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Question 1.
Which of the following True statements regarding Microsoft CRM's underlying physical database?
A. The platform layer directly access the physical database.
B. The application code has direct access to the physical database.
C. The metabase is programmatically generated from the physical database
D. Modifications made directly to the physical database can potentially damage not only the
application, but the database itself.
Answer: C, D
Question 2.
What is meant by Organization access for a given record type and privilege?
A. Organization Access has no access restrictions.
B. Organization Access is the most restrictive of all access rights.
C. A user can perform the action associated with a privilege and record type on any record in the
organizational hierarchy, regardless of the user that owns the record.
D. A user can perform the action associated with a privilege and record type on any team-owned
record in the organizational unit.
Answer: A, C
Question 3.
After successfully installing Microsoft CRM, it is important that you run ChrystalAdmin. What is the major function of ChrystalAdmin?
A. It changes the Crystal Admin password.
B. It launches the Crystal Configuration Manager.
C. It initialize Crystal Enterprise for Microsoft CRM.
D. It makes Crystal APS run at startup.
Answer: A
Question 4.
In order to install Microsoft CRM Server, in which mode must Active Directory be installed.
A. Primary Mode
B. Mixed Mode
C. PDC Mode
D. Native Mode
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which technology allows Microsoft CRM to share data and invoke capabilities from other applications without regards to how those applications where built, what operating system or platform they run on, and what devices are used to access them?
A. Application Programming Interfaces
B. XML Web Services
C. UDDI
D. Microsoft Exchange
Answer: B
MOC Page 109
Question 6.
Which of the following components are requirements of the server on which you plan to install Microsoft CRM?
A. Windows Indexing Services
B. Microsoft Data Access Components (MDAC)
C. Online Analytical Processing (OLAP)
D. Windows Installer
Answer: A, B, D
Question 7.
The Application Layer uses which technologies to communicate with the underlying platform layer?
A. SOAP
B. XML Services
C. DHTML
D. ASP.NET
Answer: A, B
Question 8.
You assign a user multiple security roles which happen to have conflicting access levels for a given record type and privilege.
Which of the following applies when a conflict like this occurs?
A. The least restrictive access level is used
B. The most restrictive access level is used
C. You are not allowed to assign a user security roles that have conflicting access levels
D. You are prompted by the Microsoft CRM to select which access level should be the override
access level for that record type and privilege
Answer: A
MOC, Page 439.
Question 9.
Which components of the Microsoft CRM architecture abstracts the underlying data storage details, such as schema and data access, from the higher- level constructs of domain logic implementation and user interface?
A. Data access layer
B. MDAC
C. Metadata
D. Database layer
Answer: C
MOC Page 151
Question 10.
What is the benefit of using Active Directory security authentication?
A. Internet Connection Sharing (ICS)
B. Single sign on
C. Access to XML Web Services
D. Data exchange with other applications via SOAP
Answer: B
Question 11.
What must you do if you forget your Crystal Administrator password?
A. Change your password via the Active Directory Users and Computers console
B. Change the password via the Crystal Configuration Manager
C. Uninstall and reinstall Microsoft CRM
D. Change your password via the CrystalAdmin.exe program
Answer: C
Question 12.
Parent Child Business Unit access for a given record type and privilege provides which level of access?
A. User Access Level
B. Business Unit Access Level
C. All child business units subordinate to the user's business unit
D. Parent business unit above the user's business unit
Answer: A, B, C
Question 13.
When adding users into Microsoft CRM via the User Manager tool you have to add users by group, where a group consists of all users with what common features?
A. The same business unit
B. The same manager
C. The same security roles
D. The same teams
Answer: A, C
MOC Page 361
Question 14.
Which of the following predefined roles allows you to delete users in Microsoft CRM?
A. System Administrator
B. CEO/Business Manager
C. All of the predefined roles
D. None of the predefined roles
Answer: D
Question 15.
Which of the following statements are TRUE about .NET?
A. .NET is a set of software technologies for connecting information, people, systems, and
devices
B. .NET uses XML extensively to display the web forms via the browser application
C. .NET allows an unprecedented level of software integration via the use of XML Web Services
D. .NET is Microsoft's strategy for delivering software as a service.
Answer: A, C, D
A, C: MOC Page 101
D: Simply put, Microsoft .NET is Microsoft's strategy for delivering software as a service. MOC Page 104.
Question 16.
When setting up the following components in a Microsoft CRM deployment, which of the following reflects a valid installation sequence?
A. Active Directory Server, CRM Server, SQL Server, Exchange Server
B. SQL Server, CRM Server, Active Directory, Exchange Server
C. Exchange Server, Active Directory Server, CRM Server, SQL Server
D. Active Directory Server, Exchange Server, SQL Server, CRM Server
Answer: D
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Question 1. Exhibit: Which bridge or bridges in the exhibit will be a Non-Designated Bridge? A. R&D B. HR C. Distribution_1 D. Distribution_2 Answer: A, B Question 2. Which of the following would be used to apply the same policies to a group of BGP neighbors? A. route-reflector group B. Community group C. Confederation group D. Peer group Answer: D Question 3. Exhibit: Which port or ports in the exhibit will be blocked? A. R&D e3 B. R&D e1 C. R&D 20 D. HR e10 E. HR e11 F. HR e20 G. Distribution_2 e10 H. Distribution_2 e1 Answer: C,H Question 4. Exhibit: Which bridge in the exhibit will be a Non-Designated Bridge? A. R&D B. HR C. Distribution_1 D. Distribution_2 Answer: D Question 5. Exhibit: Which port or ports the exhibit will be blocked? A. R&D e3 B. R&D e1 C. HR e10 D. HR e11 E. Distribution_2 e10 F. Distribution_2 e1 Answer: A, D Question 6. Router ITCertKeys A has three iBGP peers: Router ITCertKeys 1 Router ITCertKeys 2 and Router ITCertKeys 3. Routers ITCertKeys 1, ITCertKeys 2, and ITCertKeys 3 are advertising the same destination networks. Router ITCertKeys 1 announces routes with the default local preference. Router ITCertKeys 2 announces the same routes with a local preference of 200. Router ITCertKeys 3 announces the same routes with a local preference of 1. Which path does Router ITCertKeys A take? A. Router ITCertKeys 1 B. Router ITCertKeys 2 C. Router ITCertKeys 3 D. not applicable, because local preference only applies to ebgp peers E. not applicable, because local preference only applies to local router Answer: C Question 7. A change in a route state, from up to down or down to up is called? A. route dampen B. port flap C. route flap D. port dampen Answer: C Question 8. What cli command shows the flap dampening statistics? A. show ip bgp summary B. show ip bgp neighborflap-summary C. show ip bgp neighbor flap-statistics D. show ip bgp neighbor route-flap Answer: C Question 9. What is the BGP4 state called when the router is waiting to start the BGP4 process? A. Admin B. Connect C. Active D. Idle E. Confirm F. Established Answer: D Question 10. Exhibit: What does the * in the status field of network 204.17.220.0/24 indicate? A. This is the best route to use B. This route is currently dampened and is unusable C. Has a history of flapping and is unreachable now D. Has a history of flapping but is currently usable Answer: D
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