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Question 1. How many DIMMs are required for the minimum memory configuration on a server with four-way interleaving memory addressing? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 Answer: C Question 2. Which action you take to convert a 1x6 backplane to a 2x3? A. A attach a daughter card B. install an interposer board C. install a power distribution board D. add a second SCSI controller card Answer: A Question 3. What is the PCI slot color coding scheme for Dell power Edge servers? A. 33 MHZ slot are blue;66 MHZ slots are blue. B. 33 MHZ slot are orange;66 MHZ slots are blue. C. 33 MHZ slots are cream-colored, 66 MHZ slots are green. D. 33 MHZ slot are greene;66 MHZ slots are cream-colored. Answer: C Question 4. Which two Dell servers are rack dense optimized? (Choose two.) A. power Edge 1750 B. power Edge 2600 C. power Edge 1655MC D. Power Edge 1600Sc Answer: A, C Question 5. What should you do before removing or reseating the RAID memory? A. remove the hard drives B. disconnect the RAID key C. disconnect the RAID cable D. disconnect the RAID battery Answer: D Question 6. What does 2 + 1 mean in the system specifications for the power subsystem? A. The server has two AC inputs that are switched to a single supply to redundant AC sources. B. The server has two power supplies with one AC input fed to both, providing redundant power supplies. C. The server must have two power supplies in order to operate and a third power supply is the redundant supply. D. The server must have one power supply in order to operate and the two additional power supplies are redundant. Answer: C Question 7. What is the purpose of the battery on a PERC? A. maintains the PERC BIOS settings B. Preserver the hard drive configuration C. Provides power to the PERC controller D. Saves the cache contents during a power loss Answer: D Question 8. What is the benefit of ECC memory? A. Provides speed improvements by accessing memory in parallel B. Provides redundancy by allowing defective memory to be disabled C. Provides redundancy by maintaining parity info on the DRAM to detect and correct single bit errors D. Provides speed improvements by allowing addressing to be set for the next access to the same DIMM, while data are being read from the previous access Answer: C Question 9. Which two are provided by riser boards? (Choose two.) A. PCI slots parallel to the system board in 1U and 2U systems B. a Place to connect upto 16 DIMMs in 4U and large systems C. redundant power conditioning and distribution for power redundant systems D. processor mounting parallel to the system board in 2U, quad processor systems Answer: A, B Question 10. Which visual clue alerts you that a virtual disk requires a signature to be written to it? A. A blue plus sing appears on the virtual disk. B. A Yellow "bang" appears on the virtual disk. C. A green plus sing appears on the virtual disk. D. A red dot with minus sing appears on the virtual disk. Answer: D Question 11. Which key sequence is used to assess the Adaptec PERC BIOS Configuration Utility during boot up? A. CRTL +A B. CTRL +M C. CTRL +C D. CTRL +ALT + DEL Answer: A Question 12. You are adding an additional drive and wanting to go from RAID 1 to RAID 5. Using Array Manager, what should you do to reconfigure an Adaptec virtual disk? A. You right-click PERC 2 and select Reconfigure from the options list. B. You cannot reconfigure RAID 5 from RAID 1 on a Adaptec controller. C. You right-click on data, choose Reconfigure, than choose RAID 5 as RAID type. D. You choose Reconstruct from the pull-down menu at the top right side of the task bar. Auto Reconstruct option will begin. Answer: C Question 13. What is the maximum number of primary partitions allowed by Array Manager for three disk arrays? A. 6 B. 9 C. 12 D. 15 Answer: C Question 14. What is a dynamic volume as defined by Array Manager? A. a logical volume that can be created from a dynamic disk B. a volume that resides in the extended partition of a basic disk. C. a logical volume created from portions of one or more basic disks D. a Physical disk that has been marked as dynamic by Array Manager Answer: A Question 15. The drive that contains the user home folders is running out of space. This partition is labeled D and is a part of a three disk RAID 5 labeled Virtual DISK 2. You want to increase the size of the partition by adding an additional hard drive to the virtual disk. How can you do this when a PERC 3/Di is used? A. Array Manager is used to expand the virtual disk onto an additional hard drive. B. You back up the virtual disk. Array Manager is used to expand the virtual disk onto an additional hard drive. C. You use Array Manager to delete Virtual Disk 2 and re-create it including the additional hard disk. You restore the contents of the original virtual disk from the RAID 5 parity. D. You back up Virtual Disk 2. Array Manager is used to delete virtual Disk 2 and recreate it including the additional hard disk. You re-create the D partition and restore its contents from tape. Answer: D
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Question 1. After using the Solaris Security Toolkit on a system, some of your users have complained that they are no longer able to connect to the system through telnet. Which option will allow users to connect to the system without impacting security? A. Re-enable the telnet service. B. Re-enable the telnet service, but force users to use Kerberos passwords. C. Re-enable the telnet service, but force users to use IP Filter. D. Leave telnet disabled and suggest that users use SSH instead. Answer: D Question 2. An application file system stores unchanging data only. How should this file system be mounted defensively in /etc/vfstab? A. /dev/dsk/c0t3d0s6 /dev/rdsk/c0t3d0s6 /data ufs 2 yes nodevices,noexec,ro B. /dev/dsk/c0t3d0s6 /dev/rdsk/c0t3d0s6 /data ufs 2 yes ro,nosuid,anon=0 C. /dev/dsk/c0t3d0s6 /dev/rdsk/c0t3d0s6 /data ufs 2 yes noexec,nosuid,nodevices D. /dev/dsk/c0t3d0s6 /dev/rdsk/c0t3d0s6 /data ufs 2 yes nosuid,noxattr,noexec Answer: A Question 3. To harden a newly installed Solaris OS, an administrator needs to disable the sendmail service. Which command will disable the sendmail service, even if the system is rebooted, patched, or upgraded, while still allowing email to be sent? A. rm /etc/rc2.d/S88sendmail B. svcadm disable -t svc:/network/smtp:sendmail C. svcadm disable svc:/network/smtp:sendmail D. pkgrm SUNWsndmr SUNWsndmu Answer: C Question 4. The Solaris 10 cryptographic framework provides a set of end user commands. One of these new commands allows the encryption and decryption of a file. In encryption, a file named clear_file with this utility gives this error: # encrypt -a 3des -k 3_des.key -i clear_file -o encrypt_file encrypt: failed to generate a key: CKR_ATTRIBUTE_VALUE_INVALID What is the cause? A. The 3des algorithm can NOT be used to encrypt a file. B. The file clear_file is too big to be encrypted. C. The encryption key can NOT be stored in a file. D. The key length in 3_des.key is wrong. Answer: D Question 5. A small newspaper company has problems, because one of their servers was modified by someone. Before this incident, they didn't bother about security. After a new installation, they now want to restrict access to the system. Which two options will enhance their access control? (Choose two.) A. Enable auditing for login and logout activities. B. Use Role Based Access Control (RBAC) for administrative tasks. C. Create a wheel group and list the admin accounts in this group to limit the su command to only those people. D. Disable services without authentication. Answer: B, D Question 6. A ITCertKeys.com system administrator wants to remove most of the basic privileges for ordinary users and adds the following line to the appropriate configuration file to achieve this: PRIV_DEFAULT=basic,!proc_info,!proc_session,!file_link_any It would be shorter to list the two remaining privileges specified in Solaris 10. Should the administrator have written this instead? PRIV_DEFAULT=proc_exec,proc_fork A. Yes, both forms will always be equivalent. B. No, the basic set might change in future releases. C. No, both forms are wrong. You cannot remove basic privileges. D. Yes, the shorter form is preferred. Answer: B Question 7. The digital signature of a patch provides an integrity check of the patch. Which is a requirement for signed patches? A. The system administrator needs to sign the patch. B. All patches need to be signed by Sun Microsystems. C. Signed patches need to be downloaded through SSL. D. Vendors can sign patches only with approval from Sun Microsystems. E. The system administrator can specify which Certification Authorities are trusted for signed patches. Answer: E Question 8. Which two steps have to be performed to configure systems so that they are more resilient to attack? (Choose two.) A. Perform system auditing. B. Perform system minimization. C. Perform a full system backup. D. Perform system replication. E. Perform system hardening. Answer: B, E Question 9. ITCertKeys.com you work for is leasing zones to customers to run their applications in. You want each customer to be able to run the zoneadm command to start their zone in case of accidental shutdown, and also zlogin so they can access the console of their zone. Which are three reasons why you should NOT create accounts for them in the global zone and grant them the Zone Management profile? (Choose three.) A. They will be able to reboot the global zone. B. They will be able to see processes in other customers' zones. C. They will be able to reboot other customers' zones. D. They will be able to disable auditing in other customers' zones. E. They will be able to log in to other customers' zones. Answer: B, C, E Question 10. The Key Distribution Center (KDC) is a central part of the Kerberos authentication system. How should the system running the KDC be configured? A. The KDC implementation employs cryptography and can therefore run securely on an ordinary multi-user system. B. For improved security, users must log in to the KDC before authenticating themselves, so it must be a multi-user system. C. It should be a hardened, non-networked system. D. It should be a hardened, minimized system. Answer: D
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