answer: D

Question 10.
The option to Accept Updates from General Ledger Transactions in the Cash Manager Setup screen is checked, but transactions entered in General Ledger are not updating Cash Manager.

Which of the following could be the cause?

A. The option Post Batches on Release in the General Ledger Setup screen is disabled.
B. The General Ledger Posting Option in the Cash Manager Setup screen is set to Summary.
C. The Cash Manager Integrity Check process needs to be run.
D. The option Accept Updates form General Ledger Transactions in the Cash Account
Maintenance screen is not checked for the cash account of the transactions.

Answer: D

Question 11.
When is the “Adjustment” batch type used?

A. Correct a batch of transactions is entered in error
B. Link a corrected batch to an original batch
C. Enter statistical transactions.
D. Make a one-sided journal entry

Answer: D

Question 12.
How do you change the Default Ledger ID specified in the GL Setup screen?

A. Use Initialize Mode
B. The field can be changed at any time.
C. Once set, this field cannot be changed.
D. Use Customization Manager

Answer: C

Question 13.
A company wishes to segment their sub account as follows: 1. Company Segment, 2. Location, 3. Department, 4. Event, 5. Region, 6. Project, 7. Sales Type. How is this accomplished?

A. Define the Sub account as seven Segments in Flex key Definition.
B. Recommend the company not use Solomon as the sub account does not accommodate this
scenario.
C. Recommend the client use three segments as seven is just too many.
D. Define one of the segments as part of the natural account and create a sub account with six
segments.

Answer: A

Question 14.
How many ledgers can be affected by a single Journal Transactions batch?

A. One
B. One ledger per transaction line
C. One ledger per transaction line, as long as debits equal credits for each ledger in the batch
D. Unlimited

Answer: A

Question 15.
Which scenarios would require a new Budget distribution with assigned percentages?

A. Seasonal variations for employee expenses.
B. Equally distribute expenses for office supplies.
C. Monthly variation for utilities.
D. Distribute an expense based on the actual balances for the prior year.

Answer: A, C

Question 16.
Which are proper procedures to correct a transaction batch that was released and posted to period 07-2005 instead of 08-2005?

A. Delete the batch in the Journal Transactions screen.
B. Use Initialize Mode to edit and “re-post” the batch.
C. Enter a new batch to reverse the effect of the transactions in period 07-2005.
D. Enter a new batch with the appropriate transactions for period 08-2005.

Answer: C, D

Question 17.
When can the status of a Sub account be set to inactive?

A. When it is not defined as a default in Setup or Maintenance screens.
B. When all history is deleted
C. When all transactions are posted
D. Sub accounts cannot be made inactive

Answer: A

Question 18.
Which batch types can a user create in the Journal Transactions screen?

A. Allocation
B. Manual
C. Recurring
D. Non-recurring

Answer: B, C, D

Question 19.
Which Allocation Method is used to allocate office supplies posted to an administrative account to each department based on the amount of office supply expense in each departmental sub account?

A. Actual Period-to-Date
B. Ledger-Period-to-Date
C. Percent
D. Unit Ratio

Answer: A

Question 20.
Which is the greatest number or “Budget” type ledgers can you create in Solomon?

A. One.
B. Unlimited
C. Only two per fiscal year
D. Only one per fiscal year

Answer: B

Question 21.
What are the correct settings for the Fiscal Year and Calendar Year options in GL Setup for a company when the current fiscal year is 2004 and the fiscal year began on July 1, 2003?

A. Fiscal Year is 2003, Beg. Calendar Year is checked.
B. Fiscal Year is 2003, End Calendar Year is checked.
C. Fiscal Year is 2004, Beg. Calendar Year is checked.
D. Fiscal Year is 2004, End Calendar Year is checked.

Answer: D

Question 22.
Where are Account Classes defined?

A. The user creates the list in Account Class Maintenance
B. The Account Classes are pre-defined in the system.
C. Customization Manager is required to define the list of Account Classes.
D. Account Classes are defined in FRx.

Answer: A

Question 23.
Which of the following are included in each detail line in the Journal Transactions screen?

A. Company lD
B. Fiscal Period
C. Account/Subaccount
D. Description

Answer: A, C, D

Question 24.
What happens when the Generate Consolidation File process is executed?

A. A transaction file is generated containing the detail transactions for all accounts/subaccounts.
B. A transaction file is generated containing one transaction line for each account/subaccount
combination that has activity for the period.
C. The account balances are reversed out of the source database and balances are transferred
to the destination database.
D. The transactions in the source database are summarized and compressed.

Answer: B

Question 25.
Which of the following must be done if the “Valid Combos Required” box is checked in the Shared Information Flex key Definition screen but the “Validate” option for each segment is not checked?

A. Set up valid combinations in Account/Subaccount Maintenance.
B. Set up segment ID’s in Flex key Table Maintenance.
C. Set up subaccounts in Subaccount Maintenance.
D. Check the Validate Account/Subaccount option in the GL Setup screen.

Answer: C

Question 26.
When a discount is taken, what account is the discount amount posted to?

A. The Discount Account defined in the AP Setup screen.
B. The Discount Account defined for the Vendor.
C. The Discount Account defined in GL Setup
D. The Discount Account entered on the detail line of the voucher.

Answer: A

Question 27.
Which Vendor View Default options in Vendor Maintenance display a voucher that was entered and paid in the current period?

A. All Documents
B. Open Documents Only
C. Current plus Open Documents
D. Only vouchers can be viewed in this screen1 the check is not available.

Answer: A, C

Question 28.
How much is the batch total for a batch entered in Voucher and Adjustment Entry that contains a voucher for $10, a Debit Adjustment for $5 and a Credit Adjustment for $2?

A. Positive $3.00
B. Positive $7.00
C. Positive $13.00
D. Positive $17.00

Answer: D

Question 29.
The client needs to be able to run reports showing 5 years of Accounts Payable period balance history and 2 years of transaction level history.

What settings and/or procedures would you implement for the client to insure that this will happen?

A. In the AP Setup screen, set the Years to Retain Vendor History = 5 and the Periods to Retain
Transactions = 2.
B. In the AP Setup screen, set the Years to Retain Vendor History = 5 and the Periods to Retain
Transactions = 24.
C. This situation cannot be accomplished, year to date history and transactions must be retained
for the same amount of time.
D. Regardless of detail retention settings, all history is always available, when Delete Detail is run
the old information is archived not actually deleted.

Answer: B

Question 30.
What transactions are created in the General Ledger for a vendor invoice for telephone expense when it is released in Voucher and Adjustment Entry?

A. Debit to the Telephone Expense account
B. Credit to the Telephone Expense account
C. Debit to the Vendor AP account
D. Credit to the Vendor AP account

Answer: A, D

Question 31.
Which of the following check forms will print one check form per vendor when there are more documents being paid than will fit on one check stub?

A. Laser Check Form
B. Multiple Stub Laser Check Form
C. Remittance Laser Check Form
D. It does not matter which form is used.

Answer: C

Question 32.
An invoice is received from vendor Trey Research for information and research services they provided.

Which screens can be used to enter the vendor invoice?

A. Voucher and Adjustment Entry
B. Quick Voucher and Prepayment Entry
C. Manual Check
D. Void Check

Answer: A, B

Question 33.
Voiding a check using the Void Check Entry screen causes which of the following things to occur in the system?

A. A new “Void Check” document is created and appears on the Check Register report with the
original check.
B. A credit adjustment is automatically created and applied to the documents that the check
originally paid.
C. A debit adjustment is automatically created and applied to the documents that the check
originally paid.
D. The voucher that was paid by the check is reinstated and can be selected for payment again.

Answer: A, D

Question 34.
How can you select all documents for payment that are due on or before a particular date along with all documents for a particular vendor?

A. Enter the Pay Dates and indicate the Vendor ID in the grid portion of the Payment Selection
screen.
B. Run Payment Selection by Pay Date in one batch and by Vendor ID in another batch.
C. Run the Payment Selection by Pay Date, then run it again by Vendor ID and Un-check “Clear
Previous Payment Selections”.
D. Run the Payment Selection by Pay Date, then run again by Vendor ID and Check “Clear
Previous Payment Selections”.

Answer: B, C



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Braindumps: Dumps for MB4-219 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "MB4-219" Exam

Just use this dump

 

Question 1.
Which Purchase For type is valid for purchase orders, but not for receipts?

A. Description Lines and Non-Inventory Goods
B. Service for Expense and Service for Project
C. Goods for Project
D. Misc. Charges and Freight Charges

Answer: B

Question 2.
When landed cost entries require a booking to a variance account, how does Solomon determine the general ledger accounts for this entry?

A. The Account and Subaccount associated with the landed cost Reason Code is always used.
B. The Landed Cost Variance Account specified in the IN Setup screen is always used.
C. If the Landed Cost Variance Account field for the inventory item is not blank, then that account
is used.
D. If the Landed Cost Variance Account field for the inventory item is blank, the Landed Cost
Variance Account in the IN Setup screen is used.

Answer: C, D

Question 3.
Vouchers created from purchase order receipts can be edited in which of the following screens?

A. Receipt/Invoice Entry
B. Voucher and Adjustment Entry
C. PO Receipt Inquiry
D. Journal Transaction

Answer: B

Question 4.
When is the status of a regular purchase order set to Completed (M)?

A. Receipts totaling the full amount of all line items on the purchase order have been released.
B. During the delete detail process, if the promise date on all the items is less than the current
business date.
C. When the Purchasing module is closed for the year. all regular orders that are not in an Open
Order status are automatically set to Completed.
D. Total receipts for all line items on the purchase order fulfill the Receipt Qty Min % setting and
the Receipt Acceptance Action is either Accept Quantity and No Warning or Accept Quantity
and Warning.

Answer: A, D

Question 5.
If a landed cost is associated with a voucher line that has a LIFO inventory item, and the quantity remaining in inventory for the item is less than the receipt quantity, then how are GL accounts and inventory affected by the landed cost entries?

A. No accounts are affected and there is no affect on inventory.
B. An inventory adjustment is created to revalue inventory for the items still in inventory, the
landed cost variance account is debited and the landed cost clearing account is credited for the
other items.
C. The inventory account is debited for the full amount of the landed cost and the landed cost
expense account is credited, no inventory adjustments are created.
D. No affect on the General Ledger, but an inventory adjustment batch is created to increase the
value of the remaining items to reflect the total landed costs.

Answer: B

Question 6.
If a client needs the functionality in the Landed Cost module, what other modules need to be implemented?

A. Accounts Payable
B. Purchasing
C. Inventory
D. Order Management

Answer: A, B, C

Question 7.
A customer determines that no further receipts of material against some open purchase orders are expected.

Which action will not show outstanding quantities in the Quantity on Purchase Orders field for the inventory items, but retains the original history of the quantities actually ordered?

A. Record receipts for the remaining items, uncheck the Reopen Closed Purchase Orders on
Returns field, then enter returns for the same amounts.
B. Activate Initialize Mode and set the Qty Remaining fields in the Receipt and Voucher Amounts
screen on the purchase orders to zero.
C. Retrieve the purchase orders in the Purchase Orders screen and change the status from Open
Order to Completed or Cancelled.
D. In the Purchase Orders screen, change the quantity fields on each line item to exactly match
the actual quantity received.

Answer: C

Question 8.
When is the status of a standard order automatically set to Completed (M)?

A. Receipts totaling the full amount of all line items on the standard order have been released.
B. Once the sum of the quantities on all regular orders created from the standard order equals or
exceeds the quantities on all the corresponding line items on the standard order.
C. When the Purchasing module is closed for the year, all regular orders that are not in an Open
Order status are automatically set to Completed.
D. Solomon never automatically sets standard orders to Completed.

Answer: D

Question 9.
Which receipt types can be entered in the Receipt/Invoice Entry screen?

A. Voucher
B. Receipt
C. Returns
D. Cancelled

Answer: B, C

Question 10.
In which of the following screens can you set a default value for the landed cost clearing account and subaccount to be used for booking landed cost entries?

A. IN Setup
B. lnventory/ltems
C. Landed Cost Codes
D. Reason Codes

Answer: C, D

Question 11.
A client is using the Inventory and the Order Management modules.

What types of documents can the client enter directly into the Inventory Issues screen?

A. Issue
B. Invoice
C. Debit Memo
D. Return

Answer: A, D

Question 12.
Which of the following inventory item valuation methods require a receipt number to be entered when adjustments are made in the Adjustments screen in the Inventory module?

A. FIFO
B. Average
C. LIFO
D. User-Specified

Answer: A, C

Question 13.
Which inventory valuation method does ‘not’ require the entry of the item’s cost when entering a Receipt?

A. LIFO
B. Average Cost
C. FIFO
D. Standard Cost

Answer: D

Question 14.
Which functions can be performed in the Kit Assembly screen of the Inventory module?

A. Assemble Stock Kits
B. If the Allow Non-Component Assembly field in IN Setup is checked, items not originally a
component of the kit can be added to the kit.
C. If the Verify Quantity field in the Inventory Item screen for the Kit is checked, items not
originally a component of the kit can be added to a kit.
D. Assemble Non-stock Kits

Answer: A, B

Question 15.
Which of the following are reasons for setting up Unit Conversions in the Inventory module?

A. At least one unit conversion is required.
B. Inventory items are purchased in units of measure that are different from the stocking unit
C. There are multiple physical storage sites for storing inventory items
D. Inventory items are sold in units of measure that are different from the stocking unit

Answer: A, B, D

Question 16.
Which functions can be performed when multiple inventory sites have been set up?

A. Inventory items can be stored in multiple sites
B. Inventory items can be transferred between sites
C. Inventory items can be sold to customers from different sites
D. Physical attributes can be defined and associated with each site

Answer: A, B, C

Question 17.
When the Update GL for All Inventory Transactions field is checked in the Inventory Setup screen, which of the following applies?

A. Only transactions created in the Issues and Receipts screens update the General Ledger
B. Transactions created in the Adjustments screen update the General Ledger
C. Transactions created in the Receipts screen update the General Ledger
D. Transactions created in the Issues screen update the General Ledger

Answer: B, C, D

Question 18.
Which inventory valuation method is used to maintain cost layers for items based on receipt date?

A. Specific Identification
B. Average Cost
C. FIFO
D. User-Specified Cost

Answer: C

Question 19.
Which feature in the lnventory module can be used to associate characteristics to inventory items for searching purposes?

A. Physical Attributes
B. Physical Cycles
C. Product Classes
D. ABC Codes

Answer: A

Question 20.
Which of the following inventory valuation methods is not supported by the Solomon lnventory module?

A. Average
B. FIFO
C. LIFO
D. Justin Time

Answer: D

Question 21.
A company needs the ability to perform a partial physical count on a group of items that are not based on the cost or sales activity of the inventory items.

Which of the physical inventory fields on the Physical Cycle tab in the Inventory Items screen can be used to meet the needs of this client?

A. Movement Class
B. Cycle ID
C. ABC Code
D. Product Class

Answer: B

Question 22.
A company receives goods to a particular location for the purpose of inspection before the items can be sold.

When the goods pass inspection they are moved to another location. The inspection site has Qty Available “unchecked”, how should the Sales Allowed field be set?

A. Check No Sales Allowed for the inventory site
B. Check No Sales Allowed for the warehouse bin location
C. Check No Sales Allowed for the product class
D. Check No Sales Allowed for the product line

Answer: B

Question 23.
The Release IN Batches screen in the Inventory module only displays batches that have which of the following statuses?

A. Hold
B. Balanced
C. Unposted
D. Partially Released

Answer: B, D

Question 24.
Which feature in the Inventory module can be used to set up the part numbers of the manufacturers to streamline the entry of Purchase Orders and Sales Orders?

A. Item Cross Reference
B. Product Classes
C. Reason Codes
D. Product Class Cross Reference

Answer: A

Question 25.
When cost of goods sold is calculated for the sale of average cost items, at which level of detail is the average cost found?

A. Inventory Item
B. Inventory Site
C. Warehouse Bin Location
D. The value in the Cost of Goods Sold Subaccount Source field in the IN Setup screen

Answer: B

Question 26.
A company wants sales prices on invoices to be whole dollar amounts. The Stock Base Price in the Inventory Items screen is set to whole dollar amounts. Which Disc Method options in the Sale Price screen will result in prices being calculated with non-zero amounts to the right of the decimal point?

A. Flat Price
B. Percent Discount
C. Price Markup
D. Percent Markup

Answer: B, D

Question 27.
Which of the following screens in the Order Management module cannot be used if the Inventory module is installed?

A. Non-Stock Item
B. Item GL Classes
C. Item Price Classes
D. Chain Discounts

Answer: A

Question 28.
Which of the following can be handled by the Wildcard functionality’ in Order Types for the accounts that will be used for posting in the General Ledger module, assuming a 4 character account and a 2 segment subaccount?

A. The exact same account and subaccounts should be used for all the posting required.
B. The sales account/subaccount should be based on the customer placing the order, but the
COGS account/subaccount should be based on the item being sold.
C. All the subaccounts should have the first segment value based on the customer placing the
order and the second segment on the miscellaneous charges.
D. The first 2 characters of the sales account should be based on the customer placing the order
and the last 2 characters on the item.

Answer: A, B



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Helpfull questions from ITCertKeys

 

Question 1.
Which of the following are rules for Invoice Posting?

A. Specify the Accounts Receivable account that is used for posting.
B. Define the General Ledger postings when an invoice is posted using Invoice & Adjustment
Posting.
C. Determine whether transactions will post to the project, the General Ledger, or both.
D. Define whether retention is calculated and posted on the project.

Answer: B

Question 2.
For each Report ID in Invoice Maintenance, for example, BI010, nine others exist, for example BI011 through BI019. How are these reports used?

A. The existing BI010 can be customized and saved as BI011 through BI019 to allow for different
invoice formats.
B. Only the base report, BI010 is an actual report. BI011 through BI019 are empty Crystal Report
flies which must be created from scratch
C. The base reports, such as BI010, are used for invoices and the other reports BI011 through
BI019 are used for aging reports.
D. The base reports, such as BI010, are used for invoices created in Invoice & Adjustment
Maintenance and the other reports BI011 through BI019 are used for Scheduled Billings and
Construction Billing reports.

Answer: A

Question 3.
How is a previously posted Construction Billing Application reversed?

A. In Invoice Reversal & Duplication
B. By changing the status of the Application to In Process.
C. Construction Billing Applications cannot be reversed, but a correcting Application can be
issued.
D. By applying a credit memo in Accounts Receivable.

Answer: A

Question 4.
Which status will invoices generated by the Automatic Invoice creation process have?

A. In Process
B. Completed
C. Balanced
D. Posted

Answer: B

Question 5.
What does “Recap” in Invoice Format Maintenance refer to?

A. Subtotaling a section on the invoice.
B. Restating invoice line items without adding them into the invoice total.
C. Summarizing invoice transactions rather than showing them in detail.
D. Including the referenced sections in the invoice total.

Answer: B

Question 6.
Which is true about Billing Transaction Load?

A. It can be automated to run after Allocation Processor.
B. It is always an optional process.
C. It copies transactions from the Allocator to Flexible Billings.
D. It copies transactions from PJTRAN to PJINVDET.

Answer: A, D

Question 7.
How is the invoice date in Invoice Print used?

A. It informational only; the date used is actually the current date.
B. It assigned as the invoice date during Final Print but not for Preliminary or Reprint.
C. It assigned as the invoice date during Preliminary Invoice Print.
D. It informational only; the current date is assigned as the invoice date during Invoice &
Adjustment Posting.

Answer: B

Question 8.
Invoice Reversal & Duplication can duplicate an invoice from month to month.

What other process can generate a fixed billing amount each month?

A. Automatic Invoice Creation
B. Invoice & Adjustment Maintenance
C. Scheduled Billings & Revenue
D. Construction Billing

Answer: C

Question 9.
If part of a billing transaction is put on Hold in Invoice & Adjustment Maintenance what is the result?

A. The Hold Units and Amount are available the next time an invoice is created.
B. The Hold Units and Amount appear as an adjustment to the next invoice.
C. The invoice must be defined as adjustment doc type.
D. The Hold Units and Amount are written off to the adjustment account in Billing Rules.

Answer: A

Question 10.
If multiple line items in Invoice Format Maintenance use the same section number, they:

A. Will automatically be summarized into one line item when the invoice prints.
B. May be summarized on the invoice if the information for the selected Section Type is the
same.
C. Should use the same Subtotal, Recap and Section Descriptions.
D. Must have the same Account Category.

Answer: B, C

Question 11.
Budgets are entered at what level of a project?

A. Project and task level budgets can be entered into the Budget Maintenance screen.
B. Employee level within account category.
C. Budgets must always be entered for a project, task and Account Category combination.
D. Budgets must always be entered for an Account Category within the project.

Answer: C

Question 12.
The Contract Type field in Project Maintenance is used for which of the following?

A. The field is informational only.
B. The AR Invoice Interface and the Project Billing Analysis report.
C. Allocation Processor
D. The Invoice Interface only.

Answer: B

Question 13.
Which of the following best describe how Project Charge Entry batches post when they are released?

A. Units and Amounts to Projects.
B. Debits and Credits to Projects.
C. Debits and Credits to the General Ledger.
D. Units and Amounts to Projects and Debits and Credits to the General Ledger.

Answer: A

Question 14.
An Accounts Payable voucher batch is entered and released in period 04-2002. If the current Period in Project Controller is 05-2002, what will occur during the Financial Transaction Transfer process?

A. The transaction will not transfer unless you have the box checked in Project Controller Setup
to allow ‘prior periods’.
B. Nothing, Prior Period entries cannot be selected in Financial Transaction Transfer.
C. The transaction will transfer into the current Project Controller period regardless of the period
entered into Accounts Payable.
D. The transaction date will be used to copy the transaction into the appropriate Project Controller
period.

Answer: A

Question 15.
In which of the following scenarios would it be appropriate to create a new Code Type?

A. A project user defined ID field must be limited to a user-defined list of values.
B. One segment of the project ID needs to be validated against a user defined table.
C. Only certain employees can charge their expenses to a specific project.
D. Only certain employees can charge their time to a specific project.

Answer: A, B

Question 16.
Summarized project information is stored in what groupings?

A. Month, Year, Project
B. Week, Month, Quarter
C. Month, Quarter, Year
D. Month, Project

Answer: A

Question 17.
The Project Net Profit screen displays which two types of Account Categories?

A. Asset and Liability
B. Revenue and Expense
C. Non-Accounting and Revenue
D. Asset and Revenue

Answer: B

Question 18.
Transactions that make up Committed amounts on a project may consist of which of the following?

A. Unposted Timecards
B. Unapplied Accounts Receivable Payments
C. Open Accounts Payable Vouchers
D. Purchase Orders

Answer: A, D

Question 19.
By default, account categories sort in ascending alphabetical order in screens and on reports.

How can the display order be changed?

A. By using the Code File ‘SORT’ to change the sort order
B. By assigning the Account Categories to a Task in Task Maintenance
C. By using the Sort Number field in Account Category Maintenance
D. The default sort order cannot be changed.

Answer: C

Question 20.
What are the three levels of hierarchy in Project Controller transactions?

A. Contract, Project, Type
B. Customer, Project, Task
C. Project, Task, Account Category
D. Project, Account Category, employee

Answer: C

Question 21.
When creating a new Code Type, what type should it always be?

A. User Created
B. User Maintained
C. System Created
D. System Maintained

Answer: A

Question 22.
How is a Project pre-defined user ID Field activated?

A. By using Customization Manager to make the field visible
B. By defining the appropriate values for the field in Code File Maintenance
C. By selecting the appropriate ID field in ID Maintenance and making it visible
D. By selecting the ID fields to be made visible in Project Controller Setup

Answer: C

Question 23.
If Revenue Recognition is calculated and posted at the Task level and based on a calculation of Amounts and All Expenses and Contract Value, which of the following must be true?

A. A task-level subaccount must be defined in the Task Maintenance screen.
B. A task-level revenue account must be defined in the Percent Complete and Revenue
Recognition Setup screen.
C. The Budget Maintenance screen must contain task level EAC amounts for all expense
Account Categories relevant to the project, as well as Contract Value.
D. The Budget Maintenance screen must contain task level EAC amounts for all expense
Account Categories, as well as Revenue.

Answer: C

Question 24.
Project Series requires what option for Multi-company processing?

A. Multiple application databases and multiple system databases.
B. Multiple companies in one application database within one system database.
C. Only one application database with one company and one system database.
D. This is not possible.

Answer: B

Question 25.
What validation options are available for Project and Task segments in Key Definition?

A. No validation is available for individual segments.
B. Code Type
C. Field Class
D. Values

Answer: B, C, D



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Some questions from ITCertKeys

 

Question 1.
What program do you use to set up SQL back up jobs?

A. SQL Profiler
B. Solomon Database Maintenance
C. Enterprise Manager
D. Service Manager

Answer: C

Question 2.
You wish to deploy Solomon in an environment with 34 concurrent users. Which Solomon edition needs to be installed?

A. Single-User Solomon Standard Edition
B. Multi-User Solomon Standard Edition
C. Solomon Enterprise Edition
D. Solomon Professional

Answer: D

Question 3.
Solomon’s access security functions include which of the following?

A. Controlling who can and cannot log into Solomon.
B. Enabling and disabling Microsoft Access database security functions.
C. identifying Solomon database users and groups.
D. Controlling who does and does not have access rights to certain Solomon windows.

Answer: A, C, D

Question 4.
Which of the following are key elements of the computer system inventory you should conduct before installing Solomon?

A. Document network interface card (NIC) data
B. Verify available RAM meets recommendations
C. Verify available hard drive space
D. Verif you have a backup keyboard

Answer: A, B, C

Question 5.
Which of the following cannot be installed from the Solomon CD(s)?

A. Seagate Crystal Reports
B. Solomon Tools for Visual Basic
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Solomon Kernel (SWIM)

Answer: C

Question 6.
Good implementation policies recommend a “pre-installation” process.

Which of the following should be included in a pre-installation process?

A. You can optionally activate Microsoft SQL Server’s referential integrity capabilities to extend
the referential integrity capabilities of Solomon.
B. Protect the data of any current accounting software that Solomon is replacing.
C. Verify adequate hardware and software resources to run Solomon.
D. Obtain the tools and resources used before, during and after the installation of Solomon
program files.

Answer: B, C, D

Question 7.
Which Microsoft versions of Windows are supported for a Solomon client installation?

A. Windows 95
B. Windows 2003
C. Windows XP
D. Windows 2000

Answer: B, C, D

Question 8.
What resources does the Solomon Kernel, Swimapi.dlI, interface with?

A. Customization Manager module
B. Application modules and report writers
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Internet Explorer

Answer: A, B, C

Question 9.
When consulting with a customer in regard to needed hard disk space for Solomon databases, which of the following responses would you choose?

A. A typical system and application database together will not require more than 100 MBs
B. A typical system and application database together will require a minimum of 1 GB required
C. A typical system and application database together need anywhere from 30 GBs to several
hundred GBs
D. A typical system and application database together need anywhere from 300 MBs to several
GBs

Answer: D

Question 10.
Which of the following can increase a Solomon Application database’s hard disk storage requirements?

A. The volume of transactions processed
B. The Solomon modules being used
C. Transaction detail retention settings
D. Installation of application help files

Answer: A, B, C

Question 11.
Which of the following could cause problems with a Solomon installation?

A. Conflicting .dlls
B. Inadequate RAM
C. Using a USB keyboard and mouse
D. Out of date Windows and SQL Server service packs

Answer: A, B, D

Question 12.
When installing SQL Server to be used with Solomon you must do which of the following?

A. Install with the default character set.
B. Install it on the same server as Solomon.
C. Set the sa user’s password to “Master”.
D. Install with the default sort order

Answer: A, D

Question 13.
Which of the following statements about referential integrity is true?

A. Referential integrity is programmed into Solomon application windows.
B. Referential integrity is solely the responsibility of the Solomon System Manager module.
C. Solomon’s referential integrity functions are closely connected to the referential integrity
functions provided by Microsoft SQL Server.
D. You can optionally activate Microsoft SQL Server’s referential integrity capabilities to extend
the referential integrity capabilities of Solomon.

Answer: A



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