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Question 1. Which statement best describes the Monitor Administration? A. The Monitor Administration is responsible for adding monitors to Sitescope and CMDB. B. The Monitor Administration is responsible for the configuration of Business Process Monitor and CM profiles ONLY. C. The Monitor Administration is the starting point for EMS monitoring configuration and administration activity only when the Sitescope is registered to BAC. D. The Monitor Administration is the starting point for any monitoring configuration and administration activity. Answer: D Question 2. Which URLs are used to navigate to the Sitescope home page? Select two. A. Http://:8080/sitescope B. Http:// :8888/sitescope C. Http:// :8180/sitescope D. Http:// :2696/sitescope Answer: A, B Question 3. Which statement best describes a situation for choosing to use the Monitor Deployment Wizard? A. When you want to create a relationship between SiteScope monitors that are already in the CMDB and other CI's that are still not inserted to the CMDB B. When you want to deploy a set of SiteScope monitors to applications or servers that were already populated in the CMDB through discovery C. When you want to create the same set of monitors for different remote machines in SiteScope D. When you want to create a relationship between SiteScope monitors that are already in the CMDB and other CI's that are still not inserted to the CMDB Answer: B Question 4. Which operating systems support SiteScope installation? A. Window, Linux and Solaris B. Windows and Solaris C. Windows only D. Windows and Linux Answer: A Question 5. If your core server is replaced by another core server, what task should you perform on SiteScope to integrate the new core server? A. I will reset BAC integration from the SiteScope UI and then attach SiteScope to already existing profile. B. I will reset integration and will reconnect SiteScope. C. I don't need to do anything the recovery is automatic. D. I need to detach SiteScope, redirect it to the new core server from SiteScope UI and then attach it back to MA. Answer: D Question 6. In the profile creation wizard, what will happen when you select the profile database name (in a multiple profile database environment) from the combo box? A. A failure to create the profile since the default profile database is the only allowed option B. Data from the created profile to be sent to the selected database ONLY if it was marked as the default database C. Data from the created profile to be sent to the selected database D. You don't have an option to select the database - it is selected automatically for you by the Business Availability Center server Answer: C Question 7. What is the quickest way to create a relationship between a CI and a Business Process Monitor? A. Create a profile and run it, make sure the adapters are synced and then edit a view and attach the monitor from within the view B. Create profile and use the attach CI option in the Monitoring Administration profile creation operation - this will automatically create the link between the CI and the Monitor entity C. To use the Monitor Deployment Wizard and automatically assign a monitor to a specific CI D. To use the instance view editor automatic CI attachment process Answer: B Question 8. What server do you need to specify when registering SiteScope to BAC? A. core server B. processing server C. center server D. all servers Answer: A Question 9. How do you change the default schedule of the business process profile execution? A. Access the Business Process Monitor admin web UI http:// :2696 and from there change the schedule interval B. Access the Monitoring Administration business process profile wizard and Only during the creation process of the profile C. Access the Monitoring Administration business process profile wizard and during the creation process of the profile or later change the scheduling interval from the Monitoring Administration D. Change it to the minimal schedule of 15 minutes Answer: C Question 10. What happens when you copy and paste a Business Process Monitor profile in Monitor Administration? A. A logical profile will be created but the work will not be assigned to the Business Process Monitor but rather will be used as a pointer to the same Business Process Monitor task. B. A new profile will be created in the Monitoring administration and the job will be sent to the Business Process Monitor but the profile will be in a stopped status until started. C. A new profile will be created in the Monitoring administration and the job will be sent to the Business Process Monitor but the profile will start running automatically. D. You can only copy and paste empty containers. Answer: B
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Question 1. Which of the following is a responsibility of the Operations Role Cluster? A. detecting intrusions and protecting against viruses B. managing business-to-business trading interfaces C. managing IT-procurement and purchasing functions D. prioritizing service improvement requests and identifying gaps for future functionality Answer: B Question 2. In what way does Capacity Management contribute to improving IT Service Management? A. By identifying the major technology components, infrastructure, people and processes that underpin the end-to-end delivery of service B. By preventing interruptions to IT services as well as recovering services after an interruption occurs C. By planning and monitoring the job scheduling process according to the requirements in the Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) D. By planning the implementation of business requirements for IT Services so they are in place when the business needs them Answer: D Question 3. Which Service Management Function (SMF) needs to ensure that efficient incident detection and recovery tools and processes are in place to handle any service outages that do occur? A. Availability Management B. Release Management C. Service Desk D. System Administration Answer: A Question 4. Which Role Cluster has a portfolio of business-aligned IT services as a quality goal? A. Operations B. Partner C. Service D. Support Answer: C Question 5. Which Service Management Function deals with the day-to-day activities and tasks related to maintaining and adjusting the IT security infrastructure? A. Availability Management B. Security Administration C. Security Management D. System Administration Answer: B Question 6. What is the relationship between releases and changes? A. A change includes both changed hardware and software components and components that were not changed. A release only includes changed hardware and software components. B. Changes are incorporated into the IT environment by releases. C. Releases and changes are incorporated into the IT environment independently of each other. D. Releases are incorporated into the IT environment by changes. Answer: B Question 7. Which of the following is a key requirement for planning service solutions? A. a managed IT environment B. a milestone-driven implementation process C. take the perspective of end-to-end services D. understanding of the business and the operational requirements Answer: D Question 8. Which of the following describes the concept of Service Management Functions (SMFs)? A. a model for measuring the performance of the process B. a model for organizing IT staff C. organizational units that support IT operations D. processes, procedures and policies to deliver and support IT service solutions Answer: D Question 9. What is a goal of Security Administration? A. accessibility B. confidentiality C. connectivity D. interconnectivity Answer: B Question 10. Which steps in the MOF Risk Management Process follow each other immediately? A. Analyzing and Prioritizing Risks - Planning and Scheduling Risk Actions B. Analyzing and Prioritizing Risks - Tracking and Reporting Risks C. Identifying Risks in Operations - Planning and Scheduling Risk Actions D. Identifying Risks in Operations - Tracking and Reporting Risks Answer: A
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Question 1. Which three characteristics of a strategically-thinking help desk? (Choose three) A. Transactional focus B. Reactive focus C. Proactive focus D. Information giving focus E. Integrated focus Answer: B, C, D Question 2. When designing a help desk technology infrastructure, which two components are most commonly included? (Choose two) A. Interactive Voice Response B. Web Server C. Telephony system D. Call logging system Answer: C, D Question 3. An upset, frustrated customer asks to speak to the help desk manager. What is your most appropriate response? (Choose 1) A. It would be easier to resolve this call if you calm down B. I am sorry, but my manager is not available at the moment. May I get her to call you back C. I am sorry, but my supervisor does not handle these situations, I can assist you D. I appreciate your frustration with this, I have experienced this same problem many times Answer: B Question 4. When communicating with ITCertKeys.com, it is best to avoid_______. (Choose two) A. Apologies B. Empathising C. User of slang D. Technical terms Answer: C, D Question 5. You are speaking to ITCertKeys.com who has an incident that requires you to perform further research before you can apply a resolution. You document the situation and the impact. What is the best action to take next? (Choose 1) A. Close the call B. Develop a multi-functional team to address the situation C. Ask your team colleagues to concentrate on this problem with you D. Explain to the customer what will happen next Answer: D Question 6. Which question should you ask to best assess ITCertKeys.com's experience and knowledge level? (Choose 1) A. What is the error code you see? B. Have you ever had this error before? C. What were the circumstances that held to this situation? D. Have you spoken with the systems administrator? Answer: C Question 7. Which are two characteristics of active listeners? (Choose two) A. They demonstrate sympathy B. They use the customer's name C. They avoid using verbal attends D. They listen for, and recognise, emotion words Answer: B, D Question 8. What are the two most important points to remember in order to manage a call successfully? (Choose two) A. Create a problem-solving work-flow B. Use the same terminology as the customer C. Clearly document the situation and the steps taken D. Give the customer something to do Answer: B, C Question 9. Which are two characteristics of active listeners? (Choose two) A. They acknowledge the customer B. They know the process for escalating a problem C. They restate/paraphrase to ensure understanding D. They understand that evidence and reasoning are critical Answer: A, C Question 10. What are two purposes of an on-going (event) survey? (Choose two) A. To evaluate overall satisfaction levels with products B. To measure the quality of a single interaction C. To assess satisfaction levels with all help desk services D. To trend levels of customer satisfaction between annual (periodic) surveys Answer: B, D
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Question 1. Which statement is true about assigning members to plan types? A. If you demote a member that is valid for Plan Type 1 and Plan Type 2 and the new parent of the member is valid for Plan Type 1, the member is valid for Plan Type 1. B. Once a User-defined custom dimension has been assigned to a plan type in the application, you can assign which members are valid in that plan type. C. If you demote a member that is valid for Plan Type 1 and the new parent of the member is valid for Plan Type 1 and Plan Type 2, the member is valid for both Plan Type 1 and Plan Type 2. D. You can specify the source plan type for the members in User-defined custom dimensions. Answer: A Question 2. What are three possible reasons for creating an alternate hierarchy instead of a Custom Attribute dimension? (Choose three.) A. Client requests the base and non-base members have Parent members. B. When the client requests the base member and non base member have security assigned to them. C. Client requests the base and non-base members have an alias. D. Client requests the base member to be on the row of a Hyperion Report and the non-base member to be on the column. Answer: A, B, C Question 3. Which two actions can be performed using multiple alias tables? (Choose two.) A. You can assign multiple aliases directly to a shared member. B. Aliases can be assigned to planning units and User-defined custom dimensions. C. You can have up to ten alias tables in an application. D. Alias tables can be created only within Hyperion Planning. Answer: C, D Question 4. What is the ideal data block size? A. Greater than 500 kilobytes B. Between eight and 100 kilobytes C. Between 251 and 500 kilobytes D. Between 101 and 250 kilobytes Answer: B Question 5. Which statement is true about assigning members to plan types? A. If you demote a member that is valid for Plan Type 1 and Plan Type 2 and the new parent of the member is valid for Plan Type 1, the member is valid for Plan Type 1. B. You can specify the source plan type for the members in User-defined custom dimensions. C. If you demote a member that is valid for Plan Type 1 and the new parent of the member is valid for Plan Type 1 and Plan Type 2, the member is valid for both Plan Type 1 and Plan Type 2. D. Once a User-defined custom dimension has been assigned to a plan type in the application, you can assign which members are valid in that plan type. Answer: A Question 6. In multi-currency applications, after running a Refresh from the Planning Desktop, where are the foreign currency exchange rates stored in the Essbase database? A. "Entities" -- > "1st Draft" -- > "USD" -- > "Product" -- > "HSP_Average" -- > "HSP_Rate_USD" B. "8110" -- > "Versions" -- > "Currencies" -- > "Product" -- > "HSP_Average" -- > "HSP_Rate_USD" C. "Entities" -- > "1st Draft" -- > "USD" -- > "Product" -- > "HSP_Average" -- > "HSP_InputValue" D. "Entities" -- > "Versions" -- > "Currencies" -- > "Product" -- > "HSP_Average" -- > "HSP_Rate_USD" Answer: D Question 7. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.) A. You can assign only aggregation options to Entities dimension members. B. You can assign plan types and aggregation options to User-defined custom dimension members. C. You can assign only aggregation options to User-defined custom dimension members. D. You can assign plan types and aggregation options to Entities dimension members. Answer: C, D Question 8. What must be done prior to using the Create Blocks action in a Hyperion Business Rule (HBR)? A. Essbase configuration file (essbase.cfg) must have the Create Blocks option turned on. B. Essbase Information must be validated for the potential number of blocks. C. Essbase database settings Create Blocks on Equation must be selected. D. Data must be loaded to the blocks prior to running the Hyperion Business Rule. Answer: C Question 9. When would you create a Custom Attribute dimension instead of an alternate hierarchy? A. when the client requests the base member and the non-base members have an alias. B. when the client requests the base member to be on the row of a Hyperion Report and the non- base member to be on the column. C. when the client requests the base member and the non-base members have parent members. D. when the client requests the base member and the non-base members have security assigned to them. Answer: B Question 10. In a multi-currency application using a Target Version, what calculation options should be used with the Aggregate Data component? A. Aggregate Data up to Local Currency, Optimize the Calculation of Formulas on Sparse Dimensions, and Use Calculator Cache B. Aggregate Data up to Local Currency, Aggregate Missing Values, and Use Calculator Cache C. Aggregate Missing Values, Aggregate Data up to Local Currency, and Optimize the Calculation of Formulas on Sparse Dimensions D. Aggregate Missing Values, Optimize the Calculation of Formulas on Sparse Dimensions, and Use Calculator Cache Answer: A
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