|
i need some questions, please send me my email: robert_jeans@gmail.com
|
Can anyone mail the latest dumps. amber_khan583@hotmail.com Thanks
|
hi all, I am taking up 70-292 shortly. Can u send me the latest itcertkeys guide. Which is the latest dump to be used...thank,
|
send latest 70-270 dump
|
Question 1.
You work as DBA at Company.com. You administer two Windows Server 2003 computers named
Company A and Company B. You install SQL Server 2005 on both Company A and Company B to host a new company database. Company A hosts a read-write copy of the company database in which all changes are made. Company B subscribes to a publication on Company A and is only used for reporting. A Windows domain administrator provides you with a domain user account named SQLSRV to use as the security context for the SQL Server services. A password policy of 42 days exists in the Default Domain Group Policy object (GPO). You install the database on Company A and Company B and configure replication. Everything works fine for six weeks, but then all SQL Server services fail. You need to correct the problem.
What should you do?
A. Ask the Windows domain administrator to grant the Log on as service right to the SQLSRV
domain user account.
B. Configure the SQLSRV domain user account with a new strong password. Configure the new
password in the properties of each SQL Server service that failed.
C. Create a local user account on Company A named Company A and a local user account on
Company B named Company B. Configure Company A and Company B to run under the
context of the appropriate local user account.
D. Ask the Windows domain administrator to grant the SQLSRV domain user account
membership in the Domain Admins group.
Answer: B
Question 2.
You are a database administrator of two SQL Server 2005 computers named Company A and Company B . You have a Microsoft .NET application that has been modified so that it now accesses a database on Company B in addition to Company A . You do not want the user application to connect directly to Company B . You need to enable the data retrieval from Company B while maintaining the ability to assign different permissions to different users who use the .NET application. What should you do?
A. Change the .NET application to define a new server connection to Company B .
B. Configure a linked server on Company A to point to Company B .
C. Change the stored procedures called by the .NET application to include the OPENXML
command.
D. Configure a linked server on Company B to point to Company A .
Answer: B
Question 3.
You are a database administrator for Company.com. Your company uses a different company's application that is based on SQL Server 2005 Standard Edition. The application executes a query that uses an index query hint. The index query hint is not suitable for your environment, but you cannot modify the query. You need to force the application to use a different query execution plan.
What should you do?
A. Create a plan guide for the query.
B. Clear the procedure cache.
C. Create a new covering index on the columns that the query uses.
D. Update the statistics for all of the indexes that the query uses.
Answer: A
Question 4.
You are a database administrator for Company.com. Your SQL Server 2005 computer contains one user database that holds sales transaction information. Users report that the queries and stored procedures that they use every day are taking progressively longer to execute. You also notice that the amount of free disk space on the SQL Server computer is decreasing. You need to create a maintenance plan to correct the performance and storage problems.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Check Database Integrity option.
B. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Reorganize Index option.
C. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Shrink Database option.
D. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Clean Up History option.
E. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Execute SQL Server Agent Job option.
Answer: B, C
Question 5.
You are a database administrator for Company.com. You are responsible for a SQL Server 2005 database that has several indexes. You need to write a stored procedure that checks the indexes for fragmentation.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. DBCC INDEXDEFRAG
B. SELECT * FROM sys.dm_db_index_physical_stats
C. SELECT * FROM sys.indexes
D. DBCC DBREINDEX
Answer: B
Question 6.
You work as DBA at Company.com. You administer two SQL Server 2005 computers named Company A and Company B . Company A and Company B contain a copy of a database named Sales. The database is replicated between Company A and Company B by using transactional replication. A full backup of each database is performed every night. Transaction log backups are performed every hour. Replication latency is typically less than two minutes. One afternoon, the Sales database on Company A becomes corrupted. You are unable to repair the database. The Sales database on Company B is unaffected. You need to return the Sales database on Company A to normal operation as quickly as possible. You must ensure a minimum loss of data and minimal impact to users of either server.
What should you do?
A. Perform a full database backup on Company B . Restore the backup to Company A .
B. Restore the most recent full database backup and all transaction logs made since the full
backup was made.
C. Restore only the most recent transaction log backup.
D. Detach the Sales database on Company B . Copy the database file to Company A , and attach
the database on both servers.
Answer: A
Question 7.
You are a database administrator for Company.com. The company runs a popular database driven Web site against a SQL Server 2005 computer named Company B . You need to ensure a quick response time and appropriate audit trail in the event that Company B experiences excessive traffic due to denial-of-service (DoS) attacks.
Which two actions should you perform?
(Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Configure the new performance alert to start a SQL Server Profiler trace.
B. Create a new performance alert to monitor the Current Bandwidth counter.
C. Configure the new performance alert to start a Network Monitor capture.
D. Create a new performance alert to monitor the Bytes Total/sec counter.
Answer: C, D
Question 8.
You are a database administrator for Company.com. One of the databases on a SQL Server 2005 computer contains a stored procedure. Users run this stored procedure to import data into a table. The stored procedure needs to use the TRUNCATE TABLE command before importing new data into the table. However, the users who run the stored procedure do not have permission to truncate the table. You need to provide a way for the stored procedure to truncate the table before it imports new data.
What should you do?
A. Configure the stored procedure to use the EXECUTE AS command.
B. Configure the stored procedure to be owned by the same database user as the table.
C. Assign the users DELETE permission in the table.
D. Add the users to the db_data writer fixed database role.
Answer: A
Question 9.
You are a database administrator for Company.com. You have separate SQL Server 2005 development and production environments. You use the Business Intelligence Development Studio to create a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package in your development environment. Then, you use the SSIS package to import data into your development environment from one of your company's trading partners. You need to deploy the SSIS package to your production environment. Your production environment uses different table names than your development environment.
What should you do?
A. Save the SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to a file. Copy the file to the
production server. Configure the SSIS package on the production server to use the new file.
B. Back up the master database and restore it to the production server. Rename the appropriate
tables inside the master database.
C. Create a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package configuration. Build a deployment
utility. Copy the deployment folder for your SSIS project to your production server. Execute the
manifest file.
D. Back up the msdb database and restore it to the production server. Rename the appropriate
tables inside the msdb database.
Answer: C
Question 10.
You are a database administrator for Company.com. You notice that one of the data files on a SQL Server 2005 computer is corrupted. You need to restore the database from the most recent set of backups. You want to perform this task as quickly as possible, with a minimum loss of data.
What should you do first?
A. Restore the most recent transaction log backup.
B. Restore the most recent full database backup.
C. Perform a full database backup.
D. Perform a transaction log backup.
Answer: D
Question 11.
You are a database administrator for Company.com. A SQL Server 2005 computer named Company A has a database named Inventory. Company A is responsible for aggregating manufacturing part numbers from your company's trading partners. The manufacturing part numbers are stored in the Product table in the Inventory database. Every night, data is sent as text files from each trading partner to Company A . You need to import data and ensure that no duplicate manufacturing part numbers exist in the data imported from the text files that are stored in the Inventory database on Company A. You want to achieve this goal with the minimum amount of impact on your company's trading partners and your IT department.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that each of your company's trading partners uses unique key values for manufacturing
part numbers. Then, import the text files into the Product table.
B. Ensure that each text file is stored in an Extensible Markup Language (XML) file. Use
Extensible Style sheet Language Transformations (XSLT) to automatically remove duplicates
before data is imported into the Product table.
C. Import the data from each text file into a staging table. Write a query to include a HAVING
clause to remove duplicate values before inserting results into the Product table.
D. Place a unique index on the Part Num column.
Answer: C
Question 12.
You are a database administrator for Company.com. The company has a SQL Server 2005 computer named Company A . A database on Company A stores sales history data for the company's Web-based order system. Twenty of the business analysts in the company create ad hoc queries against the database. The performance of Company A is routinely slow. You need to find out which business analyst is causing the problem.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the sp_who system stored procedure.
B. Use the Activity Monitor to view the activity of specific business analysts.
C. Run SQL Trace system stored procedures to gather database activity.
D. Create a trace that uses a predefined template by using SQL Server Profiler.
Answer: C, D
Question 13.
You are a database administrator for Company.com. Your company owns a chain of 10 retail stores. Each retail store maintains point-of-sale transactions on its own SQL Server 2005 computer, in a database table named Sales. The Sales table also contains sales data from other stores to enable customer returns to any of the 10 retail stores. The sales data is refreshed from the main office to each retail store hourly. A trigger named trg_Coupon on the Sales table is used to generate sales coupons based on customer sales and buying patterns. You need to configure replication between the server in each retail store and a central server in the main office by using the fewest number of steps. Replication does not have to be in real time.
What should you do?
A. Use transactional replication between the server in each retail store and the central server in
the main office.
B. Set up multiple merge publications, one at each retail store and one on the central server in
the main office.
C. Use snapshot replication. Configure the trg_Coupon trigger on the server in each retail store to
use the NOT FOR REPLICATION option.
D. Use merge replication. Configure the trg_Coupon trigger on the server in each retail store to
use the NOT FOR REPLICATION option.
Answer: D
Question 14.
You are a database administrator for Company.com. The company hosts SQL Server 2005 databases for subscription-based customers. New customer databases are created frequently. Databases are removed when customers subscriptions end. Company managers want to track who creates each database and when each database is created. To store this information, you create a SQL Server database named Logging. You need to ensure that the appropriate information is written to the Logging database.
What should you do?
A. Use the SQL Trace stored procedures to log database creation activity.
B. Create a stored procedure. Configure the stored procedure to write the appropriate information
to the Logging database.
C. Create a DDL trigger that runs when a new customer database is created. Configure the DDL
trigger to write the appropriate information to the Logging database.
D. Configure Service Broker to run a stored procedure that writes the appropriate information to
the Logging database.
Answer: C
Question 15.
You are a database administrator for Company.com. You are responsible for managing 10 SQL Server 2005 computers that run Microsoft Windows Server 2003, Enterprise Edition. The company's Microsoft Active Directory administrators handle all Group Policy object (GPO) deployments. The Active Directory administrators have deployed a security template named SQL05_Security.inf that has the appropriate settings to meet the company's security policy. You need to identify the existing configuration of each SQL Server 2005 computer to ensure that it meets the company's security policy.
What should you do?
A. Use Network Monitor on each SQL Server 2005 computer to capture a detailed report of the
types of network traffic on the local network adapter.
B. Use the Performance Logs and Alerts snap-in to create counter logs for the Network Interface
performance object.
C. Use the Security Template snap-in to analyze the SQL05_Security.inf security template.
D. Use the Security Configuration and Analysis tool on each SQL Server 2005 computer to
identify discrepancies between system settings and database settings.
Answer: D
Question 16.
You are a database administrator for Company.com. A software developer in the company is running the following query against a SQL Server 2005 database. SELECT Surname FROM Employees WHERE UPPER(Surname) LIKE 'COR%' The software developer reports that the query runs quickly on a test database that has a small number of rows. However, the query runs very slowly on the production database that has millions of rows. The Surname column stores data in mixed case, by using case-sensitive collation. But the query needs to perform a case insensitive search. You need to improve the performance of this query. However, you do not have permission to change the collation orders. And you cannot modify the application code that adds rows to the database.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Create an index on the Surname column.
B. Modify the query to include the following Transact-SQL statement. SELECT Surname FROM
Employees WHERE Surname LIKE UPPER('cor%')
C. Execute the following Transact-SQL statement. ALTER TABLE Employees ADD
Upper Surname AS UPPER(Surname)
D. Execute the following Transact-SQL statement. ALTER TABLE Employees ADD
Upper Surname AS CAST(Surname AS nvarchar)
E. Create an index on the Upper Surname column.
F. Modify the query to include the following Transact-SQL statement. SELECT Surname FROM
Employees WHERE Upper Surname LIKE 'COR%'
Answer: C, E, F
Question 17.
You are a database administrator for Company.com. Your SQL Server 2005 database contains a table named Customer with a column named Postal Code in it. New Postal Code values are added regularly. You need to ensure that values contained in the Postal Code column are verified. You need to retrieve, from the Postal Service in each country in which you have customers, the domain of values for the Postal Code column. Rapid response time for data access is of primary concern.
What should you do?
A. Implement a database trigger that looks up the postal code data from a server maintained by
the Postal Service.
B. Import the Postal Service data on a nightly basis into a Postal Code table. Then, configure a
foreign key on the Customer table to the Postal Code table.
C. Configure a CHECK constraint on the Postal Code field of the Customer table to allow only
valid values.
D. Implement a CLR trigger that looks up the postal code data by using a Web service offered by
the Postal Service.
E. Configure a new Postal Code data type and ensure that it conforms to the Postal Service
specifications for the format for each country.
Answer: B
Question 18.
You are a database administrator for Company.com. A user named Company belongs to the Windows Sales Managers group. Company needs a Reporting Services report to display annual sales information by territory. A user named Joe reports to Company and belongs to the Windows Sales group. He needs a report that is limited to his sales territory, but still displays the same detailed sales data that is on Company's report. You need to design a secure solution that meets the reporting needs of the users and that consumes the minimal amount of server resources.
What should you do?
A. Design a report for Company that includes two data regions. One data region is used for
summary sales data. The other data region is used for the detailed sales data for each sales
representative. Then, design a report for Joe that displays the detailed sales data.
B. Design two reports for Company. One report includes the territory information, and one report
includes the detailed sales data. Then, design a report for Joe that displays the detailed sales
data for his territories.
C. Design a report for Company that includes the territory information. Then, design a report for
Joe that includes detailed sales data for his territories. Finally, configure Company report so
that it includes the data in Joes report.
D. Design a parameterized report for Company that includes all territory information. Then, design
a linked report for Joe that links to Company report.
Answer: D
Question 19.
You are a database administrator for Company.com. You receive alerts reporting that several transactions on your SQL Server 2005 database have terminated due to a deadlock error. You need to find out the causes of the deadlocks.
What should you do?
A. Use System Monitor to trace the Application instance of the Number of Deadlocks/sec counter
in the SQL Locks object.
B. Use the sys.dm_tran_locks dynamic management view (DMV).
C. Run the Database Engine Tuning Advisor (DTA) and implement the recommendations.
D. Run SQL Server Profiler and create a trace with the Deadlock graph event group, and extract
deadlock events.
Answer: D
Question 20.
You are a database administrator for Company.com. You are configuring a new SQL Server 2005 computer named Company A . Company A will run Reporting Services. It will also be configured to automatically perform database backups and other maintenance tasks. There are no other SQL Server computers in the network environment. All access to Company A will be made by using Company A DNS name. You need to disable any unnecessary services on Company A.
Which service or services should you disable? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Microsoft Distributed Transaction Coordinator
B. Internet Information Services
C. SQL Server Agent
D. SQL Server Browser
Answer: A, D
Question 21.
You work as DBA at Company.com. You administer a SQL Server 2005 computer named Company A . Company A is a member of a Microsoft Active Directory domain. You do not have any rights or privileges to perform domain administration. However, you have been granted membership in the local Administrators group on Company A . You perform most of the management of Company A from your administrative workstation. However, for security reasons, you want to track all attempts for interactive logons and network connections to Company A.
What should you do?
A. Configure the SQL Server service on Company A to audit all successful and failed logon
attempts.
B. Run the SQL Server Profiler and use a standard default template.
C. Edit the local security policy of Company A . Then, configure success and failure auditing on
the Audit logon events setting.
D. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that is configured for success and failure auditing of the
Audit account logon events setting. Ask the domain administrator to link the GPO to the object
containing Company A .
Answer: C
Question 22.
You work as DBA at Company.com. You administer a SQL Server 2005 computer named Company A. Company A is configured to automatically perform transaction log backups, database integrity checks, and other maintenance tasks on a regular basis. Another administrator uses the SQL Server Surface Area Configuration tool to reconfigure Company A . You notice that
Company A no longer performs the automated maintenance tasks. You need to ensure that the maintenance tasks on Company A are completed automatically.
What should you do?
A. Manually perform a full backup of the msdb database.
B. Reconfigure the server so that the SQL Server Agent service starts automatically.
C. Reconfigure Company A to use Windows Integrated authentication.
D. Reconfigure the SQL Server service to log on by using an administrative user account.
Answer: B
|
Question 1.
You are the network administrator for ITCertKeys. The company has a main office and two branch offices.
The network in the main office contains 10 servers and 100 client computers. Each branch office contains 5 servers and 50 client computers. Each branch office is connected to the main office by a direct T1 line.
The network design requires that company IP addresses must be assigned from a single classful private IP address range. The network is assigned a class C private IP address range to allocate IP addresses for servers and client computers.
ITCertKeys acquires a company named Acme. The acquisition will increase the number of servers to 20 and the number of client computers to 200 in the main office. The acquisition is expected to increase the number of servers to 20 and the number of client computers to 200 in the branch offices. The acquisition will also add 10 more branch offices. After the acquisition, all branch offices will be the same size. Each branch office will be connected to the main office by a direct T1 line. The new company will follow the ITCertKeys network design requirements.
You need to plan the IP addressing for the new company. You need to comply with the network design requirement.
What should you do?
A. Assign the main office and each branch office a new class A private IP address range.
B. Assign the main office and each branch office a new class B private IP address range.
C. Assign the main office and each branch office a subnet from a new class B private IP address
range.
D. Assign the main office and each branch office a subnet from the current class C private IP
address range.
Answer: C
Explanation:
After the expansion the situation will be:
• Main office
o Need 220 IP, 20 for servers and 200 for clients
• Branch Offices
o Need 220 IP, 20 for servers and 200 for clients
o We will have 12 branch offices
o 12 x 220 = 2640
Total for all offices is 2640 + 220 = 2860.
The network design requires that company IP addresses must be assigned from a single classful private IP address range. We can subnet a private Class B address range into enough subnets to accommodate each office. There are various ways of doing this, but one way would be to subnet the class B address into subnets using a 24 bit subnet mask. This would allow up to 254 IP addresses per subnet and up to 254 subnets.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The network design requires that company IP addresses must be assigned from a single classful private IP address range.
B: The network design requires that company IP addresses must be assigned from a single classful private IP address range.
D: The class C network doesn’t have enough IP addresses to accommodate all the computers in all the offices.
Reference:
William Boswell; Inside Windows Server 2003
Question 2.
You are the network administrator for ITCertKeys. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Itcertkeys.com. The network contains an application server running Windows Server 2003.
Users report intermittent slow performance when they access the application server throughout the day.
You find out that the network interface on the application server is being heavily used during the periods of slow performance. You suspect that a single computer is causing the problem.
You need to create a plan to identify the problem computer.
What should you do?
A. Monitor the performance monitor counters on the application server by using System Monitor.
B. Monitor the network traffic on the application server by using Network Monitor.
C. Monitor network statistics on the application server by using Task Manager.
D. Run network diagnostics on the application server by using Network Diagnostics.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Network Monitor Capture Utility
Network Monitor Capture Utility (Netcap.exe) is a command-line Support Tool that allows a system administrator to monitor network packets and save the information to a capture (.cap) file. On first use, Network Monitor Capture Utility installs the Network Monitor Driver.
You can use information gathered by using Network Monitor Capture Utility to analyze network use patterns and diagnose specific network problems.
This command-line tool allows a system administrator to monitor packets on a LAN and write the information to a log file. NetCap uses the Network Monitor Driver to sniff packets on local network segments.
Notes
• You must run NetCap from the command window.
• If the Network Monitor Driver is not installed, NetCap installs it the first time the tool is run. To remove the driver, use netcap /remove.
Corresponding UI
This tool provides a command-line interface to some of the capture functionality of Netmon.
Concepts
NetCap captures frames directly from the network traffic data stream so they can be examined. You can use it to create capture files for support personnel.
Frames are packages of information transmitted as a single unit over a network. Every frame follows the same basic organization and contains the following:
• Control information such as synchronizing characters
• Source and destination addresses
• Protocol information
• An error-checking value
• A variable amount of data
System Requirements
NetCap requires one of the following operating systems:
• Windows Server 2003
• Windows XP Professional
• Windows 2000
File Required
• Netcap.exe
References:
Resource Kit Windows XP:
• Appendix D - Tools for Troubleshooting
Server Help:
• Performance Monitoring and Scalability Tools
Network Monitor
Network Monitor captures network traffic information and gives detailed information about the frames being sent and received. This tool can help you analyze complex patterns of network traffic. Network Monitor can help you view the header information included in HTTP and FTP requests. Generally, you need to design a capture filter, which functions like a database query and singles out a subset of the frames being transmitted.
You can also use a capture trigger that responds to events on your network by initiating an action, such as starting an executable file. An abbreviated version of Network Monitor is included with members of the Windows Server 2003 family. A complete version of Network Monitor is included with Microsoft Systems Management Server.
Incorrect Answers:
A: System Monitor allows you to monitor real-time performance statistics.
C: Task Manager is used to view real-time performance data surrounding processes and applications.
D: Network Diagnostics is a graphical troubleshooting tool, built into the Windows Server 2003 interface that provides detailed information about a local computer's networking configuration.
References:
Resource Kit Windows XP: Appendix D - Tools for Troubleshooting
Server Help: Performance Monitoring and Scalability Tools
J. C. Mackin, and Ian McLean, MCSA/MCSE self-paced training kit (exam 70-291): implementing, managing, and maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 network infrastructure, Chapter 3, and 6.
Dan Holme, and Orin Thomas, MCSA/MCSE Self-Paced Training Kit (Exam 70-290): Managing and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Environment, Chapter 12.
Question 3.
You are a network administrator for ITCertKeys. The internal network has an Active Directory-integrated zone for the ITCertKeys.com domain. Computers on the internal network use the Active Directory integrated DNS service for all host name resolution.
The ITCertKeys Web site and DNS server are hosted at a local ISP. The public Web site for ITCertKeys is accessed at www.ITCertKeys.com. The DNS server at the ISP hosts the ITCertKeys.com domain.
To improve support for the Web site, ITCertKeys wants to move the Web site and DNS service from the ISP to the company’s perimeter network. The DNS server on the perimeter network must contain only the host (A) resource records for computers on the perimeter network.
You install a Windows Server 2003 computer on the perimeter network to host the DNS service for the ITCertKeys.com domain. You need to ensure that the computers on the internal network can properly resolve host names for all internal resources, all perimeter resources, and all Internet resources.
Which two actions should you take?
(Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two)
A. On the DNS server that is on the perimeter network, install a primary zone for ITCertKeys.com.
B. On the DNS server that is on the perimeter network, install a stub zone for ITCertKeys.com.
C. Configure the DNS server that is on the internal network to conditionally forward lookup
requests to the DNS server that is on the perimeter network.
D. Configure the computers on the internal network to use one of the internal DNS servers as the
preferred DNS server.
Configure the TCP/IP settings on the computers on the internal network to use the DNS server
on the perimeter network as an alternate DNS server.
E. On the DNS server that is on the perimeter network, configure a root zone.
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
By configuring a primary zone for ITCertKeys.com on a DNS server in the perimeter network, we have a DNS server that can resolve requests for the www.ITCertKeys.com website. To enable users on the LAN to quickly resolve ITCertKeys.com resources, we can configure conditional forwarding on the internal ITCertKeys.org server so that requests for ITCertKeys.com resources get forwarded straight to the perimeter network DNS server.
Incorrect Answers:
B: A stub zone is no good to us here. The perimeter DNS server must be authoritative for the ITCertKeys.com domain. Therefore, we need a primary zone on the perimeter DNS server.
D: As long as the internal DNS servers are working, the external DNS server will never be used. Internal clients will not be able to resolve www.ITCertKeys.com.
E: There is no need to configure a root zone on the perimeter network DNS server.
Reference:
Craig Zacker; MCSE Self-Paced Training Kit (Exam 70-293): Planning and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure.
Question 4.
You are a network administrator for ITCert Keys. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Itcertkeys.com. All domain controllers and member servers run Windows Server 2003, Enterprise Edition. All client computers run Windows XP Professional.
ITCert Keys has one main office and one branch office. The two offices are connected to a T1 WAN connection. There is a hardware router at each end of the connection. The main office contains 10,000 client computers, and the branch office contains 5,000 client computers.
You need to use DHCP to provide IP addresses to the Windows XP Professional computers in both offices. You need to minimize network configuration traffic on the WAN connection. Your solution needs to prevent any component involved in the DHCP architecture from becoming a single point of failure.
What should you do?
A. At the main office, configure two Windows Server 2003 computers as a DHCP server cluster.
Configure the branch office router as a DHCP relay agent.
B. At the main office, configure two Windows Server 2003 computers as a DHCP server cluster.
At the branch office, configure a Windows Server 2003 computer as a DHCP relay agent.
C. At the main office, configure two Windows Server 2003 computers as a DHCP server cluster.
At the branch office, configure two Windows Server 2003 computers as a DHCP server cluster.
D. At the main office, configure two Windows Server 2003 computers as DHCP servers.
Configure one DHCP server to handle 80 percent of the IP address scope and the other DHCP
server to handle 20 percent.
Configure the branch office router as a DHCP relay agent.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best fault tolerant solution here would be to implement a DHCP server cluster in each office.
Cluster support for DHCP servers
The Windows Server 2003 DHCP Server service is a cluster-aware application cluster-aware application An application that can run on a cluster node and that can be managed as a cluster resource. Cluster-aware applications use the Cluster API to receive status and notification information from the server cluster.
You can implement additional DHCP (or MADCAP) server reliability by deploying a DHCP server cluster using the Cluster service
Cluster service
The essential software component that controls all aspects of server cluster operation and manages the cluster database. Each node in a server cluster runs one instance of the Cluster service provided with Windows Server 2003, Enterprise Edition.
By using clustering support for DHCP, you can implement a local method of DHCP server failover, achieving greater fault tolerance. You can also enhance fault tolerance by combining DHCP server clustering with a remote failover configuration, such as by using a split scope configuration.
Other options for DHCP failover
Another way to implement DHCP remote failover is to deploy two DHCP servers in the same network that share a split scope configuration based on the 80/20 rule
Incorrect Answers:
A: The branch office router would be a single point of failure in this solution.
B: The server hosting the DHCP relay agent would be a single point of failure in this solution.
D: The branch office router would be a single point of failure in this solution.
Reference:
Robert J. Shimonski, Windows Server 2003 Clustering & Load Balancing.
Question 5.
You are the systems engineer for ITCertKeys. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Itcertkeys.com. All servers run Windows Server 2003. A Windows Server 2003 computer named ITCERTKEYSDNS1 functions as the internal DNS server and has zone configured as shown in the exhibit.
The network is not currently connected to the Internet. ITCertKeys maintains a separate network that contains publicly accessible Web and mail servers. These Web and mail servers are members of a DNS domain named Itcertkeys.com. The Itcertkeys.com zone is hosted by a UNIX-based DNS server named UNIXDNS, which is running the latest version of BIND.
The company plans to allow users of the internal network to access Internet-based resources. The company’s written security policy states that resources located on the internal network must never be exposed to the Internet. The written security policy states that the internal network’s DNS namespace must never be exposed to the Internet. To meet these requirements, the design specifies that all name resolution requests for Internet-based resources from computers on the internal network must be sent from ITCERTKEYSDNS1. The current design also specifies that UNIXDNS must attempt to resolve any name resolution requests before sending them to name servers on the Internet.
You need to plan a name resolution strategy for Internet access. You need to configure ITCERTKEYSDNS1 so that it complies with company requirements and restrictions.
What should you do?
A. Delete the root zone from ITCERTKEYSDNS1.
Configure ITCERTKEYSDNS1 to forward requests to UNIXDNS.
B. Copy the Cache.dns file from the Windows Server 2003 installation CD-ROM to the
C:\Windows\System32\Dns folder on ITCERTKEYSDNS1.
C. Add a name server (NS) resource record for UNIXDNS to your zone.
Configure UNIXDNS with current root hints.
D. On ITCERTKEYSDNS1, configure a secondary zone named Itcertkeys.com that uses
UNIXDNS as the master server.
Configure UNIXDNS to forward requests to your ISP’s DNS servers.
Answer: A
Explanation:
We need to delete the root zone from the internal DNS server. This will enable us to configure the server to forward internet name resolution requests to the external DNS server (UNIXDNS).
A DNS server configured to use a forwarder will behave differently than a DNS server that is not configured to use a forwarder. A DNS server configured to use a forwarder behaves as follows:
1. When the DNS server receives a query, it attempts to resolve this query using the primary and secondary zones that it hosts and its cache.
2. If the query cannot be resolved using this local data, then it will forward the query to the DNS server designated as a forwarder.
3. The DNS server will wait briefly for an answer from the forwarder before attempting to contact the DNS servers specified in its root hints.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The Cache.dns file contains the IP addresses of the internet root DNS servers. We don’t want the internal DNS server to query the root DNS servers, so we don’t need the cache.dns file.
C: Unixdns already has root hints. An NS record on the internal DNS server won’t fulfill the requirements of the question.
D: We don’t need a secondary zone on the internal DNS server. All external resolution requests must be forwarded to the external DNS server.
Reference:
Craig Zacker; MCSE Self-Paced Training Kit (Exam 70-293): Planning and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure.
|
Question 1.
How do end users connect to an Optical Ethernet network?
A. through a DS1 interface
B. through a DS3 interface
C. through an optical SONET interface
D. through a variety of Ethernet interfaces
Answer: D
Question 2.
What is a 3G cellular technology?
A. Advanced Mobile Phone Service (AMPS)
B. Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM)
C. General Packet Radio Service (GPRS)
D. Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA)
E. Universal Mobile Telecommunications Service (UMTS)
Answer: E
Question 3.
When is Multi protocol Label Switching (MPLS) local recovery chosen over MPLS
global recovery?
A. When faster recovery is sought.
B. When too few Label Switch Paths (LSPs) are setup.
C. When insufficient bandwidth is available in the network.
D. When the network is NOT very meshed (small degree of connectivity).
Answer: A
Question 4.
What technology allows a SONET ring to act like the backplane of an Ethernet switch?
A. TDI
B. STS
C. RPR
D. VLAN
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which tasks must be performed by NAT devices to support H.323 over UDP? (Choose two.)
A. recalculation of the H.323 Security code
B. recalculation of the transport layer checksum
C. alteration of IP addresses embedded in the H.323 packet
D. H.323 Gatekeeper tasks (i.e. NAT must also be H.323 Gatekeeper)
Answer: B, C
Question 6.
Which is a difference between basic NAT and NAPT?
A. NAPT creates dynamic bindings but basic NAT does NOT.
B. NAPT supports full cone operation but basic NAT does NOT.
C. Basic NAT does stateful packet inspection and NAPT does NOT.
D. Basic NAT has a one-to-one mapping of IP addresses and NAPT supports a many-to-one
mapping.
Answer: D
Question 7.
Which protocols are used to detect the failures that impact Label Switch Path (LSP) traffic?
A. RSVP-TE Hello and ITU-T Y1711
B. OSPF-TE keep-alive and ATM PNNI
C. RSVP-TE Hello and OSPF keep-alive
D. ITU-T Y1711 and OSPF-TE keep-alive
Answer: A
Question 8.
The FRF.11 specification is associated with which aspect of real-time networking?
A. Frame Relay QoS
B. Frame Fragmentation
C. Frame Relay Voice
D. Frame Relay Service Category
Answer: C
Question 9.
A customer currently is running a SONET UPSR network and would like to upgrade to RPR.
How does RPR improve bandwidth efficiency over SONET UPSR?
A. RPR uses VLANS
B. RPR has Spatial reuse
C. RPR is connectionless
D. RPR uses Ethernet Headers
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which is the correct definition of STP as applied to an Ethernet switch?
A. Signal Transfer Point
B. Simple Timing Protocol
C. Spanning Tree Protocol
D. Switch Transaction Protocol
Answer: C
Question 11.
What is the length of an IPv6 address?
A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits
Answer: C
Question 12.
Which operations on IP packets are NOT performed by NAT? (Choose two.)
A. changing IPSec payload
B. changing the transport protocol
C. changing embedded IP addresses
D. changing the destination IP address
E. changing the destination Port Number
Answer: A, B
Question 13.
Which ATM adaptation layer must use Constant Bit Rate (CBR)?
A. AAL1
B. AAL2
C. AAL3/4
D. AAL5
Answer: A
Question 14.
Which is a characteristic of Data over GPRS cellular?
A. ATM-based
B. NOT switched
C. circuit switched
D. packet switched
Answer: D
Question 15.
What is "Cable Labs"?
A. a commercial corporation
B. a government funded body
C. an international standards body
D. an industry consortium funded by the cable operators
Answer: D
Question 16.
What does Mobile IP (IP Mobility Support) refer to?
A. Wireless LAN capability
B. the ability to access IP from a cellular telephone
C. the ability to roam seamlessly between cells on a cellular telephone
D. the ability for a host to correctly send data grams to a client when that client moves between
different IP subnets
Answer: D
Question 17.
Which is the correct description of the Dijkstra Algorithm?
A. The algorithm calculates the shortest path between two points in a network.
B. The algorithm builds an IP forwarding table based on destination addresses.
C. The algorithm prioritizes paths between any two points in a network according to distance.
D. The algorithm creates a (mathematical) graph of interconnections between network nodes.
Answer: A
Question 18.
The convergence time for STP is within which range?
A. 50-100 milliseconds
B. 0.5-1 second
C. 1-3 seconds
D. 35-45 seconds
Answer: D
Question 19.
Which statement is true about checksums in a IPv6 header?
A. It is carried in an extension header when it is needed.
B. It has to be extended to cover the whole packet to improve the robustness of the protocol.
C. All transport protocols for IPv6 have to carry a checksum which protects all the fields in the
IPv6 header.
D. It does NOT carry a checksum because the link and transport layer checksums provide
adequate protection for the packet.
Answer: D
Question 20.
In a Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) network, which three functions are provided by the subscriber aggregation platform? (Choose three.)
A. dynamic service selection via PPPoE
B. routing of data packets
C. Bayesian filtering for spam blocking
D. termination of DSLAM data trunks
E. voice services via GR-303
Answer: A, B, D
Question 21.
What type of network topology does RPR employ?
A. Ring
B. Mesh
C. Linear
D. Point-to-Point
Answer: A
Question 22.
How many links can be shared using MLT?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: C
Question 23.
In a Multi protocol Label Switching (MPLS) network, what is a "loose explicit route"?
A. Only some of the hops are pre-defined.
B. Every hop calculates the next hop to the LSP destination.
C. All nodes of the Label Switch Path (LSP) route are pre-defined.
D. The LSP does NOT have a backup path.
Answer: A
Question 24.
What is the minimum Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) allowed for an IPv6 link (i.e., what is the largest size packet that is guaranteed to be transmitted un fragmented across an IPv6 network)?
A. 512 octets
B. 1280 octets
C. 1500 octets
D. 8192 octets
Answer: B
Question 25.
How does a compression codec reduce the amount of data needed to store or transmit a digital signal?
A. by chunking the signal into frames
B. by encoding only the active speech and skipping any silence
C. by removing redundant information from the digital representation
D. by reducing the amount of data by least a factor of 10 compared to linear encoding
Answer: C
Question 26.
Other than PCM codecs, which are the most common type of codecs used for telecom voice?
A. CELP codecs
B. sub-band codecs
C. wideband codecs
D. variable bit-rate codecs
Answer: A
Question 27.
When is a compression method described as "lossy"?
A. When there will be gaps in the decoded signal.
B. When the method can NOT run fast enough to be used for real-time processes.
C. When it is NOT possible to restore the original digital signal from the compressed signal.
D. When there will be an obvious difference between the original and the compressed signal.
Answer: C
Question 28.
The largest gap in running speech that can be repaired by packet loss concealment is in which range?
A. 6 - 8 ms
B. 60 - 80 ms
C. 600 - 800 ms
D. 6 - 8 sec
Answer: B
Question 29.
Where in the service development & deployment process should one begin to address QoE?
A. at the verification stage, before the equipment is shipped to customers
B. when defining design intent of the service offering, the network elements, and the complete
solution
C. once the network is up and running and the operational kinks are worked out, QoE can be
optimized
D. as the network is being deployed, to optimize provisioning and tuning for the types and
proportions of traffic it will carry
Answer: B
Question 30.
Which are the four main performance issues for voice Quality of Experience associated with Voice over IP?
A. delay, codec quality, echo, muting
B. delay, packet loss, codec quality, echo
C. delay, echo, codec quality, call set-up time
D. codec quality, packet loss, echo, low listening level
Answer: B
Question 31.
Assuming that the treatment for exceeding metering rates is to drop packets, which is the correct policing action for a single rate polices?
A. Packets are passed up to EIR, all others are dropped.
B. Packets are passed up to the CIR; all others are dropped.
C. Packets are passed up to the Burst Rate, all others are dropped.
D. Packets are always passed up to the CIR, and may be passed up to the EIR if bandwidth is
available.
Answer: B
Question 32.
When designing a VoIP system, identify the parameters that are under the control of the equipment designer, the network designer, or the network manager. (Choose five.)
A. codec selection
B. packet size selection
C. jitter buffer waiting time
D. propagation delay over distance
E. delay through legacy equipment
F. use of packet loss concealment
G. deployment of echo cancellers at each interface to TDM
Answer: A, B, C, F, G
Question 33.
Which is the best definition of the function of a policer as it relates to a router?
A. A policer applies policies to the admission of flows.
B. A policer verifies the Class of Service marking of each packet.
C. A policer meters packets and may re-mark them or drop them.
D. A policer filters packets and marks them with a Class of Service.
Answer: C
Question 34.
In a VoIP network, which will occur when increasing the amount of speech data in each packet?
A. an increase in bandwidth efficiency while reducing jitter
B. an increase in bandwidth efficiency at the expense of delay
C. an increase in bandwidth efficiency at the expense of lost packets
D. an increase in bandwidth efficiency without affecting other parameters
Answer: B
|
Question 1.
You have a CES2700 in your central office with about 1700 CES1100's at remote branch offices. All of the CES1100's have a nailed-up Peer-to-Peer branch office tunnel to the central office. You are using AES with Group 8 on the tunnels for security and the re-key timer is set to 1 hour. As more as more tunnels are activated, you noticed that CPU utilization increases significantly and network performance has begun to slightly degrade.
What is the best initial setup in trying to increase network performance and reduce the load on the CPU without making a significant sacrifice in security?
A. Increase the re-key timer to 8 hours.
B. Upgrade the CES2700 to a CES5000.
C. Deploy a second CES2700 and move half of the tunnels to the second switch.
D. Change the level of security used on the tunnels to 3DES with Group 7 (ECC 163-bit field).
Answer: A
Question 2.
The new Director of IT at your company has informed you that the use of PFS (Perfect Forward Secrecy) will be a security requirement on all of the company's branch office tunnel configurations.
What added security benefit does PFS offer to branch office tunnels?
A. The Contivity switch will encrypt the IKE phase I negotiations.
B. The session key will automatically be renegotiated between every packet.
C. The Contivity switch will place an outer encrypted header around the original encrypted
header.
D. The compromise of one or both of the session keys will not allow previous session keys to be
broken.
Answer: D
Question 3.
The following message has been displayed on a Contivity switch:
"Warning: System CA certificates may have been tempered with, please reinstall!"
What setup should be taken to verify whether a certificate has, or has not been, tempered with?
A. Recover the certificate and verify that the fingerprint identifier matches the previous identifier.
B. Reinstall the certificate and verify that the new fingerprint identifier matches the previous
identifier.
C. Verify the certificate's fingerprint identifier matches with the fingerprint supplied directly by the
certificate's issuer.
D. Verify the certificate's issuer and the certificate issuer's serial numbers is that of the configured
Certification Authority (CA).
Answer: C
Question 4.
You are attempting to establish a VPN user tunnel to a Contivity 1700 using the Contivity VPN Client. When trying to login, a popup window appears with the following message:
Login Failure due to: Remote host not responding.
What are the two probable causes for this Login Failure? (Choose two.)
A. The user password is not correct.
B. The Contivity 1700 is not accessible.
C. User Datagram Protocol (UDP) port 500 is blocked.
D. The Group Security Authorization is mis-configured.
Answer: A, B
Question 5.
You have configured an Ipsec peer to peer branch office tunnel between a Contivity 4600 and a Contivity 1700.
When the tunnel tries to initiate, you receive the following message in the Contivity 4600's event log:
ISAKMP [13] No proposal chosen in message from X.X.X.X
Which condition will generate this message?
A. A remote branch office gateway rejected your gateway's attempt to authenticate.
B. The encryption types proposed by the remote branch office do not match the encryption types
configured locally.
C. One side of the connection is configured to support dynamic routing while the other side is
configured fro static routing.
D. The proposal made by the local gateway has been rejected by a remote branch office
gateway, or by an IPsec implementation from another vendor.
Answer: B
Question 6.
You are tasked with configuring a Contivity 4600 to connect to a frame relay gateway. You want to gateway type to be user configurable, with the gateway type determining both the LMI format and the FECN/BECN processing.
When configuring the frame relay interface, how must the connection type be set?
A. direct
B. looped
C. switched
D. non-switched
Answer: C
Question 7.
User at a remote location can not access their local mail server or print locally when they are tunneled into their corporate LAN via a gateway Contivity 1700.The elements have the following addresses:
-mail server (10.23.23.5)
-print locally (10.23.23.6)
-corporate LAN (192.168.1.0)
To allow access to the local servers and remain tunneled into the corporate LAN, which accessible addresses (es) should be used if split tunneling is configured?
A. 10.23.23.0
B. 192.168.1.0
C. 192.168.1.255
D. 10.23.23.5 and 10.23.23.6
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which Branch Office network design provides redundancy with the lowest system overhead?
A. Full Mesh
B. Hub and Spoke
C. Redundant full mesh
D. Redundant hub and spoke
Answer: D
Question 9.
The load balance and fail over features available for user tunnels apply to clients connecting through which method?
A. SSL
B. Private interface
C. Nortel Networks Contivity VPN client
D. Microsoft dial-up networking PPTP client
Answer: C
Question 10.
Your customer has asked for your assistance in configuring a PPPoE interface on a Contivity 1050. You have researched PPPoE specifications and determined the PPPoE enforces an MTU size of 1492 bytes. For this reason, all PC's that connect to the Contivity also need to enforce an MTU of 1942 bytes, instead 1500 bytes.
What are two ways to set the parameters on the Contivity to address this need? (Choose two.)
A. Use the pppoe ip tcp adjust-mss enable? Command in the CLI.
B. Use the adjust MTU size setting on the interface being used by PPPoE.
C. Enable the TCP MSS Option in the GUI under System > LAN > Add PPPoE Interface.
D. Enable the UDP MTU Option in the GUI under System > LAN > Add PPPoE Interface.
Answer: A, B
Question 11.
A technician wants to specify and control network traffic by class so that certain types of traffic receive precedence in a Contivity configuration. The technician plans to accomplish this control by utilizing a protocol that uses the TOS field in the IP packet header to notify network devices which "Per-hop Behavior" to apply to each outing traffic flow.
Assuming the Advanced Routing license has been purchased for this system, which protocol will provide the required functionality?
A. DiffServ
B. Call Admission Protocol (CAP)
C. Network Address Translation (NAT)
D. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP)
Answer: A
Question 12.
A technician wants to ensure a certain level of latency and bandwidth allocation in a Contivity configuration based on weighted fair queuing (WFQ) and weighted random early detection (WRED).
Which QoS mechanism should be utilized?
A. Forwarding Priority
B. Call Acceptance Priority
C. Resource Reservation Priority
D. Bandwidth Management Priority
Answer: A
Question 13.
A QoS strategy is being established for a Contivity network in a MAN environment. For this particular situation, aspects of both DiffServ and Forwarding Priority would be helpful.
What consideration must be given to DiffServ and Forwarding Priority in this scenario?
A. DiffServ can not be configured if Forwarding Priority is enabled.
B. Only DiffServ or Forwarding Priority can be active at any one time.
C. If both are active, DiffServ takes precedence over Forwarding Priority.
D. If both are active, Forwarding Priority takes precedence over DiffServ.
Answer: B
Question 14.
A technician is utilizing Call Admission Priority as a QoS mechanism on a Contivity system.
Which definition best describes this feature?
A. Call Admission Priority prioritizes acceptance of incoming connections on a per-group basis.
B. Call Admission Priority allows an administrator to provision specific subscription rates on a per-
tunnel basis.
C. Call Admission Priority is a signaling protocol used to reserve the required bandwidth on an
end-to-end network.
D. Call Admission Priority is an internal QoS mechanism that assures a certain level of latency
band bandwidth allocation based on weighted fair queuing (WFQ) and weighted random early
detection.
Answer: A
Question 15.
A customer's Contivity system is operating in a Ethernet network. Traffic flow within the LAN is prioritized so that higher priority traffic is queued ahead of lower priority traffic according to 802.1p specifications. If a packet enters the Contivity and is marked with priority 1, and other traffic arrives and is marked with priority 7, how will the traffic be handled?
A. Priority 1 traffic is never queued.
B. Priority 7 traffic is never queued.
C. Priority 1 traffic will be queued ahead of priority 7 traffic.
D. Priority 7 traffic will be queued ahead of priority 1 traffic.
Answer: C
|
Question 1.
When creating Media Processing Server (MPS) 500 PeriProducer applications to use an external C Call function, which command compiles the C function into a Shared Library (so that it is available to VENGINE at run time)?
A. makecalldaemon
B. makevengine
C. makecall
D. makeCfunction
Answer: C
Question 2.
When a Media Processing System (MPS) 500 system is started, which file would you use to activate a multimedia file for recording?
A. vmm-rec.cfg
B. vmm-mmf.cfg
C. vmm-smp.cfg
D. vmm-cmr.cfg
Answer: B
Question 3.
A technician wants to uninstall all the Media Processing Server (MPS) 500 software from an Application Processor.
Which action must the technician perform first?
A. Remove the user peri.
B. Uninstall the XVISION software.
C. Uninstall the PERIperl package.
D. Remove the Nortel patch bundles.
Answer: D
Question 4.
A technician configures the tms.cfg file for two spans on a Media Processing Server (MPS) 500 system.
Which configuration file needs to be modified to associate the Call Control Manager (CCM) with 48 phone lines?
A. ase.cfg
B. gen.cfg
C. vos.cfg
D. tms.cfg
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which statements are true regarding conditions for an OSCAR node to be in an operational state? (Choose two.)
A. All Audio devices are in a connected state.
B. All active alarm conditions are cleared.
C. The OSCAR node must connect to a license server.
D. All resource channels must be in a ready state.
Answer: C, D
Question 6.
A technician enters the Media Processing Server (MPS) 500 Chassis ID switch by reading into the tms.cfg file.
Which statement in this file is used?
A. LOAD
B. CHASSIS
C. RSET
D. BIND
Answer: D
|
Question 1.
At which level of an application does intelligent Calculator operate?
A. Cell
B. Block
C. Outline
D. Database
Answer: B
Question 2.
When will a default calc (CALC ALL) calculate Two-Pass members in one pass?
A. When Time is dense and Accounts is sparse
B. When the Account and Time dimensions are dense
C. When the Time tag is used and the dimension is dense
D. When the Accounts tag is used and the dimension is dense
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which SET command is duplicated in the Database Settings?
A. MSG
B. NOTICE
C. AGGMISSG
D. CLEARUPDATESTATUS
Answer: C
Question 4.
You have a calculated database with all blocks marked clean. A member formula in a Sparse dimension is changed in the outline and saved.
What is the status of the corresponding sparse member block?
A. Dirty
B. Clean
C. Locked
D. Unlocked
Answer: B
Question 5.
Given the following calculation script and a total of 32 data blocks:
SET CLEARUPDATESTATUS ONLY;
CALC ALL;
How many blocks will be calculated?
A. 0
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: A
Question 6.
Which dimension is typically the anchor dimension when optimizing Calculator Cache?
A. Smallest dense
B. Smallest sparse
C. Largest dense
D. Largest sparse
Answer: D
Question 7.
The–quick login parameter during the Essbase Server startup is used to _______ (choose two)
A. speed up parallel login processing
B. cache the Security File in memory
C. Facilitate single sign-on functionality
D. Allow backup of the Security file while Essbase is running
Answer: A, B
Question 8.
Which statement about the function of the <database> tct file is true?
A. It tracks free fragments for data and index files
B. It tracks transactions and records their processing state.
C. It coordinates pointers to keep track of old and new data locations.
D. It defines the name of the database, its location, and various database settings.
Answer: B
Question 9.
When the Aggregate Missing Values setting is enabled, it will_______
A. require data to be at upper levels
B. permit a data load to delete existing values
C. overwrite upper level data during calculation
D. NOT overwrite upper level data during calculation
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which two statements are true about how IFERROR operates in ESSCMD?
(Choose two)
A. IFERROR may be used only once in a batch script.
B. IFERROR may be used after every statement in a batch script.
C. If a previously executed command fails, IFERROR skips to a predefined label where it
resumes execution
D. If an executed command after the IFERROR statement fails, IFERROR skips to a predefined
label where it resume execution.
Answer: B, C
Question 11.
You have a production database named Sales.
Which three files should be included to back up a database? (choose three)
A. sales.db
B. sales.otn
C. sales.esm
D. ess00001.ind
Answer: A, C, D
Question 12.
What is the proper use of the two Substitution Variable, Current_Month and Prior_Month, in a calculation script?
A. Prior_Month = Current_Month / 1.5.
B. &Prior_Month = &Current_Month / 1.5.
C. @Prior_Month = @Current_Month / 1.5.
D. "Prior_Month = "Current_Month / 1.5.
Answer: B
Question 13.
The Essbase cfg setting DATAFILECACHESIZE can be used to______
A. alter Data File Cache size for existing databases
B. optimize calculation performance on large flat dimensions
C. manage Data File Cache sizes for specific applications and databases
D. define the initial Data File Cache size for all newly created databases
Answer: D
Question 14.
When should you use the CALCHASHTBL command?
A. To specify the size of the Calculator Cache
B. To optimize the calculation of a large, flat database outline.
C. To optimize the calculation of the Sparse dimension formulas in a large database outline.
D. To specify the maximum number of blocks that Essbase can lock concurrently when
calculating a sparse member formula
Answer: B
Question 15.
Which type of member is associated with the most efficient use of multiple IF commands in a calculation script?
A. Dense
B. Sparse
C. Locked
D. Unlocked
Answer: A
Question 16.
A default calculation is performed on an outline with Two-Pass Account members.
Which data storage setting will ensure one pass through the database?
A. Accounts-Dense, Time-Dense, Scenario-Dense, Market-Sparse, Product-Sparse
B. Accounts-Dense, Time-Sparse, Scenario-Dense, Market-Sparse, Product-Sparse
C. Accounts-Sparse, Time-Dense, Scenario-Dense, Market-Sparse, Product-Sparse
D. Accounts-SPARSE, Time-SPARSE, Scenario-Dense, Market-Sparse, Product-Sparse
Answer: A
Question 17.
Time is a Dense dimension and QTR1, QTR2 AND qtr3 ARE STORED MEMBERS. How many passes through the database result from the following calculation script?
(QTR1;
QTR2;)
QTR3;
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.