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Ok folks, just passed the 70-176 exam with a 720... All questions are from the dumps posted here, but read up on them as some of the answers are wrong.... Good luck to all
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someone can send me the dump for 216 ?
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Question 1.
You are the network administrator for Acme Inc. Your network consists of a single Active Directory forest that contains one domain named acme.com. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2003.
Acme, Inc., acquires a company named ITCertKeys. The ITCertKeys network consists of a single Active Directory forest that contains a root domain named Itcertkeys.com and a child domain named asia.Itcertkeys.com. The functional level of the forest is Windows 2000. The functional level of the asia.Itcertkeys.com domain is Windows 2000 native.
A business decision by ITCertKeys requires that asia.Itcertkeys.com domain to be removed.
You need to move all user accounts from the asia.Itcertkeys.com domain to the acme.com domain by using the Active Directory Migration Tool. You need to accomplish this task without changing the logon rights and permissions for all other users. You need to ensure that users in asia.Itcertkeys.com can log on to acme.com by using their current user names and passwords.
What should you do?
A. Create a two-way Windows Server 2003 external trust relationship between the acme.com
domain and the Itcertkeys.com domain.
B. Create a one-way Windows Server 2003 external trust relationship in which the acme.com
domain trusts the Itcertkeys.com domain.
C. Create a temporary two-way external trust relationship between the acme.com domain and the
asia.Itcertkeys.com domain.
D. Create a temporary one-way external trust relationship in which the asia.Itcertkeys.com
domain trusts the acme.com domain.
Answer: C
Explanation:
To use ADMT, we need a two way trust between the acme.com domain and the asia.Itcertkeys.com domain.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This would enable users in Itcertkeys.com to log in to acme.com and users in acme.com to log in to Itcertkeys.com.
B: This would enable users in Itcertkeys.com to log in to acme.com.
D: The trust must be a two-way trust.
Reference:
Syngress Press, Planning, Implementing, and Maintaining a Windows Server 2003 Active Directory Infrastructure Study Guide & DVD Training System, 2003, pp. 618, 619-621, 629-641.
Question 2.
You are the network administrator for ITCertKeys.
Your network consists of a single Active Directory forest that contains three domains. The forest root domain is named Itcertkeys.com. The domain contains two child domains named asia.Itcertkeys.com and africa.Itcertkeys.com. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2003.
Each domain contains two Windows Server 2003 domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. DC1 in the Itcertkeys.com domain performs the following two operations master roles: schema master and domain naming master. DC1 in each child domain performs the following three operations master roles: PDC emulator master, relative ID (RID) master, and infrastructure master. DC1 in each domain is also a global catalog server.
The user account for Tess Cert in the africa.Itcertkeys.com domain is a member of the Medicine Students security group. Because of a name change, the domain administrator of africa.Itcertkeys.com changes the Last name field of Tess’s user account from Cert to Edwards.
The domain administrator of asia.Itcertkeys.com discovers that the user account for Tess is still listed as Tess Cert.
You need to ensure that the user account for Tess Edwards is correctly listed in the Medicine Students group.
What should you do?
A. Transfer the PDC emulator master role from DC1 to DC2 in each domain.
B. Transfer the infrastructure master role from DC1 to DC2 in each domain.
C. Transfer the RID master role from DC1 to DC2 on each domain.
D. Transfer the schema master role from DC1 to DC2 in the Itcertkeys.com domain.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Problems like this can occur when the infrastructure master role is on the same domain controller as the Global Catalog. There is no reason to transfer any other master roles.
Infrastructure master
A domain controller that holds the infrastructure operations master role in Active Directory. The infrastructure master updates the group-to-user reference whenever group memberships change and replicates these changes across the domain. At any time, the infrastructure master role can be assigned to only one domain controller in each domain in each domain.
The infrastructure master is responsible for updating references from objects in its domain to objects in other domains. The infrastructure master compares its data with that of a global catalog. Global catalogs receive regular updates for objects in all domains through replication, so the global catalog data will always be up to date. If the infrastructure master finds data that is out of date, it requests the updated data from a global catalog.
The infrastructure master then replicates that updated data to the other domain controllers in the domain.
Important
Unless there is only one domain controller in the domain, the infrastructure master role should not be assigned to the domain controller that is hosting the global catalog. If the infrastructure master and global catalog are on the same domain controller, the infrastructure master will not function. The infrastructure master will never find data that is out of date, so it will never replicate any changes to the other domain controllers in the domain.
In the case where all of the domain controllers in a domain are also hosting the global catalog, all of the domain controllers will have the current data and it does not matter which domain controller holds the infrastructure master role.
The infrastructure master is also responsible for updating the group-to-user references whenever the members of groups are renamed or changed. When you rename or move a member of a group (and that member resides in a different domain from the group), the group may temporarily appear not to contain that member. The infrastructure master of the group's domain is responsible for updating the group so it knows the new name or location of the member. This prevents the loss of group memberships associated with a user account when the user account is renamed or moved. The infrastructure master distributes the update via multimaster replication.
There is no compromise to security during the time between the member rename and the group update. Only an administrator looking at that particular group membership would notice the temporary inconsistency.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The PDC Emulator is responds to Windows NT 4 BDCs. It also receives all new password and lockout information changes immediately for the entire domain. Neither of these functions will ensure that the user account changes are updated in the domain.
C: The RID Master keeps track of the allocation RIDs to domain controllers to ensure that two domain controllers do not hand out the same SID.
D: The Schema Master controls what is allowed in the Active Directory.
Reference:
Syngress Press, Planning, Implementing, and Maintaining a Windows Server 2003 Active Directory Infrastructure Study Guide & DVD Training System, 2003, pp. 505-509.
Question 3.
You are the network administrator for ITCertKeys. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain with two sites. Each site contains two domain controllers. One domain controller in each site is a global catalog server.
You add a domain controller to each site. Each new domain controller has a faster processor than the existing domain controllers.
ITCertKeys requires Active Directory replication to flow through the servers that have the most powerful CPUs in each site.
You need to configure the intersite replication to comply with ITCertKeys’s requirement for Active Directory replication.
What should you do?
A. Configure the new domain controllers as global catalog servers.
B. Configure the new domain controller in each site as a preferred bridgehead server for the IP
transport.
C. Configure the new domain controller in each site as a preferred bridgehead server for the
SMTP transport.
D. Configure an additional IP site link between the two sites.
Assign a lower site link cost to this site link than the site link cost for the original site link.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Replication
Directory information is replicated both within and among sites. Active Directory replicates information within a site more frequently than across sites. This balances the need for up-to-date directory information with the limitations imposed by available network bandwidth.
You customize how Active Directory replicates information using site links to specify how your sites are connected. Active Directory uses the information about how sites are connected to generate Connection objects that provide efficient replication and fault tolerance.
You provide information about the cost of a site link, times when the link is available for use and how often the link should be used. Active Directory uses this information to determine which site link will be used to replicate information. Customizing replication schedules so replication occurs during specific times, such as when network traffic is low, will make replication more efficient.
Ordinarily, all domain controllers are used to exchange information between sites, but you can further control replication behavior by specifying a bridgehead server for inter-site replicated information. Establish a bridgehead server when you have a specific server you want to dedicate for inter-site replication, rather than using any server available. You can also establish a bridgehead server when your deployment uses proxy servers, such as for sending and receiving information through a firewall.
Site link
Site links are logical paths that the KCC uses to establish a connection for Active Directory replication. Site links are stored in Active Directory as site link objects. A site link object represents a set of sites that can communicate at uniform cost through a specified intersite transport.
All sites contained within the site link are considered to be connected by means of the same network type. Sites must be manually linked to other sites by using site links so that domain controllers in one site can replicate directory changes from domain controllers in another site. Because site links do not correspond to the actual path taken by network packets on the physical network during replication, you do not need to create redundant site links to improve Active Directory replication efficiency.
When two sites are connected by a site link, the replication system automatically creates connections between specific domain controllers in each site called bridgehead servers. In Microsoft® Windows® 2000, intersite replication of the directory partitions (e.g. domain, configuration, and schema) between domain controllers in different sites is performed by the domain controllers (one per directory partition) in those sites designated by the KCC as the bridgehead server. In Windows Server 2003, the KCC may designate more than one domain controller per site hosting the same directory partition as a candidate bridgehead server. The replication connections created by the KCC are randomly distributed between all candidate bridgehead servers in a site to share the replication workload. By default, the randomized selection process takes place only when new connection objects are added to the site.
However, you can run Adlb.exe, a new Windows Resource Kit tool called Active Directory Load Balancing (ADLB) to rebalance the load each time a change occurs in the site topology or in the number of domain controllers the site. In addition, ADLB can stagger schedules so that the outbound replication load for each domain controller is spread out evenly across time. Consider using ADLB to balance replication traffic between the Windows Server 2003–based domain controllers when they are replicating to more than 20 other sites hosting the same domain
Incorrect Answers:
A: The global catalog is the central repository of information about Active Directory objects in a tree or forest. The domain controller that holds a copy of the global catalog is called a global catalog server. The global catalog enables a user to log on to a network by providing universal group membership information to a domain controller when a logon process is initiated, and enables finding directory information regardless of which domain in the forest actually contains the data. It does not control replication.
C: You can use either IP or SMTP as the protocol for replication traffic. However, SMTP replication requires an Enterprise Certification Authority (ECA) because Public Key encryption and certificates are used to verify identity of domain controllers and provide digital signatures.
D: We can control the flow of replication traffic by creating a new site link with a lower cost.
Replication will then occur across the site link with the lower cost. However, this option does not specify that the new site link must be between MainDC3 and BranchDC3.
Reference:
MS Windows Server 2003 Deployment Kit
Designing and Deploying Directory and Security Services
Active Directory Replication Concepts
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today I have pass the 1z0-026. with 52/60. I used itcertkeys dumps, upload on this site.
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Question: 1.
You are designing a DNS strategy to meet the business and technical requirements.
Which two actions should you perform?
(Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two)
A. Create a dynamic reverse lookup zone for each subnet.
B. Create a dynamic forward lookup for each domain.
C. Install caching-only DNS servers in the branch offices.
D. Enable the BIND secondaries option for each DNS server.
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
In the case study, it is stated that each client computer should have it’s A resource record in the DNS server. Similarly, it is also stated that the UNIX client computers should use the PTR record. To accomplish these tasks, you should create a dynamic reverse lookup zone for each subnet and create a dynamic forward lookup zone each domain.
It is clearly stated that each branch office will be assigned as the sub-domain and these branch offices will manage their DNS service. Therefore, there is no need to install the caching-only DNS servers at branch offices.
There is no need to enable BIND secondaries option for each DNS server as there is no UNIX DNS servers are present in the network to whom you want to manage the DNS replication.
Incorrect options:
C: Caching-only servers do not host any zones and are not authoritative for any particular domain.
D: Windows DNS zone files can contain RRs that can cause problems for BIND secondaries. These records include those that use an underscore in the host or domain name and the WINS and WINS-R records. On some versions of BIND, notably BIND 8.0, the presence of these records can cause the zone to fail to load.
Reference:
James Chellis, Paul Robichaux, and Matthew Sheltz; MCSA/MCSE: Windows ® Server 2003 Network Infrastructure Implementation, Management, and Maintenance Study Guide, Sybex, Glossary, pp. 470 and 477, J. C. Mackin, and Ian McLean; MCSA/MCSE self-paced training kit (exam 70-291): implementing, managing, and maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 network infrastructure, Chapter 4, pp. 4-31. Martin Grasdal, Laura E. Hunter, and Michael Cross; MCSE Planning and Maintaining a Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure: Exam 70-293 Study Guide & DVD Training System, Chapter 6, pp. 396.
Question: 2.
You need to ensure that only authorized personnel are able to modify student grades.
Which desktop environment or environments should you use? (Choose all that apply)
A. Windows XP Professional
B. Windows 2000 Professional
C. Windows 98 with Active Directory client installed
D. Windows NT Workstation 4.0 with the latest service pack and Active Directory client installed
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
In order to meet the requirements you must be able to do two things.
1. Use a smart Card (a,b,c,d)
2. Apply a GPO (a,b)
The answer is therefore A+B.
Incorrect options:
C and D: These desktop environments do not support group policies.
Reference:
Walter Glenn, and Michael T. Simpson; MCSE 70-297 Training Kit - Designing a Windows server
2003 Active Directory and Network Infrastructure, Chapter 4, pp. 4-38 to 4-39.
Question: 3.
You need to ensure that the sales representatives are provided with adequate NetBIOS name resolution.
What should you do?
A. Install WINS on the PDC emulator.
B. Install WINS on servers in Atlanta and Seattle.
C. Enable WINS lookup on the DNS server in Atlanta.
D. Enable WINS on one domain controller in each office.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the case study, it is stated that the Windows 98 is installed on the sales representative computes. There is no plan to upgrade this OS and the sales representatives move in all the offices. Therefore to minimize the WAN traffic, you should place a WINS server on one domain controller in each office.
Reference:
J. C. Mackin, and Ian McLean; MCSA/MCSE self-paced training kit (exam 70-291): implementing, managing, and maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 network infrastructure, Chapter 4, pp. 4-7 to4-6.
Elias N. Khnaser, Susan Snedak, Chris Peiris, and Rob Amini; MCSE Designing Security for a Windows Server 2003 Network Exam 70-298 Study Guide, Chapter 2.
Question: 4.
You are designing a strategy to install the new scheduling application.
Which two actions should you perform?
(Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two)
A. Assign the scheduling application package to the Instructor OU.
B. Publish the scheduling application package to the Instructor OU.
C. Ensure that the scheduling application can install across slow WAN links.
D. Prevent the scheduling application from installing across slow WAN links.
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
In the case study, it is stated that the scheduling application must be available to the instructors whether they are using the office computer or home computer. It means you should assign the scheduling application to the Instructor OU and insure that the scheduling application can install across the slow WAN links.
Publishing the scheduling application will not actually install the application but will only create the application name in the Add/Remove program wizard in control panel.
Preventing the scheduling application from installing across slow WAN links will not enable this application on the instructor’s home computers.
Question: 5.
You are designing a VPN authentication strategy to meet the business and technical requirements.
What should you do?
A. Implement the RADIUS service in Atlanta.
B. Implement the RADIUS service in each branch office.
C. Configure network address translation (NAT) on all VPN servers.
D. Configure the Connection Manager Administration Kit (CMAK) on the PDC.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the case study it is stated that “Remote access policies for Atlanta, Chicago, Dallas, and Seattle should be centralized”. Therefore, you should implement the RADIUS service in Atlanta.
Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is a widely used protocol that enables centralized accounting, authentication, and authorization for remote network access. With RADIUS, you can manage network access for VPN, dial-up, and wireless networks. Since the online course content is already developed and in use in the Atlanta office, which is also the main office, it is viable to implement RADIUS there.
Incorrect Options:
B: The online course content is already developed and in use in the Atlanta office.
C: Network Address Translation (NAT) is a technology that enables a local-area net-work (LAN) to use one set of Internet Protocol (IP) addresses for internal traffic and a second set of addresses for external traffic.
D: This is used to Automate VPN client installation.
Reference:
Elias N. Khnaser, Susan Snedak, Chris Peiris, and Rob Amini; MCSE Designing Security for a Windows Server 2003 Network Exam 70-298 Study Guide, Chapter 10 Roberta Bragg; MCSE Self-Paced Training Kit (Exam 70-298): Designing Security for a Microsoft
Windows Server 2003 Network, Chapter 7, pp. 7-62.
Question: 6.
You are designing a DHCP strategy for the new Active Directory environment.
Which two groups have the necessary rights to authorize the DHCP servers?
(Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two)
A. IT staff in Atlanta
B. IT staff in Seattle
C. DHCP administrators in all offices
D. DHCP administrators in Atlanta only
E. Members of the Enterprise Admins group
Answer: A, E
Explanation:
This question is about DHCP Authorization. Only Enterprise Admins have the ability to authorize DHCP servers. Period. An administrator in the Root Domain of the Forest would simultaneously be a member of the Enterprise Admins Group. So the answers are E, clearly, and A, the IT Staff in Atlanta. They are going to have full Administrative privilege for the domain, and being admins in the root domain, are Enterprise Admins. DHCP Admins is a built-in group in AD that does not have the ability to Authorize DHCP.
Incorrect Options:
C and D: DHCP Administrator is a built-in group in AD that does not have the ability to authorize DHCP.
Reference:
Deborah Littlejohn Shinder, Dr. Thomas W. Shinder; Exam 70-290: MCSA/MCSE, Implementing,
Managing, and Maintaining a Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure Guide & DVD Training
System, Syngress Publishing, Inc., Chapter 3, pp. 257.
Question: 7.
You are designing the placement of operations master roles in the new environment.
In which location or locations should a PDC emulator be designated?
(Choose all that apply)
A. Atlanta
B. Chicago
C. Dallas
D. Seattle
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the case study, it is stated that all the user records and active directory administration will occur at the main office (Atlanta). Therefore, you should place the PDC emulator role at the Atlanta office.
Seeing that the Atlanta office is responsible for the administration of Active Directory, it must be where the Forrest Root domain is located. So if this is true, then the PDC Emulator should be designated to them. The Primary Domain Controller (PDC) is the first domain controller created in the domain, while all other domain controllers are considered backup domain controllers (BDCs). Therefore, B, C and D are incorrect.
Reference:
Deborah Littlejohn Shinder, Dr. Thomas W. Shinder; Exam 70-290: MCSA/MCSE, Implementing, Managing, and Maintaining a Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure Guide & DVD Training System, Syngress Publishing, Inc, Chapter 1, pp. 19.
Question: 8.
You are designing a DNS and DHCP implementation strategy to support the new environment.
What should you do?
A. Create a WINS resource record in the Active Directory DNS zone.
B. Create a WINS referral zone in the DNS zone that supports Active Directory.
C. Configure a DNS domain name on the DHCP server.
D. Configure the DHCP server to update DNS for DHCP clients that do not support dynamic
updates.
Answer: D
Explanation:
One of the dynamic update settings you can configure on the DNS tab of the DHCP server properties dialog box determines whether the DHCP server should provide dynamic DNS update service on behalf of DHCP clients not capable of performing dynamic updates, such as computers running Microsoft Windows NT 4. By default, Windows Server 2003 DHCP servers do not attempt to perform dynamic updates on behalf of these clients.
Incorrect Options:
A: The WINS resource record instructs the DNS service to use WINS to look up and forward queries for host names not found in the zone database.
B: You should configure a WINS referral zone to provide a means of organizing and distinguishing between WINS and DNS records.
C: An option that specifies the domain name that DHCP clients should use when resolving unqualified names during DNS domain name resolution. This option also allows clients to perform dynamic DNS updates.
Reference:
J. C. Mackin, and Ian McLean; MCSA/MCSE self-paced training kit (exam 70-291): implementing, managing, and maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 network infrastructure, Chapter 7,
pp. 7-13 and 7-41.
Walter Glenn, and Michael T. Simpson; MCSE 70-297 Training Kit - Designing a Windows server
2003 Active Directory and Network Infrastructure, Chapter 6, pp. 6-14.
Martin Grasdal, Laura E. Hunter, and Michael Cross; MCSE Planning and Maintaining a Windows
Server 2003 Network Infrastructure: Exam 70-293 Study Guide & DVD Training System, Chapter
6, pp. 403.
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Question 1.
Which of the following devices can an administrator use to segment their LAN?
(Choose all that apply)
A. Hubs
B. Repeaters
C. Switches
D. Bridges
E. Routers
F. Media Converters
G. All of the above
Answer: C, D, E
Explanation:
Switches and bridges forward broadcast but router do not forward broadcast.
Switches, bridges and routers can segment an Ethernet collision domain.
Incorrect Answers:
A. Hubs is incorrect because a hub doesn't segment a network, it only allows more hosts on one. Hubs operate at layer one, and is used primarily to physically add more stations to the LAN.
B. This also incorrect because the job of a repeater is to repeat a signal so it can exceed distance limitations. It also operates at layer one and provides no means for logical LAN segmentation.
F. This is incorrect because media converters work by converting data from a different media type to work with the media of a LAN. It also operates at layer one and provides no means for logical LAN segmentation.
Question 2.
Routers perform which of the following functions? (Select three)
A. Packet switching
B. Collision prevention on a LAN segment.
C. Packet filtering
D. Broadcast domain enlargement
E. Broadcast forwarding
F. Internet work communication
Answer: A, C, F
Explanation:
A. Routers work in Layer 3 of the OSI Model. A major function of the router is to route packets between networks.
C. Through the use of access lists, routers can permit and deny traffic using layer 3 and layer 4 packet information.
F. The primary purpose of a router is to route traffic between different networks, allowing for internetworking.
Incorrect Answers:
B. While routers can be used to segment LANs, which will reduce the amount of collision: it can not prevent all collisions from occurring. As long as there as are 2 or more devices on a LAN segment, the possibility of a collision exists, whether a router is used or not.
D. The broadcast domain of a LAN is often segmented through the use of a router. This results in reducing the size of the broadcast domain.
E. Routers do not forward broadcast traffic.
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Question 1.
Which three utilities can be used to prepare for and create the central store? (Choose three.)
A. CTXDOMAINPREP
B. CTXSCHEMAPREP
C. CTXSERVERPREP
D. CTXFILESYNCPREP
E. CTXFILESYNCCLEAN
Answer: A, B, D
Question 2.
Scenario: The agent has just been installed. When the agent starts, the following error message is displayed:
Meta Frame Password Manager agent is unable to retrieve the License server location. Check to see if agent can connect to synchronization point. Agent is disabled.
Which action must you take to resolve this situation?
A. Open the Password Manager console and create a user configuration with the correct License
server for the affected user.
B. Open the License Management console and create a user configuration with the correct
License server for the affected user.
C. Open a command prompt on the affected machine and use the ping command to verify that
the agent can reach the License server.
D. Open a command prompt on the affected machine and use the NSLOOKUP command to
verify that the agent can resolve the hostname of the License server.
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which information is used as the basis for the credential encryption keys?
A. Client names
B. License types
C. Windows logon credentials
D. Application credential information
Answer: C
Question 4.
When configuring a web application that requires advanced matching to distinguish between web frames, which three criteria can be specified? (Choose three.)
A. Text
B. Rows
C. HTML
D. Attribute
E. Columns
Answer: A, C, D
Question 5.
Scenario: You are the administrator of a network that includes an implementation of Citrix Password Manager 4.0. You are planning to rebuild the server hosting the NTFS Shared Folder central store. You already copied your NTFS Shared Folder central store data to a new server.
Currently the Password Manager agents are still using the central store on the old server.
Currently the Password Manager agent is distributed through a Group Policy Object (GPO) in Active Directory at the domain level.
Which sequence of actions is the easiest way to configure the agents to point to the new central store?
A. Create a new Password Manager agent 4.0 administrative installation package that points to
the old central store location;
Create a new GPO to deploy this package at the domain level;
Delete the old GPO that points to the old central store;
In the console, configure all users to be redirected to the new central store.
B. Create a new Password Manager agent 4.0 administrative installation package that points to
the new central store location;
Create a new GPO to deploy this package at the domain level;
Delete the old GPO that points to the old central store;
In the console, configure all users to be redirected to the old central store.
C. Create a Password Manager agent 4.0 administrative installation package that points to the
old central store location;
Edit the existing GPO and delete the existing agent package;
Add the new agent package to this GPO;
Redeploy this package to all users;
In the console, configure all users to be redirected to the new central store.
D. Create a Password Manager agent 4.0 administrative installation package that points to the
new central store location;
Edit the existing GPO and delete the existing agent package;
Add the new agent package to this GPO;
Redeploy this package to all users;
In the console, configure all users to be redirected to the new central store
Answer: D
Question 6.
Where is the disconnected mode period for the licensing model configured?
A. In the User Configuration node of the Password Manager Console
B. In the User Configuration tab of the License Management Console
C. In the Licensing Provisioning node of the Password Manager Console
D. In the Licensing Provisioning tab of the License Management Console
Answer: A
Question 7.
When using the Password Manager Service Configuration Tool, what is the purpose of the user account with rights and privileges specific to data proxy?
A. It resets user passwords.
B. It connects to the data proxy.
C. It hosts the Citrix XTE Service.
D. It reads and writes data to the central store.
Answer: D
Question 8.
The Password Manager console user configuration wizard provides the ability to assign _____ and _____ to the users. (Fill in the blanks with the two correct options).
A. password policies
B. application definitions
C. identity verification questions
D. multiple question authentication
Answer: A, B
Question 9.
If you wish to enable data integrity on a central store that has pre-existing data that has never been signed, you must _____ before you _____. (Fill in the blanks with the correct pair of options.)
A. enable data integrity on the console; sign the data with the signing tool
B. sign the data with the signing tool; enable data integrity on the console
C. disable data integrity on the console; unsign the data with the signing tool
D. unsign the data with the signing tool; enable data integrity on the console
Answer: B
Question 10.
When configuring a host application, how can the administrator configure the definition to submit an "Enter" before submitting credentials to the host?
A. Type "@E" into the "Keys before" setting in the console
B. Type "Enter" into the "Keys before" setting in the console
C. Enable the "Use ENTER instead of TAB to move between fields on this form" setting in the
console
D. Disable the "Use ENTER instead of TAB to move between fields on this form" setting in the
console
Answer: A
Question 11.
Which three tasks need to be completed to enable self-service password reset in an existing Password Manager deployment? (Choose three.)
A. Enable multiple question authentications
B. Enable self-service password reset in Logon Manager
C. Enable the self-service password reset feature license
D. Enable self-service password reset for each user configuration
E. Redeploy the agent software with the self-service password reset feature enabled
Answer: A, D, E
Question 12.
Which three components are required on the server running Password Manager for a successful implementation of the smart card software? (Choose three.)
A. PC/SC software
B. Citrix Presentation Server
C. Microsoft Active Directory
D. Smart card reader software drivers
E. Cryptographic Service Provider software
Answer: A, D, E
Question 13.
If multiple Password Manager administrators are using the console simultaneously, how does Password Manager ensure that changes are not lost?
A. Password Manager restricts access to nodes already in use by other administrators.
B. Password Manager console dynamically updates data as it changes. Administrators see the
changes in real time.
C. Password Manager uses an internal algorithm for conflict resolution. No further intervention is
required by administrators.
D. Password Manager generates a warning at save time if changes have occurred since the
console was opened. Administrators are required to run discovery before saving.
Answer: D
Question 14.
Scenario: A user who logs on to two different workstations throughout the day reports that changes made to each of the workstations are not synchronized right away. You are required to resolve the user's problem and minimize the impact on network bandwidth.
Which user configuration setting would meet this requirement?
A. Disable the "Time between automatic synchronization requests"
B. Enable the "Time between automatic synchronization requests" and set the "Minutes" value to
1
C. Enable the "Synchronize every time the users launch recognized applications or Logon
Manager"
D. Disable the "Synchronize every time the users launch recognized applications or Logon
Manager"
Answer: C
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Question 1.
In Cisco's implementation of Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED), what can packet drop decisions be based on? (Choose two)
A. DSCP
B. IP precedence
C. TCP window size
D. Interface buffer utilization
E. Interface output queue size
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
WRED calculates the average queue depth just like RED, ignoring precedence, but it decides when to discard packets based on the precedence or DSCP value.
Source:
Cisco DQOS Exam Certification Guide, Page 438
Question 2.
How does per-VC Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (CBWFQ) work?
A. A weight is assigned to the entire class, not to an individual flow. Only one class can be assigned to each VC.
B. A weight is assigned to the entire class, not to an individual flow. Multiple classes can be assigned to each VC.
C. Each flow within a class is assigned a separate weight by CBWFQ. Only one class can be assigned to each VC.
D. Each flow within a class is assigned a separate weight by CBWFQ. Multiple classes can be assigned to each VC.
Answer: C
Question 3.
When using Modular QoS Command Line Interface (MQC), traffic that does not have a match is ______.
A. Ignored by the MQC
B. Dropped (implicit deny all)
C. Placed in the default class
D. Process switched through the router
Answer: C
Explanation:
Modular Quality of Service Command-Line Interface (MQC) The MQC is a command-line interface (CLI) structure that allows you to create traffic policies and attach these policies to interfaces. In the MQC, the classmap command is used to define a traffic class (which is then associated with a traffic policy). The purpose of a traffic class is to classify traffic. The Modular quality of service (QoS) CLI structure consists of the following three processes:
• Defining a traffic class with the class-map command.
• Creating a traffic policy by associating the traffic class with one or more QoS features (using the policy-map command).
• Attaching the traffic policy to the interface with the service-policy command.
A traffic class contains three major elements: a name, a series of match commands, and, if more than one match command exists in the traffic class, an instruction on how to evaluate these match commands. The traffic class is named in the class-map command line; that is, if you enter the class map cisco command while configuring the traffic class in the CLI, the traffic class would be named "cisco". The match commands are used to specify various criteria for classifying packets. Packets are checked to determine whether they match the criteria specified in the match commands. If a packet matches the specified criteria, that packet is considered a member of the class and is forwarded according to the QoS specifications set in the traffic policy. Packets that fail to meet any of the matching criteria are classified as members of the default traffic class.
Source:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/iosswrel/ps1839/products_feature_guide09186a0080110bcd.html
Question 4.
In relation to QoS, what is per-VC queuing?
A. The ability to apply polices per VC.
B. The ability to apply polices per VC bundle.
C. The ability to set the number of queues per VC.
D. The ability to set the queue depth and thresholds per VC.
Answer: D
Question 5.
What is Network-Based Application Recognition (NBAR)
A. NBAR is Cisco IOS software that can recognize applications that use dynamically assigned port numbers or applied services (including QoS) to them.
B. NBAR is a network server that uses agents in the routers to monitor the network to catalog the application traffic and applied services, including QoS.
C. NBAR is an application associated with RSVP that resides in the host computers and registers its network applications with RSVP to allocate the necessary bandwidth for each.
D. NBAR is an application that searched the network servers to catalog the applications that use the network. This can be used by the network administrator to apply services, including QoS.
Answer: A
Explanation:
NBAR is a mechanism that has been introduced to supplement RSVP for applications that use dynamic port numbers but do not use RSVP.
Source:
Cisco IP QoS Introduction, Page 30
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Question 1.
Which protocol is used by open system hosts to access block level storage over IP?
A. NFS
B. iSCSI
C. CIFS
D. Infiniband
Answer: B
Question 2.
The copy on first write mechanism used with reserved LUN Pool has several steps. In the first step, the host sends a write request to the Source LUN.
What is the next step?
A. Snapshot pointer is changed to chunk in Reserved LUN Pool
B. Original Source LUN data chunk is written to Reserved LUN Pool
C. Host data is written to Source LUN
D. Snapshot pointer writes to Reserved LUN Pool
Answer: B
Question 3.
What are two [2] CLARiiON High Availability features?
A. Dual power supplies
B. Dual Data Movers
C. Dual ported drives
D. Dual internal control networks
Answer: A, C
Question 4.
Which protocol can be used to manage multi-vendor switches?
A. SNMP
B. SMTP
C. NDMP
D. RPC
Answer: A
Question 5.
What is optional when using Synchronous Mirror View?
A. fracture log
B. event error log
C. write intent log
D. connection log
Answer: C
Question 6.
Which protocol uses TCP/IP to tunnel Fibre Channel frames?
A. FCP
B. CIFS
C. FCIP
D. iSCSI
Answer: C
Question 7.
What are two [2] benefits of both Snap View Snapshots and Snap View Clones?
A. Remove performance impact on production volume
B. Offer multiple recovery points
C. Create immediately available copies instantly
D. Accelerate application recovery
E. Provide independent physical copies of data that reduce risk of data loss due to failure
Answer: B, D
Question 8.
Which two [2] basic functions, in addition to storing the FLARE code, is cache segmented to support on the CLARiiON platform?
A. Read
B. Buffer
C. Write
D. Mirror Policy
Answer: A, C
Question 9.
What is the final step when retrieving an object in the Centera environment?
A. Centera delivers object authentically
B. Application finds Content Address of object to be retrieved
C. Object is needed by an application
D. Retrieval request is sent to Centera via Centera API over IP
Answer: A
Question 10.
What is the first step in strong data to a Centera?
A. Unique Content Address is calculated
B. Client presents data to application server
C. Object is sent to Centera via Centera API over IP
D. Object is protected
Answer: B
Question 11.
What are storage groups used for in a CLARiiON storage array?
A. LUN groups
B. LUN masking
C. LUN mirroring
D. LUN expansion
Answer: B
Question 12.
What does the Control Center Database agent monitor?
A. Legato Net worker
B. Windows 2000 disk
C. CLARiiON
D. SQL Server
Answer: D
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Question 1.
What can you use to verify real-time call control processing in a VoIP network?
A. debug VoIP rtcp
B. debug call control
C. debug VoIP ccapi inout
D. debug voice call control
Answer: A
Explanation:
To enable debugging for Real-Time Transport Control Protocol (RTCP) packets, use the debug voip rtcp command in privileged EXEC mode.
The debug voip ccapi inout EXEC command traces the execution path through the call control API, which serves as the interface between the call session application and the underlying network-specific software. You can use the output from this command to understand how calls are being handled by the router.
This command shows how a call flows through the system. Using this debug level, you can see the call setup and teardown operations performed on both the telephony and network call legs.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/iosswrel/ps5207/products_command_reference_chapter09186a00801aa213.html
http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/software/ios113ed/113t/113t_1/voip/debug.htm
Question 2.
A voice gateway is a box that ______.
A. Connects two dissimilar networks.
B. Transports voice and restricts data.
C. Can support only a distributed call processing model.
D. Cannot be connected to the traditional PSTN network.
Answer: B
Question 3.
You have a customer that operates a group of factories. Each factory has an analog phone at each location. These phones are connected to an FXS port on the on-site router.
The press operators are unable to make any phone calls from these analog phones.
Use the following output to resolve the problem:
2611#s voice port 1/0/0
Foreign Exchange Station 1/0/0 Slot is 1, Sub-unit is 0,
Port is 0
Type of Voice Port is FXS
Operation State is DORMANT
Administrative State is UP
No Interface Down Failure
Description is not set
Noise Regeneration is enabled
Non Linear Processing is enabled
Non Linear Mute is disabled
Non Linear Threshold is -21 dB
Music On Hold Threshold is Set to 38 dBm
In Gain is Set to 0 dB
Out Attention is Set to 3 dB
Echo Cancellation is enabled
Echo Cancellation NLP mute is disabled
Echo Cancellation NLP threshold is -21 dB
Echo Cancel Coverage is set to default
Play out-delay Mode is set to default
Play out-delay Nominal is set to 60 ms
Play out-delay Maximal is set to 200 ms
Play out-delay Minimum mode is set to default, value 40 ms
Play out-delay Fax is set to 300 ms
Connection Mode is normal
Connection Number is not set
Initial Time Out is set to 10 s
Interdigit Time Out is set to 10 s
Call Disconnect Time Out is set to 60 s
Ringing Time Out is set to 180
Wait Release Time Out is set to 30 s
Companding Type is u-law
Region Tone is set for US
Analog Info Follows:
Currently processing none
Maintenance Mode Set to None (not in mtc mode)
Number of signaling protocol errors are 0
Impedance is set to 600r Ohm
Station name None, Station number None
Voice card specific Info Follows:
Signal Type is ground Start
Ring Frequency is 25 Hz
Hook Status is On Hook
Ring Active Status is inactive
Ring Ground Status is inactive
Tip Ground Status is inactive
Digit Duration Status is inactive
Digit Duration Timing is set to 100 ms
InterDigit Duration Timing is set to 100 ms
No disconnect acknowledge
Ring Cadence is defined by CPTone Selection
Ring Cadance are [20 40] * 100 msec
2611#
What is the cause of this problem?
A. Incorrect cptone
B. Incorrect dial-type
C. Incorrect signal type
D. Incorrect disconnect-ack
Answer: C
Question 4.
A company has been using the following dial peer codec command:
Codec g729r8
Over the weekend they reconfigured their dial peers with the following command:
Codec g729ar8 bytes 10
How does this affect their voice network bandwidth and delay characteristics?
A. There will be no change.
B. Delay will increase on a per call basis.
C. Delay will decrease on a per call basis.
D. Bandwidth consumption will decrease on a per call basis.
E. Bandwidth consumption will increase on a per call basis.
Answer: E
Question 5.
Which two features render VAD ineffective? (Choose two)
A. Fax
B. CNG
C. Call waiting
D. Music on hold
E. Call forwarding
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
Over time and as an average on a volume of more than 24 calls, VAD may provide up to a 35 percent bandwidth savings. The savings are not realized on every individual voice call, or on any specific point measurement. For the purposes of network design and bandwidth engineering, VAD should not be taken into account, especially on links that carry fewer than 24 voice calls simultaneously. Various features such as music on hold and fax render VAD ineffective. When the network is engineered for the full voice call bandwidth, all savings provided by VAD are available to data applications.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk652/tk698/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094ae2.shtml
Question 6.
A user is trying to call another user over a VoIP network and gets a busy tone instead of a dial tone.
What command should you use to troubleshoot the problem?
A. show voice dsp
B. show voice connection
C. show voice port summary
D. show dial-peer voice summary
Answer: A
Explanation:
To show the current status of all digital signal processor (DSP) voice channels, use the show voice dsp command in privileged EXEC mode.
To display configuration information about a specific voice port, use the show voice port command in EXEC mode.
order to check the validity of the dial peer configuration, use the Cisco IOS command show dial-peer voice summary.
Question 7.
What does compressed RTP significantly reduce?
A. Packet delay
B. Total bandwidth
C. Frame Relay overhead
D. Total number of packets
Answer: B
Explanation:
Compressed RTP (CRTP), specified in RFC 2509, was developed to decrease the size of the IP, UDP, and RTP headers.
Question 8.
While installing a voice gateway outside the United States, what two requirements need to be verified? (Choose two)
A. PSTN standards in that country.
B. Encryption capabilities legalities.
C. The service provider installing the gateway.
D. Supplementary service including fax and modem.
Answer: A, B
Question 9.
A customer in Great Britain needs to install a Cisco router to support IP Telephony services with direct-connected analog phones.
What FXS port parameter do you need to change to emulate the local PSTN provider?
A. Signal
B. Cptone
C. Busy out
D. Description
Answer: B
Question 10.
Your customer is a computer components warehouse. To keep costs low, all inside sales associates are located at corporate headquarters in another state.
Your customer is interested in providing a direct analog telephone connection to the inside sales teams from the pick-up counters at their warehouses. This connection will not require the customer to dial any digits.
One of the warehouses is having a problem with their sales phone.
Given the following output:
altwhse#show voice port 1/0:1
Foreign Exchange Office
Type of Voice Port is E&M
Operation State is DORMANT
Administrative State is UP
The Last Interface Down Failure Cause is Administrative Shutdown
Description is not set
Noise Regeneration is enabled
Non Linear Processing is enabled
Music On Hold Threshold is Set to -38 dBm
In Gain is Set to 0 dB
Out Attenuation is Set to 0 dB
Echo Cancellation is enabled
Echo Cancel Coverage is set to 8 ms
Connection Mode is plar
Connection Number is 2000
Initial Time Out is set to 10 s
Interdigit Time Out is set to 10 s
Call-Disconnect Time Out is set to 60 s
Ringing Time Out is set to 180 s
Region Tone is set for US
What is causing the calls to fail?
A. Voice Port type is incorrect.
B. Echo cancellation is enabled.
C. Connection Number is not required.
D. Interdigit Time Out is set to 10 seconds.
Answer: A
Question 11.
Which three types of trunks does Cisco support with the connection trunk command?
(Choose three)
A. FXS to FXS trunks
B. FXS to FXO trunks
C. FXO to FXO trunks
D. E&M to FXS trunks
E. E&M to FXO trunks
F. E&M to E&M trunks
Answer: A, B, F
Question 12.
If no incoming dial peer matches a router or gateway, the incoming call leg _____.
A. Takes an alternate path.
B. Matches the default dial peer.
C. Sends a busy to the originator.
D. Is denied and the call does not complete.
Answer: B
Question 13.
The following configuration is used at Site A:
dial-peer voice 20 pots
destination-pattern 20
port 1.0:1
dial-peer voice 41 VoIP
destination-pattern 41
session target ipv4:10.2.0.20
The following configuration is used at site B:
dial-peer voice 40 pots
destination-pattern 41
port 1.0:1
dial-peer voice 20 VoIP
destination-pattern 20
session target ipv4:10.4.1.41
To configure a permanent connection between the PBXs, what must be added to the voice port configuration at site A?
A. connection trunk 20
B. connection trunk 41
C. connection tie-line 20
D. connection tie-line 41
Answer: B
Explanation:
You must specify the same number in the connection trunk voice port command as in the appropriate dial peer destination-pattern command in order to create a permanent trunk.
Question 14.
A telephony service provider sells managed IP Phone service to businesses in multi-tenant units.
The provider has POPs in many cities, so all of their dial peer patterns are based on 10 digit numbers. Users dial 9 for local calls, followed by the 7 digital local number.
In a Chicago POP, the following dial peer has been configured:
dial-peer voice 312 pots
destination-pattern 312
port 1/0:24
A user dials a local number, 9-555-0597.
What command must be configured in the gateway to allow the call to complete?
A. prefix 312
B. forward-digits 7
C. rule 1 9.......312.......
D. num-exp 9.......312.......
Answer: D
Question 15.
Which configuration defines a destination pattern for all of the 1000 and 2000 range of extensions starting with the numbers 555?
A. 5551...
B. 5552...
C. 555[1-2]...
D. 555[1000-2000]...
Answer: C
Question 16.
What does RTCP provide?
A. Independent services irrespective of RTP.
B. Compression techniques to save bandwidth.
C. In-band control information for an RTP flow.
D. Out-of-band control information for an RTP flow.
Answer: D
Explanation:
RTCP provides out-of-band control information for an RTP flow.
Question 17.
What is the disadvantage of using VoIP rather than VoFR or VoATM?
A. Data can arrive out of sequence.
B. Networks are complicated to design.
C. Data units can arrive out of sequence.
D. Network failures are not automatically found.
Answer: C
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