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Braindumps for "640-861" Exam

Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions

 Question 1.
The advantages of using static routes are: (Choose all that apply)

A. Efficient use of router resources.
B. Increased security due to known routes.
C. A single path into and out of a network.
D. Route calculations made by network administrators.
E. None of the above.

Answer: A, B

Explanation:
A: Administrator manually programmed the route and update this entry whenever a network topology changed. It will not consume router ‘s CPU and use fixed memory.
B: Static route is Private and by default it is not conveyed to other routers as part of an update process.

Reference:
CCDA Study guide by Damon Merchant. Syngress Press

Incorrect Answers
C: It is not an advantage
D: No Route calculations performed for static route .When configuring the static routes one can specify either the next hop address that the packet will take or the packet to route out an interface. Both methods work properly.

Question 2.
Before any changes are made to a customer network the current network must be documented.
What should be included in this documentation? (Choose all that apply)

A. Addressing schemes
B. Concerns about the network
C. Protocol analysis
D. Network topology
E. Computer names.

Answer: A, B, D

Explanation:
Documenting the customer’s current network is important before any changes are made.
Items you should be most attentive to include the following:
• Network Topology
• Addressing schemes
• Concerns about the network

Reference:
Designing Cisco Networks (Ciscopress) page 55

Question 3.
Routing protocols are characterized by which of the following features? (Choose all that apply)

A. Operation at only the lowest layer of the OSI model.
B. Upper-layer protocols existing in a given protocol suite.
C. Operation at the Session layer of the OSI model.
D. Responsibility for path determination and traffic switching.
E. Operates at the network Layer of the OSI reference model.

Answer: D, E

Explanation:
D: Routing protocols make routers work together. Routers keep track of the networks they are directly connected to, as well as other routers on the networks in order to forward packets to foreign networks. A router maintains this info in its routing table and periodically shares information from that table to other routers on the network. This info is used to determine the best route for an incoming packet to take its destination.

Reference:
CCDA Study guide by Damon Merchant .Syngress Press

Incorrect Answers
A: It operates on layer 3 of OSI model
B: They operate on Layer 3. It will not use upper layer protocols
C: Routing protocols operates network layer instead of session layer

Question 4.
Which of the following are components included in the Cisco SAFE architecture? (Choose three)

A. Multicast Router
B. Enterprise Edge
C. Dynamic VLANs
D. Enterprise Campus
E. SP Edge

Answer: B, D, E

Explanation:
SAFE architecture blue print includes security in enterprise networks,mid size ,remote access networks, IPSec, SP edge which includes wireless and IP telephony.

Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/global/ME/breakfree/pdfs/SAFE_blueprint.pdf 

Incorrect Answers:
A, C: They are not in SAFE architecture

Question 5.
An SNMP-managed network consists of which principal components? (Choose all that apply)

A. Firewalls
B. Agents
C. Network-management systems
D. Managed devices
E. Demilitarized Zones

Answer: B, C, D

Explanation:
B: Agents are actual software pieces that are run on the managed devices.



C: They are core in SNMP. An NMS runs a network management application that is responsible for receiving and presenting all of the information collected from the agents to the network administrator.
D: Managed devices are network nodes that run an SNMP software agent and are located on a SNMP managed network. They generate and store management related info and then provide this info to a network management system via SNMP. These nodes can be routers, acess servers, switches etc.

Reference:
CCDA Study guide by Damon Merchant .Syngress Press

Incorrect Answers
A, E: Firewalls and DMZs are not related to SNMP.

Question 6.
What is the third step in building a prototype network?

A. Determine how much of the network structure must be built to prove that the design meets the 
     customers goals.
B. Gain an understanding of what your competition intends to propose.
C. Review extracted new customer requirements.
D. Develop a test plan.
E. Purchase and configure equipment.
F. Practice demonstrations

Answer: B

Explanation:
One can get info about competition‘s design from account manager. Else you must make assumptions based on competitors’ previous network designs, products they supply, and the customer’s requirements. Evaluate their design and amend your design to include any good ideas.

Reference:
CCDA Study guide by Damon Merchant .Syngress Press

Incorrect Answers
A: This is Second step in building a prototype network.
C: This is First step in building a prototype network
D: This is Fourth step in building a prototype network
E: This is Fifth step in building a prototype network
F: This is Sixth step in building a prototype network

Question 7.
A newly hired sales representative is trying to decide upon a WAN solution that will allow her to communicate with the corporate office located over 500 miles from her home. She most be able to access the company web server and send e-mail with attachments throughout her entire 8- hour workday.

Which of the following would be the most cost effective for her to use?

A. ISDN
B. Satellite
C. Leased Line
D. DSL
E. ARM

Answer: D

Explanation:
With DSL he will able to access web server and email server. This is fixed cost, and always on.

Reference:

Incorrect Answers
A: ISDN is costly solution. He may not able to send large attachments.
B: This is also a very costly solution. In addition, the link may fail due to atmospheric interference such as cloud cover and humidity.
C: Leased line will be short data transfer

Question 8.
A multi-layer LAN switches data outside of the source network based on information stored in which location?

A. RIP tables
B. OSPF tables
C. Bridging tables
D. Route processors
E. DNS Servers

Answer: D

Explanation:
Using route processors switch the packets faster than fast switching, because it has an enhanced caching algorithm and switching cache.

Reference:

Incorrect Answers
A, B: It is used in Router
C: It is used in Bridge
E: This is used to name to IP address resolution.

Question 9.
A small state college is planning to improve the security of their campus network, in particular the dorm network.

Which information provided by the college is most relevant to the new design?

A. User policy
B. Number of users
C. Applications permitted
D. Speed of the network
E. Network topology

Answer: A

Explanation:
Policy is main concern. Which users can access which servers and applications.
Security is main critical area

Incorrect Answers
B: Number of users matters in case of performance issue. It is not primary issue.
C: One can add or delete applications. It will not play major role
D: Speed effects if number of users and applications. It is not main info
E: One can add or delete applications. It will not play major role

Question 10.
Which two Cisco router services perform network traffic analysis to assist in documenting a customer’s existing network? (Choose two)

A. NetFlow
B. CDP
C. MRTG
D. NetMon
E. SNMP MIB compiler

Answer: A, B

Explanation:

A. NetFlow services consist of high-performance IP switching features that capture a rich set of traffic statistics exported from routers and switches while they perform their switching functions 
B: CDP is a media- and protocol-independent protocol that runs on all Cisco-manufactured equipment including routers, bridges, access and communication servers, and switches. Using CDP, you can view information about all the Cisco devices directly attached to the switch. In addition, CDP detects native VLAN and port duplex mismatches.
Network management applications can retrieve the device type and SNMP-agent address of neighboring Cisco devices using CDP. This allows applications to send SNMP queries to neighboring devices. CDP allows network management applications to discover Cisco devices that are neighbors of already known devices, in particular, neighbors running lower-layer, transparent protocols.

Incorrect Answers
C: Multi –Router Traffic Grapher is used to monitor the level of activity on network links. MRTG generates reports in HTML pages that contain Portable Network Graphic (PNG) images that portray a visual look at the traffic on a link.
D, E : These are not related to network traffic analysis.

Question 11.
Which statement about developing a network design implementation plan is true?

A. The implementation of a design must be overseen by the designer to ensure success.
B. Implementation steps described in detail can be performed by a less-experienced engineer.
C. Fallback steps can be reduced if a detailed pilot completes successfully.
D. Many implementation steps can be performed simultaneously.

Answer: B

Explanation:
If you specify the related to functionality, scalability, adaptability, Manageability & cost effectiveness clearly and elaborately, implementation can be done be less experience engineer.

Incorrect Answers
A: Success is measured by customer. The customer measures success from a business standpoint
C: This will not play any role in network design implementation.
D: The steps should be carried in an order.

Question 12.
You need to show proof of concept for a proposed new campus network that utilizes Layer 3 switching. The production network is business critical and no network disruptions are tolerated.

Which approach should be used for this test?

A. Pilot network
B. Prototype network
C. Live network
D. Verification design

Answer: B

Explanation:
IN this method build smaller representation of network design. In Prototyping situation be sure to build those segments of the network that had worst MTBF record to test how your design improves it. Test most critical portions of the network.

Reference:
CCDA Study guide by Damon Merchant .Syngress Press

Incorrect Answers
A: If network is small build pilot network. It will be less expensive than pilot
C: Live network should not demonstrate any new design. This may disturb existing behaviour
D: Verification design to be performed on Lab network.

Question 13.
You are helping a customer design some enhancements to her network for scalability and availability. You discover that all routers on her network are Cisco but many of her switches come from different vendors and are owned by the departments where they are located. She has an outsourcing agreement for the maintenance of the network equipment. This outsourced service vendor has implemented Cisco Works with SAA to manage the network.

What are three Service Level Management challenges that you would need to address in your design proposal? (Choose three)

A. Your customer does not own the switches on the network.
B. The switches and routers come from different vendors.
C. She cannot utilize NetFlow on the network.
D. She has no way to monitor SLA conformance.
E. She does not manage the network with her own staff.

Answer: A, B, E

Explanation:
A: Customer does not own switches, because they are not Cisco Switches.
B: CiscoWorks with Cisco devices. But Switches came from Different vendor.
E: Because Switches are different vendor, she can not manage with her staff

Incorrect Answers
C: Netflow can not be used, because all the equipment is not from cisco

Question 14.
Which solution can be deployed at the receiving end of a converged network to help smooth voice traffic that has been affected by variable delay?

A. Dejitter buffers
B. Higher compression
C. Reduces compression
D. Link fragmentation and interleaving

Answer: A

Explanation:
Digital voice circuits use dejitter buffers to change this random variable delay to a more tolerable fixed delay.

Source:
CCDA Exam Certification Guide Second Edition, Page 140

Question 15.
What is a function of a firewall?

A. Maintains separate routing information for each protocol supported on a router.
B. Provides a security buffer between connected public networks and a private network.
C. Provides user authentication between connected public networks and a private network.
D. Reduces routing loops by preventing the flow of routing information to the source where that 
    information was learned.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Firewall Protect network from outside world. It is hardware/software or combination of both, used to block or permit network traffic,

Reference:

Incorrect Answers
A: This is not function of firewall
C: Firewalls are used to filter packets
D: Firewalls not bother about routing loops

Question 16.
Which three routing protocols have high speed convergence? (Choose three)

A. RIPv2
B. IS-IS
C. EIGRP
D. BGP
E. OSPF
F. IGRP

Answer: B, C, E

Explanation:
IS-IS and OSPF are link state protocols. It converges quickly because updates are sent not periodically, but only when changes occur. The routing changes are flooded, and computing is accomplished in parallel. EIGRP is Hybrid protocol. It uses DUAL algorithm to achieve rapid convergence across a network

Reference:

Incorrect Answers
A: RIP V2 sends updates periodically. It converges slowly.
F : IGRP also sends updates periodically. It converges slowly

Question 17.
When designing IPv6 into an existing IPv4 network, which two strategies allow the two address schemes to coexist to facilitate a migration? (Choose two)

A. Translate one protocol into the other.
B. Encapsulate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets.
C. Bridge between the IPv6 IPv4 networks.
D. Enable anycast capability in the routing protocol.

Answer: A, B

Explanation:
IPv4 to IPv6 Transition Strategies and Deployments
Several deployment models exist to migrate from an IPv4 network to IPv6. During a transition time, both protocols can coexist in the network. The deployment models are

- IPv6 over dedicated WAN links
- IPv6 over IPv4 tunnels
- IPv6 using dual-stack backbones
- Protocol translation

Source:
CCDA Exam Certification Guide Second Edition, Page 253

Question 18.
Which two characteristics are affected by choice of codec when designing networks to carry IP telephony? (Choose two)

A. Voice quality
B. Silence packet handling
C. Voice packet header size
D. Bandwidth required for voice calls

Answer: A, D

Explanation:
Voice quality and Bandwidth are main features of Voice networks

Incorrect Answers
B: This is not main characteristic of codec
C: This will not play any role for deciding codec

Question 19.
Encryption addresses which network security concern?

A. Data integrity
B. User authentication
C. Data authentication
D. Data confidentiality

Answer: D

Explanation:
To safeguard sensitive corporate data Encryption is used. Data confidentiality is main concern.

Incorrect Answers

A, B, C:
These will not play any critical role in network security while performing Encryption.

Question 20.
When designing a network that will incorporate fault management, you must incorporate components that will achieve which three goals? (Choose three)

A. Incorporate intrusion detection
B. Detect network error conditions
C. Log network events
D. Notify network administrators
E. Discover network topology

Answer: B, C, D

Explanation:
When network grows beyond few nodes, fault management is used to isolate areas where the trouble lies and generally sounds an audible alarm to alert administrator to the existence of the fault. Log all network events before and after the fault .In WAN circuit fault it may alert both clientside and carrier side personal of the fault.

Incorrect Answers
A: This is mainly for security management
E: It is for Accounting Management
F: this possibility is negated by options B, C & D.


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Braindumps: Dumps for HP2-T15 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "HP2-T15" Exam

Servicing HP BladeSystem

 Question 1.
Which RAID levels are supported by the integrated Smart Array E200i Controller without a cache module in an SB600c Server Blade? (Select two.)

A. RAIDO
B. RAID 1+0
C. RAID6 (ADG)
D. RAID 5

Answer: A, B

Question 2.
Which server blades support the Intel Xeon processor? (Select two.)

A. HPProLiant BL465cG5
B. HPProLiant BL480cG5
C. PProLiant BL490cG6
D. HPProLiant BL685cG5

Answer: B, C

Question 3.
What can be set with the Insight Display of the c7000 enclosure? (Select three.)

A. power mode
B. role base user account and privileges
C. power and cooling management mode and monitoring
D. enclosure and rack name
E. power savings

Answer: A, D, E

Question 4.
Which blades support the Intel 5500 Chipset processor? (Select two.)

A. HPProLiant BL460cG6
B. HPProLiant BL490cG6
C. HPProLiant BL680cG5
D. HPProLiant BL685cG6

Answer: A, B

Question 5.
Where does the System Management Homepage obtain its data?

A. Web-enabled agents
B. BIOS
C. http://www.hp.com
D. Product Bulletin

Answer: A

Question 6.
What will mixing RDIMMs and UDIMMs in an HP server blade do?

A. halt the server blade during BIOS initialization
B. have no effect; the server blade is booting up normally
C. have no effect as long as the types are not mixed within pairs
D. cause a boot loop

Answer: C

Question 7.
You have activated the UID (Unique Identifier) light on the Insight Display of a c7000 enclosure in a remote data center. 

Which color is the UID?

A. green
B. amber
C. black
D. blue
E. red

Answer: D

Question 8.
Your customer wants to mount a standard media image located on a shared network location from the company's blade server 

Which iLO 2 Standard Blade Edition feature allows this?

A. key-activated floppy and CD virtual media
B. virtual power button
C. virtual media
D. remote console

Answer: C

Question 9.
Which type of cable connection is used to link two HP BladeSystem c-Class enclosures for management purposes?

A. USB
B. Rj-11
C. RJ-45
D. RS-232 serial

Answer: C

Question 10.
Which memory slots must be populated first in a ProLiant BL490c G6?

A. white
B. black
C. blue
D. brown

Answer: A



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