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Braindumps for "640-801" Exam

Cisco Certified Network Associate

 Question 143.
In EIGRP, what kind of route information is stored in the RAM of the router and maintained by way of hello packets and update packets? (Select two answer choices) 

A. Neighbor Table
B. SRF Table
C. RTP Table
D. Topology Table
E. Query Table
F. Dual Table

Answer: A, D

Explanation:
In EIGRP the only two tables of significance are the neighbor table and the topology table.

Incorrect Answers:
B, C, E, F. These are not tables used by EIGRP.

Reference:
Sybex CCNA Study Guide edition 4, Page 271

Question 144.
What is the maximum number of hops OSPF allows before it deems a network unreachable?

A. 15
B. 16
C. 99
D. 255
E. Unlimited

Answer: E

Explanation:
OSPF is a link state protocol. Link state protocols do not use hops to mark networks as unreachable. Instead OSPF implements a steady state operation to its adjacent neighbors by sending and receiving small Hello packets periodically. 

When an OSPF router does not receive a Hello packet for a specified time period, it assumes that the neighbor is down. The router then runs the SPF algorithm to calculate new routes. Hops counts are not used.

Question 145.
On the topic of the OPSF hello protocol: which of the statements below are true?
(Select two answer choices)

A. The OSPF Hello protocol provides dynamic neighbor discovery.
B. The OSPF Hello protocol detects unreachable neighbors in 90 second intervals.
C. The OSPF Hello protocol maintains neighbor relationships.
D. The OSPF Hello protocol negotiates the correct parameters between neighboring interfaces.
E. The OSPF Hello protocol uses timers to elect the router with the fastest links at the designated 
     router.
F. The OSPF Hello protocol broadcast hello packets throughout the internet work to discover all  
    routers that are running OSPF.

Answer: A, C

Explanation:
OSPF contains a protocol (the Hello protocol) that is used to establish and maintain relationships between neighboring nodes. These relationships are called adjacencies.
Adjacencies are the basis for the exchange of routing data in OSPF.
It is through the use of this protocol, and packet type, that an OSPF node discovers the other OPSF nodes in its area. Its name is intentionally significant: the Hello protocol establishes communications between potential neighboring routers. The Hello protocol uses a special sub packet structure that is appended to the standard 24-octet OSPF header.
Together, these structures form a hello packet.

All routers in an OSPF network must adhere to certain conventions that must be uniform throughout the network. These conventions include the following:
1. The network mask
2. The interval at which hello packets will be broadcast (the hello interval)
3. The amount of time that must elapse before a non responding router will be declared dead (that is, the router dead interval) by the other routers in the network
4. All routers in an OSPF network must agree to use the same value for each of these parameters; otherwise, the network might not operate properly. These parameters are exchanged using hello packets. Together, they comprise the basis for neighborly communications. They ensure that neighbor relationships (known as adjacencies)
are not formed between routers in different subnets and that all members of the network agree on how frequently to stay in contact with each other.
The hello packet also includes a listing of other routers (using their unique router IDs) that the source router has recently been in contact with. This field, the Neighbor field, facilitates the neighbor discovery process. The hello packet also contains several other fields such as Designated Router and Backup Designated Router. These fields are useful in maintaining adjacencies and support the operation of the OSPF network in both periods of stability and convergence.

Question 146.
A routing table contains static, RIP, and IGRP routes destined to the same network with each route set to its default administrative distance. 

Which route will be the preferred route?

A. The RIP route
B. The static route
C. The IGRP route
D. All three will load balance.

Answer: B

Explanation:
To decide which route to use, IOS uses a concept called Administrative Distance. The administrative distance is a number that denotes how believable an entire routing protocol is on a single router. The lower the number, the better, or more believable the routing protocol.
Route Type Administrative Distance

* Static 1
* IGRP 100
* RIP 120

Reference:
CCNA Self-Study CCNA ICND exam certification Guide (Cisco Press, ISBN 1-58720-083-X) Page 177

Question 147.
You are an administrator and you've just configured OSPF on a router with both physical and logical interfaces. 

Which of the following factors determine the router ID?

A. The lowest IP address of any interface.
B. The highest IP address of any interface.
C. The highest IP address of any logical interface.
D. The middle IP address of any logical interface.
E. The lowest IP address of any physical interface.
F. The highest IP address of any physical interface.
G. The lowest IP address of any logical interface.

Answer: C

Explanation:
When the OSPF process starts, the Cisco IOS uses the highest local active IP address as its OSPF router ID. If there is no active interface, the OSPF process will not start. If the active interface goes down, the OSPF process has no router ID and therefore ceases to function until the interface comes up again.

To ensure OSPF stability there should be an active interface for the OSPF process at all times. A loopback interface, which is a logical interface, can be configured for this purpose. When a loopback interface is configured, OSPF uses this address as the router ID, regardless of the value. On a router that has more than one loopback interface, OSPF takes the highest loopback IP address as its router ID.

To create and assign an IP address to a loopback interface use the following commands: Router(config)#interface loopback number (no can be range from 0 -255)
Router(config-if)#ip address ip-address subnet-mask example:
Router(config)#interface loopback 0
Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.31.33 255.255.255.255
Router(config-if)#exit

It is considered good practice to use loopback interfaces for all routers running OSPF. This loopback interface should be configured with an address using a 32-bit subnet mask of 255.255.255.255. A 32-bit subnet mask is called a host mask because the subnet mask specifies a network of one host. When OSPF is requested to advertise a loopback network, OSPF always advertises the loopback as a host route with a 32-bit mask.
Summary Look back address(logical address) is use when active interfaces (physical addresses) is down in order to make OSPF stable or reliable

Source:
Cisco Network Academy Semester 3 version 3
Topic: Single Area OSPF Configuration
Sub Topic: Configuring OSPF loopback address and router priority

Question 148.
Under which circumstance, i.e. network type, would an OSPF router establish a neighbor adjacency, even though the DR/BDR election process was not performed?

A. Point-to-point
B. Broadcast multicast
C. Non broadcast multicast
D. Backbone area 0
E. Virtual Link

Answer: A

Explanation:
If there's a point to point connection, there's no need for a designated router or a backup designated router election. By definition, only two routers exist on a point to point connection.

Incorrect Answers:
B, C. In these network types, the potential for more than two routers on the segment exist, so the Designated Router and Backup Designated Routers are elected.
D. This is not a network type. Area 0 is the backbone of any OSPF network.
E. Virtual Links are used in OSPF to link an area to area 0. Every area must be directly connected to area 0 at some point, and virtual links are used for areas that do not meet this requirement.

Question 149.
On the assumption that every OSPF router in a particular area is configured with the same priority value; which secondary value would be used as a router ID when there is no loopback interface set?

A. The IP address of the first Fast Ethernet interface.
B. The IP address of the console management interface.
C. The highest IP address among its active interfaces.
D. The lowest IP address among its active interfaces.
E. There will be no router ID until a loopback interface is configured.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Ordinarily the loopback interface would be selected as the router ID. In the event that no loopback interface is configured, the router ID will be the first active interface that comes up on the router. If that particular interface has more then one IP address, then the highest address will be selected as the Router ID.

Incorrect Answers:
B. Putting an IP address on the management console is a concept that is configured on a Catalyst switch, not a router.

Question 150.
The statements below compare and contrast link state and distance vector routing protocols. Which of these are true? (Choose two)

A. Distance vector protocols send the entire routing table to directly connected neighbors.
B. Distance vector protocols are responsible for sending updates to all networks listed in the 
     routing table.
C. Link state protocols are responsible for sending the entire routing table to the whole network.
D. Link state protocols send updates regarding their own links status to all other routers on the 
     network.

Answer: A, D

Explanation:
Distance Vector Protocols:
Distance Vector Protocols advertise routing information by sending messages, called routing updates, out the interfaces on a router. These updates contain a series of entries, with each entry representing a subnet and a metric.

Link-State Protocols:
Send partial updates when link status changes and floods full routing table updates every 30 minutes. The flooding, however, does not happen all at once, so the overhead is minimal.

Incorrect Answers:
B. Distance Vector protocols only send information to adjacent neighbors.
C. Only partial routing updates and sent to neighbors on a regular basis. The entire table is not sent to all neighbors. This would obviously create far too much overhead traffic.

Reference:
CCNA Self-Study CCNA INTRO exam certification Guide (Cisco Press, ISBN 1-58720-094-5) Page 413 + 419

Question 151.
What are the characteristic of link state routing protocols? (Choose all that apply.)

A. The exchange of advertisement is triggered by a change in the network.
B. All routers exchange routing tables with each other in a multipoint network.
C. Packets are routed based upon the shortest path to the destination.
D. Paths are chosen depending on the cost efficiency factor.
E. Every router in an OSPF area is capable of representing the entire network topology.
F. Only the designated router in an OSPF area can represent the entire network topology.

Answer: A, C, E

Explanation:
Open Shortest Path First
* Each router discovers its neighbors on each interface. The list of neighbors is kept in a neighbor table.
* Each router uses a reliable protocol to exchange topology information with its neighbors.
* Each router places the learned topology information into its topology database.
* Each router runs the SPF algorithm against its own topology database.
* Each router runs the SPF algorithm against its own topology database to calculate the best routes to each subnet in the database.
* Each router places the best roué to each subnet into the IP routing table.
The following list points out some of the key features of OSPF:
* Converges very quickly - from the point of recognizing a failure, it often can converge in less than 10 seconds.
* Supports VLSM.
* Uses short Hello messages on a short regular interval, with the absence of hello messages indicating that a neighbor is no longer reachable.
* Sends partial updates when link status changes, and floods full updates every 30 minutes. The flooding, however, does not happened all at once, so the overhead minimal.
* Uses cost for the metric.

Reference:
CCNA Self-Study CCNA INTRO exam certification Guide (Cisco Press, ISBN 1-58720-094-5) Page 417

Question 152.
On the topic of OSPF routing; which of the following are the traits of an OSPF area? 
(Select all that apply)

A. Each OSPF area requires a loopback interface to be configured.
B. Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535.
C. Area 0 is called the backbone area.
D. Hierarchical OSPF networks do not require multiple areas.
E. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0.
F. Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 1.

Answer: C, E

Explanation:
OPSF uses areas in a hierarchical fashion, and the backbone area is always area 0. All other areas have at least one connection to area 0.

Incorrect Answers:
A. Loopback interfaces are often used in OSPF networks, so that the router ID can be configured. However, this is not a requirement.
B. The area-id can be an integer between 0 and 4294967295.
F. Single area OSPF networks do not have to be configured with the backbone area 0.

Although area 1 can indeed be used, it is not required that area 1 is used. Single area OSPF networks can be any integer from 0-4294967295.

Question 153.
If the bandwidth of an OSPF interface is configured with the "bandwidth 64" command, what would be the calculated cost of the link?

A. 1
B. 64
C. 1562
D. 64000
E. 1500

Answer: C

Explanation:
The question states that OSPF interface has been configured with the bandwidth 64command. Cisco IOS always interprets the values for the bandwidth command as being in kbps, so the bandwidth is configured as 64 kbps. The metric for any OSPF defaults to 100,000,000/bandwidth. So, in this example: 100,000,000 / 64000 = 1562.5

Question 154.
Which two are NOT characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Select all that apply)

A. It confines network instability to a single area of network.
B. It increases the routing overhead of the network
C. It supports VLSM
D. It routes between Autonomous Systems.
E. It allows extensive control of routing updates

Answer: B, D

Explanation:
Through the use of areas, routing information and instability's are reduced to specific areas. This will reduce the routing overhead on a network, not increase it. OSPF is not used to provide routing information between different systems. BGP is predominately used for this purpose.

Incorrect Answers:
A, C, E. These are all true statements that describe the features and functionality of OSPF.

Question 155.
Which of the following are true statements regarding the characteristics of OSPF areas? Select all that apply.

A. All OSPF networks require the use of multiple areas
B. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0
C. Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 1
D. Areas can be assigned any number from 0 to 63535
E. Area 0 is called the backbone area
F. Each OSPF area need to be configured with a loopback interface

Answer: B, E

Explanation:
OSPF divides its routing domain into areas. Area 0, the backbone, is required. This divides interior routing into two levels. If traffic must travel between two areas, the packets are first routed to the backbone. This may cause non-optimal routes, since inter area routing is not done until the packet reaches the backbone.

Once there, it is routed to the destination area, which is then responsible for final delivery. This layering permits addresses to be consolidated by area, reducing the size of the link state databases.

All areas must be connected to area 0, either directly or through the use of virtual links.

Incorrect Answers:
A. OSPF network can only consist of a single area.
C. Single area networks can use any area number. If more than one area is configured in the network, then at least one of the areas must be area 0.
D. The area-id can be an integer between 0 and 4294967295.
F. While loopback interfaces are commonly used in OSPF networks, it is not a requirement.

Question 156.
On what kinds of networks does OSPF elect a backup designated router?

A. Point-to-point
B. Point to multipoint
C. Broadcast
D. Non-broadcast multi-access

Answer: C, D

Explanation: 
The DR and BDR election process is performed on broadcast and non-broadcast multi-access networks.

Incorrect Answers:
A, B. There is no DR or BDR on point to point and point to multipoint links. On a point to point link, only two routers exist so there is no need for a DR or BDR.


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Braindumps for "JN0-570" Exam

Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-SSL)

 Question 1.
On which three back-end authentication servers can you use the "userAttr" attribute? (Choose three.)

A. certificate server
B. NIS server
C. RADIUS
D. SiteMinder
E. LDAP

Answer: C, D, E

Question 2.
You have just finished creating an IVS on your device. You can log in to your IVS but you cannot access any backend resources. 

What should you troubleshoot first?

A. Verify that you have associated your IVS to the correct VLAN.
B. Verify that you have allocated enough users for your IVS.
C. Verify that you are not blocked because of an untrusted certificate on the IVS.
D. Verify that you have associated your IVS to the correct virtual IP.

Answer: A

Question 3.
Which two network settings are accessible only through the root administrator and cannot be accessed by the VS administrator? (Choose two.)

A. internal port IP address
B. Network Connect filters
C. DNS options
D. hosts file

Answer: A, B

Question 4.
Which operation would you use to extract the configuration in a format that can be read by a script?

A. XML export
B. Syslog capture
C. Config export
D. SNMPv3 trap

Answer: A

Question 5.
When using Secure Virtual Workspace, where is the protected workspace created?

A. in the IVE memory
B. on the IVE hard drive
C. on a trusted server
D. on the client desktop

Answer: D

Question 6.
In which format is the client-side log stored on the client?

A. XML
B. binary
C. ASCII
D. base64

Answer: C

Question 7.
You have just created a secure Web portal that will be accessed through the IVE device. 

Which two steps must you complete before creating the bookmark for accessing this portal? (Choose two.)

A. Generate a trusted certificate for your IVE device.
B. Verify that the IVE device has a trusted relationship with your Certificate Authority.
C. Verify that "Allow browsing untrusted SSL websites" is selected in the "Web Options" role.
D. Generate a certificate for the secure Web portal from your trusted Certificate Authority.

Answer: B, D

Question 8.
You have correctly enabled meeting email notifications by defining the appropriate SMTP options on the IVE device's Secure Meeting configuration page. However, when new meetings are created, invitees do not receive the emails. 

What might be causing this problem?

A. You have not specified the IVE device's fully qualified hostname on the Network configuration  
    page.
B. The time is not synchronized between the IVE device and the SMTP server.
C. You have chosen to "Hide attendee names" when specifying meeting options.
D. You have invited attendees with email addresses in a domain that is not registered on the  
    Secure Meeting configuration page.

Answer: A

Question 9.
Which three client endpoint agents can produce and auto-upload logs when configured to do so? (Choose three.)

A. Meetings
B. Installer Service
C. Terminal Services
D. Advanced Endpoint Defense
E. Host Checker

Answer: A, C, E

Question 10.
A company does not want to allow users to remotely download content through the IVE rewriter because of concerns that the content will be left behind on user PCs. 

Which three options should be investigated and used to help mitigate this risk? (Choose three.)

A. Disable caching for all Web content.
B. Use Secure Virtual Workspace.
C. Use Cache Cleaner.
D. Enable caching for all Web content.
E. Enable caching in the Web browser.

Answer: A, B, C


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