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Braindumps for "642-521" Exam

Any DUMP?

 Hello!

Does anybody have a 642-521 dump? 

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Braindumps for "70-320" Exam

Here's the dump I used

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Braindumps for "70-290" Exam

Current dumps

 Can anybody send latest dumps to me. my email is demolango@yahoo.com
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Braindumps for "70-300" Exam

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Braindumps for "HP0-276" Exam

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Braindumps for "000-744" Exam

DS4000 Technical Version 1

 Question 1.
You arrive at a customer site to implement the DS4000 solution and find that the customer wants to use RAID 1+0 instead of RAID 5 for everything. 

What is a possible concern in this situation?

A. capacity
B. random IO performance
C. throughput performance
D. disk rebuild times

Answer: A

Question 2.
What is the minimum number of HDDs required for RAID 6?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: D

Question 3.
Three hosts are redundantly connected to a DS4000 system. Two are running a non-clustered Windows 2003 Server and the other is running Red Hat Linux. 

How many Storage Partitions are used in this configuration?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 8

Answer: C

Question 4.
When creating a FlashCopy of a logical drive, a repository logical drive is created. The repository logical drive is for metadata and copy-on-write data when a change is made to the FlashCopy source logical drive. 

By default, what is its size?

A. 10% of the source volume
B. 20% of the source volume
C. 50% of the source volume
D. 100% of the source volume

Answer: B

Question 5.
Which statement is FALSE regarding hot spare drives in the DS4000 subsystem?

A. The storage server will attempt to find a spare in the same enclosure as the failed drive first.
B. The storage server will give preference to a spare the same size as the failed drive.
C. The storage server will use a spare with at least the same capacity as the failed drive.
D. The controller may use a spare that is larger than the failed drive and block the remaining 
    capacity from use.

Answer: B

Question 6.
When performing an array migration, what is NOT required?

A. verification that there is no logical drive name duplication between the source and target 
    systems
B. removal of mappings for all logical drives within the array being migrated
C. documenting the stripe order of the drives in the array for proper placement on the target 
    subsystem
D. Advanced Maintenance Place Array Offline

Answer: C

Question 7.
What best describes a drive in eplaced status?

A. a drive that has replaced a failed drive and needs to be revived in order to complete the data 
    recovery process
B. a temporary status for a drive that has replaced a failed drive, but has not yet been 
    reconstructed
C. a hot spare that has spared out for a failed drive in an array causing the hot spare to become 
    the active drive in the array
D. the final state of a drive that has replaced a failed drive and has been reconstructed

Answer: B

Question 8.
When examining a profile you see the following:
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 8 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 8]

How should this be configured for enclosure loss protection?

A. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
    Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
B. Drive at Enclosure 3, Slot 1 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
    Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 3, slot 1]
C. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 17 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
    Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 17]
D. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 15, slot 19]
    Drive at Enclosure 15, Slot 19 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]

Answer: B

Question 9.
What is one disadvantage of managing a storage subsystem through the Fibre Channel IO path?

A. The fibre cable used for data IO cannot be used for management commands.
B. An access logical drive is required to communicate with the controllers.
C. Management commands cannot be encapsulated by the Fibre Channel protocol.
D. Ethernet cables to the controllers are also required to send management commands.

Answer: B

Question 10.
In addition to the storage administrator's e-mail address, what information do you need to set up e-mail alerts to be sent to the storage administrator?

A. sender's SMTP server address, the sender's e-mail address
B. sender's POP server address, the sender's e-mail address
C. storage administrator's POP server address, the sender's e-mail address
D. storage administrator's SMTP server address, the sender's e-mail address

Answer: A

Question 11.
A customer wants to use SATA drives to reduce costs. Which application matches SATA use?

A. TSM
B. Exchange
C. application with low IOPS
D. write once, read many times

Answer: C

Question 12.
Which statement about DS4000 firmware upgrades is true?

A. The controller firmware and NVSRAM files are closely tied to each other and must be installed 
    in the proper combination.
B. Controller firmware and NVSRAM upgrades always require the ESM firmware to be upgraded 
    at the same time.
C. Only one controller must be accessible via the Ethernet or fiber in order to perform a controller 
    firmware upgrade.
D. The controller firmware and NVSRAM are independent from each other and can be upgraded 
    at different times.

Answer: A

Question 13.
In the exhibit:
 

Which management method is being used?

A. in-band
B. rlogin
C. client-host-band
D. out-of-band

Answer: D

Question 14.
You have been called in to assist the storage administrator who has been using Global Mirror with an Enhanced Remote Mirroring (ERM) configuration to mirror the company inventory database from headquarters to a data warehouse at a remote site. The storage administrator has been re-evaluating this approach and needs your help to change the mirroring mode to Metro Mirroring for better control over data going to the remote site. 

What must you do to help the storage administrator make the change?

A. advise the storage administrator to purchase two new licenses
B. break and re-establish the mirror relationship
C. back up the inventory data to tape
D. make the mode change in Storage Manager

Answer: D

Question 15.
How do you configure SNMP traps in the Storage Manager GUI?

A. from the Subsystem Management window, use the Storage Subsystem menu
B. from the Subsystem Management window, use the Advanced menu
C. from the Enterprise Management window, use the Advanced menu
D. from the Enterprise Management window, use the Edit menu

Answer: D

Question 16.
To generate a premium feature key that can be installed on a DS4000 subsystem, you must provide certain information to IBM. 

This information includes the IBM machine type/model and what additional information?

A. serial number, activation code, feature enable identifier and e-mail address
B. serial number, activation code, and e-mail address
C. activation code, e-mail address, controller firmware level
D. serial number, and e-mail address, drive firmware level

Answer: A

Question 17.
In the Major Event Log (MEL), what does immediate Availability Initialization (IAF) completed on logical drive" indicate?

A. The drive has been internally reformatted.
B. The drive has just become accessible by the host.
C. LUN has just been replaced.
D. Hot sparing has occurred.

Answer: A

Question 18.
When configuring a customer's multimedia sequential I/O environment, what must you do?

A. use a small segment size with many disks
B. select a stripe size that is the same or an even multiple of the I/O size
C. use small segment size in conjunction with RAID 0
D. select a segment size that minimizes the occurrences of a single I/O on multiple drives

Answer: B

Question 19.
A customer is combining two separate IT operations in one central location. They are using a DS4800. Performance has been marginal. You look at the DS4800 Performance Monitor and observe that they are well within the DS4800 performance specifications. 

Which tool can be used to determine the cause of the problem?

A. Capacity Magic
B. Bandwidth Estimator
C. IOMeter
D. Disk Magic

Answer: D

Question 20.
What does a flashing green LED on a drive indicate?

A. status ok
B. drive active
C. failed drive
D. hot spare in use

Answer: B


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Braindumps for "350-030" Exam

CCIE Voice Written

 Question 1.
When using an Inline-Power enabled Catalyst Switch, which pins are used to supply Inline-Power to an IP Phone?

A. Pins 1, 2, 3, and 6
B. Pins 1, 2, 5, and 6
C. Pins 2, 4, 6, and 8
D. Pins 3, 4, 7, and 8
E. Pins 4, 5, 7, and 8

Answer: A

CISCO CATALYST 4000 SERIES SWITCHES, Cisco Catalyst 4000 Series Inline Power Solution
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps663/products_data_sheet09186a00800924d0.html

Question 2.
When using a Cisco Inline-Power Patch-Panel, which pins are used to supply Inline-Power to the IP Phone?

A. Pins 1, 2, 3, and 6
B. Pins 1, 2, 5, and 6
C. Pins 2, 4, 6, and 8
D. Pins 3, 4, 7, and 8
E. Pins 4, 5, 7, and 8

Answer: E

CISCO NETWORK MODULES, Catalyst Inline Power Patch Panel 
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/modules/ps2797/products_data_sheet09186a00800a9ea3.html

Question 3.
You are a network administrator at ITCertKeys. Your newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee wants to know what protocol IP Phone uses to learn the Voice VLAN ID it should use for Voice traffic.

What will your reply be?

A. Skinny Station Protocol
B. 802.1q
C. LLQ
D. VTP
E. CDP

Answer: E

Question 4:
You are the network administrator at ITCertKeys. Your newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee wants to know what MailStore options are supported in Unity version 2.4.6.

What will your reply be?

A. MS Mail
B. Domino
C. Exchange 2000
D. Exchange 5.5
E. None of the above

Answer: D

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/voicesw/ps2237/prod_pre_installation_guide09186a00800ea54b.html#

Question 5.
You are a network administrator at ITCertKeys. ITCertKeys has a Unity3.0/ and Exchange 2000 system. 

Which of the following attributes will be stored in Active Directory? (Choose three.)

A. Transfer Type (Supervised, Release to switch)
B. Location ID
C. Alternate Extensions
D. Recorded Name
E. All of the above

Answer: B, C, D

Question 6.
You are a network administrator at ITCertKeys. Your newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee wants to know what Network Management Server (NMS) application she can use to monitor Voice quality by polling the SNMP MIB for MQC.

What will your reply be?

A. Voice Health Monitor
B. Quality of Service Policy Manager
C. Internetwork Performance Monitor
D. Resource Manager Essentials
E. None of the above

Answer: C

Question 7.
You are the network administrator at ITCertKeys. The ITCertKeys network and the complete MPLS router QoS configuration is shown in the following exhibit: 
 

The LAN switches (and any other equipment in the cloud) do not mark or remark the packets. With regard to the QoS configuration in the exhibit, when IP Phone A calls IP Phone B, how will the voice and signalling packets be marked by the time they arrive at IP Phone B?

A. Voice: IP Precedence 5: Signaling 3
B. Voice: DSCP AF ; Signaling : DSCP EF31
C. Voice: IP Precedence 5; Signaling 3: 0
D. Voice: DSCP EF; Signaling : DSCP EF31
E. Voice: DSCP EF; Signaling : 0

Answer: D

The DSCP field remains unchanged in the entire process

Question 8.
You are a network administrator at ITCertKeys. Your newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee wants to know what protocol an IP Phone uses to learn the IP Address of its TFTP Server.

What will your reply be?

A. CDP
B. OSPF
C. HSRP
D. EIGRP
E. DHCP

Answer: E

Question 9.
With regard to jitter, which of the following statements are true?

A. Jitter is the variation from the time that a packet is expected to be received and when it is 
    actually received. Voice devices have to compensate for jitter by setting up a playout buffer to 
    accept voice in a smooth fashion and avoid discontinuity in the voice stream.
B. Jitter is the actual delay from the time that a packet is expected to be transmitted and when it 
    actually is transmitted. Voice devices have to compensate for jitter by setting up a playin buffer 
    to play back voice in a smooth fashion and avoid discontinuity in the voice stream.
C. Jitter is the actual delay from the time that a packet is expected to be transmitted and when it 
    actually is transmitted. Voice devices have to compensate for jitter by setting up a playout
    buffer to play back voice in a smooth fashion and avoid discontinuity in the voice stream.
D. Jitter is the variation from the time that a packet is expected to be received and when it is 
    actually received. Voice devices have to compensate for jitter by setting up a playin buffer to 
    accept voice in a smooth fashion and avoid discontinuity in the voice stream.

Answer: A

Question 10.
You are a network administrator at ITCertKeys. Your newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee wants to know what the differences between Type of Service (ToS) and Class of Service (CoS) are.

What will your reply be? (Choose two.)

A. CoS allows a class based access to the media, but ToS prioritizes this access according to the 
    precedence bit.
B. CoS is a field in the IP header, but ToS is evaluated by the routing protocol.
C. CoS is a Layer 2 mechanism, but ToS is a Layer 3 mechanism.

Answer: A, C

Explanation:
CoS Layer 2
http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/software/ios120/120newft/120limit/120s/120s28/12swred.htm
ToS Layer 3
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps672/products_qanda_item09186a00800a8922.shtml


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Braindumps: Dumps for 1Z0-208 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "1Z0-208" Exam

Oracle Comm. Billing & Revenue Mgmt: Server Developer

 Question 1.
Which of the following is NOT a valid function entry point for a custom Data Manager?

A. dm_if_init_process()
B. dm_if_terminate_process()
C. dm_if_process_op()
D. dm_if_terminate_connect()
E. dm_if_start_process()

Answer: E

Question 2.
Which of the following statements about an error buffer is TRUE?

A. When using P.CM macros, check the error buffer after each PCM macro
B. PCM macros use series style error buffers
C. PIN macros use individual style error buffers
D. When using PIN macros, error information overwrites the current error buffer contents
E. None of the above

Answer: A

Question 3.
Which of the following macros destroys the entire contents of an Flist, including all fields on the Flist?

A. PIN_DESTROY_FLIST
B. PIN_POID_DESTROY
C. PIN_FLIST_DESTROY
D. PIN_DESTROY_POID
E. PIN_FLIST_CLEAR

Answer: C

Question 4.
________________ is a Service Integration Manager that integrates Portal with terminal servers to support dialup Internet access service

A. Radius Manager
B. Content Manager
C. GSM Manager
D. EAI Manager
E. WAP Manager

Answer: A

Question 5.
Which of the following would you NOT find in the DMs configuration file?

A. Path and filename of Translation Manager shared libraries
B. Username and password for accessing external systems
C. Queuing manager parameters
D. Hostname and port number of the CM connecting to this DM
E. Database number for the DM

Answer: D

Question 6.
An array called PIN_FLD_ADDRESS is to be added onto the input Flist, input_flistp. The new Flist pointer for the array will be called array_flistp. 

Which of the following provides the CORRECT syntax for adding the array onto the input Flist?

A. PIN_FLIST_ELEM_ADD (PIN_FLD_ADDRESS, input_flistp, 1, &ebuf);
B. array_flistp = PIN_FLIST_ELEM_ADD (PIN_FLD_ADDRESS, input_flistp, 1, &ebuf);
C. PIN_FLIST_ELEM_ADD (input_flistp, array_flistp, PIN_FLD_ADDRESS, 1, &ebuf);
D. array_flistp = PIN_FLIST_ELEM_ADD (input_flistp, 1, PIN_FLD_ADDRESS, &ebuf);
E. array_flistp = PIN_FLIST_ELEM_ADD (input_flistp, PIN_FLD_ADDRESS, 1, &ebuf);

Answer: E

Question 7.
Which of the following statements INCORRECTLY describes the Object Tier of the Portal architecture?

A. This tier can also be referred to as the Data Manager
B. One object tier can be used with multiple data tiers
C. This tier is used to translate Portal data into the format that can be processed by the Data Tier
D. This tier processes all requests coming from the Business Process Tier
E. This tier can also be referred to as the Translation Manager

Answer: B

Question 8.
All Portal opcodes are defined in the ___________________ file. An opcode corresponds to a ___________________. To write the code to implement the new opcode, you can use the ___________________ file as a template.

A. ops.h, function, fm_generic_ops.c
B. pcm_ops.h, function, fm_generic_opcode.c
C. ops.h, function, fm_generic_opcode.c
D. pcm_ops.h, program, fm_generic_ops.c
E. ops.h, program, fm_generic_ops.c

Answer: B

Question 9.
Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes the dm_if_process_op() function?

A. It processes a base opcode from the CM
B. The function contains custom implementation of base opcodes
C. The functionality within this function is specific to the external system
D. A and C
E. A, B, and C

Answer: E

Question 10.
Which of the following is an example of an event in Portal?

A. Making a phone call
B. Purchasing a product
C. Rolling over unused free minutes
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C

Answer: E


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Braindumps for "HP0-045" Exam

Supporting the ESL E-Series Libraries

 Question 1.
What happens if the device firmware update process is interrupted?

A. It will restart after the device is rebooted.
B. The device will return to the older firmware version.
C. The device can become inoperable and require physical repair.
D. It will continue when the firmware update program is restarted.

Answer: C

Question 2.
If Command View TL is not available, what can be used to access the log files in the Interface Manager card?

A. Telnet
B. Perl scripts
C. anonymous FTP
D. a serial connection

Answer: C

Question 3.
What is important to remember when changing from Manual to Automatic mode of the Interface Manager?

A. All drives must be taken offline.
B. Fibre Channel cables must be unplugged.
C. Interface controllers must be powered off first.
D. Any customizations created in Manual mode will be lost.

Answer: D

Question 4.
How can you test the communication between the management station and any selected Interface Manager card in an ESL E-Series library from Command View TL?

A. Run the checkIM command in the CLI.
B. Select Support Tab > Tools > Open the Interface Manager Check dialog box.
C. Select Actions > Connectivity Check to open the Connectivity Check dialog box.
D. Select Support Tab > Communication Check to open the Communication Check dialog box.

Answer: C

Question 5.
Which screen in Command View ESL shows the number of full mail slots in use?

A. Inventory
B. Health Summary
C. Slot Configuration
D. Component Status

Answer: A

Question 6.
Which port number is required when starting a Command View TL session?

A. 2301
B. 4095
C. 4444
D. 5555

Answer: B

Question 7.
You are performing a firmware upgrade using Command View TL and a Telnet session terminates it prematurely. 

What is the most likely outcome?

A. The Telnet session is automatically aborted.
B. Telnet automatically aborts the other session, but the upgrade continues.
C. Command View TL takes precedence and continues the firmware upgrade.
D. The firmware upgrade aborts and the device being upgraded may need physical repair.

Answer: D

Question 8.
What does the cabinet controller assembly of an ESL E-Series tape library provide a SCSI interface to?

A. tape devices
B. library robotics
C. management interface card
D. e2400-160 Interface Controller

Answer: B

Question 9.
Which capabilities of a TCP/IP connection are delivered by the Simple Internet Protocol Plus (SIPP)?

A. small packets and ECC
B. error handling and retries
C. increased bandwidth and performance
D. faster command propagation on inexpensive copper interconnect

Answer: B

Question 10.
For which connection, other than the cabinet controller, is the I2C network cable used?

A. external LANs
B. cluster controllers
C. interface management cards
D. Fibre Channel interface controllers

Answer: B


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Braindumps for "1Y0-613" Exam

Citrix Access Suite 4.0:Analysis

 Question 1.
Scenario: An enterprise deployed a Presentation Server farm which includes five servers.

These servers were built manually using a documented process. They are planning to expand the environment by one to two servers per quarter and seek guidance from you regarding how they should facilitate the server build process.

What should you recommend?

A. They should create a base server build based on the operating system, Citrix Presentation 
     Server, and all applications using a scripting or cloning tool.
B. They should create the base server build based on the operating system and Citrix 
     Presentation Server using a scripting or cloning tool. All applications should be deployed using 
     Installation Manager.
C. They should create a base server build based on the operating system using a scripting or 
     cloning tool. Citrix Presentation Server and all applications should be deployed using 
     Installation Manager.
D. They should continue to use the manual process as it is suitable for the provided projections.

Answer: B

Question 2.
Scenario: ITCertKeys.com asked you to assess their Presentation Server 4.0 environment paying specific attention to their network configuration because some users have reported that their applications usually freeze and then disconnect. This is most commonly reported by users accessing over WinCE/PocketPC-based wireless WAN connections using the WinCE/Pocket PC Client, which do not require printing or the use of any other virtual channels.

In reviewing their environment, you see that no customizations other than the Citrix License Server location have been made to the farm properties. By means of Citrix policies, all virtual channels have been disabled for this user group.

What additional recommendation should you make?

A. The Presentation Server Client for Java should be used instead of the WinCE/Pocket PC 
     Client.
B. Workspace control should be enabled.
C. Session reliability timeout should be extended.
D. Speed Screen Browser Acceleration should be enabled so that it is automatically used if less 
     bandwidth is available.

Answer: C

Question 3.
Scenario: A manufacturing company has deployed Citrix Presentation Server for its ERP application at its manufacturing facilities in Cleveland and Pittsburgh. At each of these two locations, three Citrix Presentation Servers have been deployed because this is where the majority of the users are located. At the Headquarters site, eight Citrix Presentation Servers have been deployed, along with the back-end databases for the ERP application. 

Users have been complaining that the ERP application response time is intermittently slow throughout the day. Upon reviewing the WAN link statistics, it appears that the WAN links between the headquarters location and each of the manufacturing facilities are only used at a rate of approximately 50% throughout the day. Usage typically jumps to 70-80% during the first business hour based on users accessing work orders and placing supply orders.

Based on this information, what should you recommend to this manufacturing company?

A. Replicated copies of the back-end databases should be placed at the two manufacturing 
     facilities.
B. A centralized data center geographically equidistant from headquarters, Cleveland and 
     Pittsburgh should be created to house all of the databases and Citrix Presentation Servers.
C. Additional bandwidth should be leased or Quality of Service should be implemented.
D. All of the Citrix Presentation Servers should be moved to the headquarters location.

Answer: D

Question 4.
Scenario: A production company engages your services to assess their Presentation Server environment. They are currently using Active Directory based on Windows 2000 and have plans to migrate to Windows 2003 within the next few months. They ask you to outline the items they should consider related to Citrix Presentation Server. 

Which further information about Citrix Presentation Server can you offer ITCertKeys.com at this phase?

A. Active Directory based on Windows 2003 provides for Terminal Services-related group policy 
     objects (GPOs).
B. The Group Policy Management Console in Windows 2003 cannot be used to create group 
     policies in a Citrix Presentation Server environment.
C. Active Directory based on Windows 2003 eliminates the need to use Citrix policies.
D. The organizational unit structure that was deployed under Windows 2000 cannot be upgraded 
     to Windows 2003.

Answer: A

Question 5.
Scenario: You have been asked to assess the Presentation Server environment at a corporation. As you learn more about the corporation, you find that inconsistencies abound within the environment, and as a result has led to user frustration and dissatisfaction.

When questioning the administrator of the Presentation Server about the requirements for implementing changes, he states that he merely informs the other administrators verbally or by e-mail about major changes, such as a new application or server. Minor changes, such as configuration modifications, are commonly made as necessary.

Which two recommendations would you make regarding the change control process?
(Choose two.)

A. Administrators should be allowed to make changes only after informing the other 
     administrators.
B. Administrators should be allowed to make changes only after having tested the change 
     thoroughly.
C. Administrators should be allowed to make changes only when following a fully documented 
     process.
D. Only two administrators should be allowed to make changes.

Answer: B, C

Question 6.
Scenario: ITCertKeys.com engaged your team to assess their Presentation Server environment. Users in the remote offices are experiencing slow Presentation Server sessions at certain times during the day; however, users in the headquarters office do not experience slow sessions. In reviewing their environment, you have learned that printing policies are configured for all users as listed:
All printers are auto created
Only the universal printer driver is used.
No printer bandwidth policies are invoked.
No session printing policies are configured.
User devices are running on Win32, WinCE/Pocket PC, and Macintosh devices, all of which use the most recent and appropriate Presentation Server Client. 

Which two risks can you associate with the printing environment? (Choose two.)

A. Network printing is configured.
B. The universal printer driver is used if the native driver is unavailable for all users.
C. Auto-creating all printers could be taking additional time.
D. Not limiting printer bandwidth is having an adverse impact on all users.
E. Not all clients can take advantage of the latest universal printer driver.
F. No printer bandwidth policies are invoked.

Answer: E, F

Question 7.
Scenario: A resort company has asked you to assess their Citrix Access Suite environment. Because they have salespeople who regularly travel to expositions and other events, they must provide external access to their reservation booking application.

Based on your assessment of the current environment, you learn that:
Presentation Servers are located behind the internal firewall.
The Access Gateway device and Web Interface server are located in the DMZ (Demilitarized Zone).
Windows 2000 Active Directory authentication is required for connections that use Access Gateway

Which two recommendations should you make to ITCertKeys.com to improve the security of their Access Suite deployment? (Choose two.)

A. Two-factor authentication should be deployed.
B. The server hosting the Citrix XML Service should be co-located with the Web Interface server 
     in the DMZ.
C. Upgrading to Windows 2003 Active Directory will provide improved logon security.
D. The Web Interface servers should be moved behind the internal firewall.

Answer: A, D

Question 8.
Scenario: A corporation has engaged your team to assess their Presentation Server environment. You have reviewed their current configuration and learned that:
Terminal Services mandatory profiles have been configured for all users.

Folder redirection of all available folders has been configured for all users who complained about application settings being persistent.
The Presentation Servers are all in a child OU by themselves.
The Remote Desktop Users group has been modified to include guest users.

Based on this information, which two options identify the strengths and/or risks of this environment? (Choose two.)

A. Risk: Folder redirection is not deployed consistently. Folder redirection should be deployed 
     proactively so that users are not required to make requests.
B. Strength: Mandatory profiles are configured for all users. The corporation should continue this 
     practice.
C. Risk: Mandatory profiles are not adequately addressing user requirements. The corporation 
     should investigate the use of local profiles.
D. Strength: Guest users can access the Presentation Servers. This enables contractors and 
     other non-employees to access the environment.
E. Risk: The Presentation Servers are located in a child OU. This means that loopback cannot be 
     applied to these servers.

Answer: A, B

Question 9.
Scenario: An environmental company engaged your team to assess their application deployment strategy. Based on your discussions and observations, you learned that: Users access applications on the Presentation Server through a published desktop

The published desktop is locked down extensively by means of group policy objects (GPOs) Multiple versions of the same application are required for use by different users

When preparing your findings and recommendations to ITCertKeys.com, which statement should you make?

A. Your company should continue to offer applications to users through published desktops 
     because Active Directory GPOs address all of the necessary security and control 
     requirements.
B. Your company should offer applications to users as published applications because user 
     access to applications can be controlled more granularly.
C. Your company should offer applications to users as published applications even though 
      isolated applications can be used with published desktops.
D. Your company should continue to offer applications to users through published desktops 
      because they are easy to use.

Answer: B

Question 10.
Scenario: ITCertKeys.com asked you to assess their Presentation Server environment. When you met with the Active Directory Administrator, you learned that the Presentation Servers are housed in the default computer OU (Organizational Unit). 

Which recommendation should you make to the Active Directory Administrator?

A. Leaving the Presentation Servers in the Computers OU is an acceptable practice as long as no 
    domain GPOs would have a negative impact.
B. The Presentation Servers should be moved into an OU with all other Terminal Servers.
C. Leaving the Presentation Servers in the Computers OU is an acceptable practice because 
     GPOs (Group Policy Objects) cannot be applied to this container.
D. The Presentation Servers should be moved into their own OU and GPOs, such as Terminal 
     Services-related configurations, should be applied.

Answer: D


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