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Question 1.
Which file does inetd use for linking service requests with processes to start?
A. /etc/inetd.cfg
B. /etc/default/inet
C. /etc/inet/inetd.conf
D. /etc/init.d/inetinit
E. /var/inet/inetd.conf
Answer: C
Question 2.
In the five layer TCP/IP model, at which two layers does the client-server relationship function? (Choose two)
A. Hardware
B. Internet
C. Transport
D. Application
E. Network interface
Answer: C, D
Question 3.
What does the first field in /etc/inet/services describe?
A. Socket number
B. Network service
C. Remote host name
D. Transmission protocol
Answer: B
Question 4.
Exhibit:
Which host is acting as an intermediate router?
A. samba
B. violet
C. admin-d
D. localhost
E. admin-picc
F. admin-picc3
Answer: B
Question 5.
Which daemon can configure a default router dynamically?
A. rdisc
B. routed
C. in.rdisc
D. in.routed
Answer: C
Question 6.
Which daemon implements RIP?
A. rsh
B. ripd
C. rdisc
D. in.ripd
E. in.rdisc
F. in.routed
Answer: F
Question 7.
Given:
IP address netmask
192.20.20.75 255.255.255.192
• You are adding a "network" specific route.
• Presume the route has been deleted and you are establishing it.
Which command adds a routing table entry with a route mask 255.255.255.192?
A. route -net 192.20.20.64 192.20.20.192
B. route add -netmask 192.20.20.255 192.20.20.75 0
C. route add net 192.20.20.64 192.20.20.75 -netmask 255.255.255.192 0
D. route add net 192.20.20.64 192.20.20.75 -netmask 192.20.255.255
E. ifconfig hme0 inet 192.20.20.64 netmask 192.20.20.192 broadcast 192.20.20.64
Answer: C
Question 8.
A router is refusing to forward IP packets. Snoop has revealed that packets are arriving on its interfaces, but is refusing to forward packets and route them.
Which command should you use to verify that the router is configured (in the kernel) to forward IP packets?
A. ndd -get /dev/udp ip-forward
B. ndd -get /dev/ip ip_forwarding
C. ndd -get ip-forwarding /dev/tcp
D. ndd -set /dev/ip ip_forwarding 1
E. ndd -set /dev/ip ip_forwarding 0
Answer: B
Question 9.
The traceroute command shows routing paths to a given destination. Which protocols are used by this diagnostic tool?
A. TCP + IP TTL
B. SNMP + IP TTL
C. HTTP + IP TTL
D. ICMP + IP TTL
E. SNMP + TCP
Answer: D
Question 10.
Which command is used to start up the NTP daemon?
A. /etc/init.d/ntp start
B. /etc/init.d/ntpd start
C. /etc/init.d/xntp start
D. /etc/init.d/xntpd start
Answer: D
Question 11.
What is the full default path name of the NTP server template file?
Answer: /etc/inet/ntp.server
Question 12.
Which two statements about the named.conf file are true? (Choose two)
A. It allows nslookup to resolve queries.
B. It informs a primary of the addresses of secondary servers.
C. It informs a secondary server of the address of the primary.
D. It informs in.named which zones it supports as a primary or secondary.
Answer: C, D
Question 13.
A DNS server is configured as a secondary server and successfully synchronizes with the primary server when the secondary server is first started. A zone file on the primary server is updated but the secondary server fails to synchronize. The secondary server is rebooted but this fails to help.
Which failure causes this problem?
A. Failure to update the NS record of the updated zone file.
B. Failure to update the time stamp of the updated zone file.
C. Failure to update the serial number of the updated zone file.
D. Failure to update the SOA ttl number of the updated zone file.
Answer: C
Question 14.
Which daemon name is the uppermost in the branch of the DNS tree related to reverse lookups?
A. com
B. net
C. arpa
D. in-addr
Answer: C
Question 15.
Which three are functions of SNMP? (Choose three)
A. Get
B. Set
C. Trap
D. Delete
E. Create
F. Modify
Answer: A, B, C
Question 16.
How do you run DHCP in debug mode on a DHCP server?
A. You kill the DHCP server process then relaunch the server process using the /sbin/dhcpagent-
d2 command.
B. You kill the DHCP server process and set DHCP_DEBUG=true in the dhcp.conf file.
C. You kill the DHCP server process and change the DHCP start script to use the in.dhcp -i
<interface> -d –v command. You then run the DHCP start script.
D. You kill the DHCP server process and change the DHCP start script to include
DHCP_DEBUG=true; export DHCP near the start of the script. You then run the DHCP start
script.
Answer: C
Question 17.
You have a DHCP client on network 192.200.51.0. The DHCP server has the DHCP data in the /var/dhcp directory.
What is the full default path name of the file containing the IP address pool for the client?
Answer: /var/dhcp/192_200_51_0
Question 18.
Two hosts in the same network are connected to different subnets. Which routing method is used to transmit packets between these hosts?
A. None
B. Direct
C. Repeater
D. Indirect
E. Discover
Answer: D
Question 19.
Exhibit: hme0: flags-1000842<BROADCAST,RUNNING,MULTICAST,IPv4> mtu 1500 index 2 inet 62.254.198.30 netmask ffffff00 broadcast 62.254.198.255 ether 8:0:20:8e:4f:1c
The hme0 interface on your subnet does not appear to be functioning correctly. The output from ifconfig is shown in the exhibit.
Which statement describes the current configuration of the hme0 interface?
A. The network cable is disconnected.
B. The broadcast address is incorrect.
C. There is a duplicate IP address conflict.
D. The interface is configured, but not enabled.
E. The interface driver is not configured in the kernel.
Answer: D
Question 20.
Which two values are used to calculate the network number? (Choose two)
A. Netmask
B. Subnet number
C. Host IP address
D. Gateway address
E. Host MAC address
F. Broadcast address
Answer: A, C
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Question 1.
Which statement is true about designing highly available infrastructures based on WebSphere Application Server ND V6.1 clusters?
A.A stand-alone server topology provides the greatest amount of process isolation and therefore
is the most effective building block in combination with other stand-alone servers for building a
highly resilient cluster based infrastructure.
B. A horizontal scaling topology provides the greatest opportunity to implement efficient use of
single machine processing power so that should there be a failover in that environment, there
will be sufficient capacity available for the remaining nodes to pick up the workload from the
failed node.
C. A vertical scaling topology provides the greatest opportunity to implement efficient use of
machine processing power so that should there be failover in that environment, there is
sufficient capacity available for the remaining cluster members to pick up the workload from the
failed cluster member.
D. A horizontal scaling topology provides the greatest amount of process isolation and therefore
is the most effective building block in combination with other stand-alone servers for building a
highly resilient cluster based infrastructure.
Answer: C
Question 2.
An administrator is configuring a cluster bus destination on a cluster with five members on five different physical machines. The administrator will configure two messaging engines which may be run on any of the five cluster members.
What is the simplest configuration for the messaging engines' data stores that still ensures proper fail over?
A.A file-based data store in the config directory that is kept in sync on all cluster members by the
deployment manager
B. A single remote database accessible by all cluster members with one schema to be shared by
the messaging engines
C. A single remote database accessible by all cluster members with two schemas
D. Two remote databases accessible by all cluster members
Answer: C
Question 3.
A WebSphere Application Server ND V6.1 administrator has been asked to set up cache replication for an application. The application team wants to make sure it does not loose any cache data that is generated.
What would make losing cache data least likely to happen?
A.Full group replication
B. Enable disk offload
C. Push only
D. Flush to disk
Answer: B
Question 4.
A WebSphere Application Server ND V6.1 administrator recently added a new cluster member. When the administrator checked the status of the servers in the cluster, they noticed the cluster showing a state of partially started.
What does that mean?
A. All cluster members are running, but the node agents have not been started.
B. At least one of the cluster members is running.
C. The cluster was not started by the deployment manager.
D. The cluster was created, however the servers were never stopped then restarted cleanly.
Answer: B
Question 5.
To improve scalability of a cluster bus member, an administrator proposes adding messaging engines to the cluster.
Which valid concern cannot be resolved through configuration?
A. Multiple messaging engines starting on the same cluster member; a review of available
resources on the cluster members must be conducted to determine if this can be tolerated
B. Duplicate messages may actually decrease the scalability of the application; the application
developers must be consulted to determine the performance impact
C. Message order not being preserved; the application developers must be consulted to
determine whether or not this will cause application errors
D. Additional load on the deployment manager as it directs messages to the partitioned
destinations; a review of available resources on the deployment manager must be conducted
to determine if this can be tolerated
Answer: C
Question 6.
The lexically lowest named server in a cell, server A, is an application server that happens to be started and stopped frequently. An administrator is planning to greatly increase the number of application servers and clusters in the cell. The administrator will also be adding a large number of destinations to the default messaging provider.
Which action should the administrator take to prevent any scaling problems when adding the servers and destinations?
A. Create a cluster of several application servers using server A as a template
B. Add server A to a replication domain to replicate session information
C. Configure the DefaultCoreGroup's preferred coordinator servers to prefer servers other than
server A
D. Move any default messaging provider messaging engines and destinations from server A to
other servers in the cell
Answer: C
Question 7.
Which statement most accurately states considerations that need to be taken when configuring a Web server farm that fronts a cluster of WebSphere application servers for the purpose of evenly distributing workload?
A. A server weight value of less than one notifies the plugin that this application server must
continue to receive an equal share of the new incoming requests.
B. The number of Web servers in the configuration must be exactly identical to the maximum
number of cluster members that can ever be active and receiving incoming requests at one
time.
C. When all server weights have been set to an equal value in the plugin configuration file, the
weighting of the round robin approach for workload load distribution is effectively turned off.
D. When the number of active Web servers in the configuration exceeds the number of
application servers that are accepting incoming traffic, the excess Web servers will be placed
in standby mode to conserve resources.
Answer: C
Question 8.
An application with EJBs is deployed on a cluster. The workload for the application has increased. To keep up with the increased workload, the administrator has added more application servers to the cluster. However, this has resulted in some cluster members being overloaded and others being idle.
Which exception to the WLM routing policy might be causing this problem?
A. Preferred servers that are set servers in the cluster's replication domain
B. Transaction Affinity caused by the application's runtime behavior
C. The Preferred Server Only property is enabled in the cluster's coregroup
D. Session affinity caused by the application's runtime behavior
Answer: B
Question 9.
What is one action that must be taken to allow the administrative console application to be accessed via the Web server?
A. Change admin_host virtual host group to include Web server port 80 (default)
B. Open port 80 on the firewall
C. Stop and restart the node agent
D. Change the deployment manager master configuration file and force the updates to all nodes
Answer: A
Question 10.
When enabling failover for Stateful Session Beans (SFSBs), the WebSphere EJB container will set the activation policy to activate at transaction boundary for:
A. all EJBs in the EJB container.
B. all Servlets, JSPs and EJBs.
C. all stateless session beans.
D. all SFSB.
Answer: D
Question 11.
Where is the file-based repository that is built into WebSphere stored?
A.\profiles\\config\cells\\bultinFileRegistry.xml
B. \profiles\\config\cells\\fileRegistry.props
C. \profiles\\config\cells\\fileRegistry.properties
D. \profiles\\config\cells\\fileRegistry.xml
Answer: D
Question 12.
Which list is the most accurate description of the duties and benefits provided by a WebSphere Application Server ND V6.1 Trust Association Interceptor (TAI) module?
A. Extract the user's credential information from the request validate user authorizations eliminate
additional user authentication calls
B. Validate the trust of the perimeter authentication service extract user credentials eliminate
additional user authentication calls
C. Extract the user's credential information from the request validate trust relationship with
perimeter authentication service eliminate additional user authorization calls
D. Validate the trust of the perimeter authentication service validate user authorizations eliminate
additional user authentication calls
Answer: B
Question 13.
WebSphere administrative security is just enabled when suddenly, several of the deployed Java client applications fail with "security exceptions".
Which configuration file should be investigated first?
A. sas.server.props
B. sas.client.props
C. wsjass_client.conf
D. ws-security.xml
Answer: B
Question 14.
Which list of activities most accurately describes the duties that must be performed by the perimeter authentication service as a part of interfacing with its corresponding Trust Association Interceptor (TAI) module in targeted WebSphere Application Servers ND V6.1?
A. Perform user authentication, establish a trust relationship with the WebSphere application
server(s) and verify user role authorization(s)
B. Verify user role authorization(s), perform user authentication, establish a trust relationship with
the WebSphere application server(s) and extract user credential information from the requests
C. Perform user authentication, establish a trust relationship with the WebSphere application
server(s) and insert user credential information into HTTP requests
D. Verify user role authorization(s), perform user authentication and insert user credential
information into HTTP requests
Answer: C
Question 15.
What is the default base entry value for the built-in, file-based repository for the federated repository?
A. o=WIMFileBasedRealm
B. o=defaultWIMFileBasedRealm
C. o=defaultWIMFileBasedRepository
D. o=defaultWIMFileBaseEntry
Answer: B
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Question 1.
Which two characteristics of optical networks data to be transmitted over extremely long distances? (Choose two.)
A. No electromagnetic interference (EMI)
B. Minimal signal loss
C. No bandwidth limits
D. No encryption
Answer: A, B
Question 2.
What is a wide-area network (WAN)?
A. A network that is restricted to a single building, a group of buildings, or even a single room
B. A network that connects client devices wirelessly using radio waves
C. A network that crosses metropolitan, regional or national boundaries
D. A network that encompasses an entire city or metropolitan area and connects multiple local-
area networks (LANs)
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which IP telephony component provides call processing, such as signaling that in a traditional voice network is provided by switching equipment, such as a PBX?
A. Voice gateways, such as the Cisco VG248 analog phone gateway
B. Call-management hardware and software, such as Cisco Call Manager
C. Client-based software, such as Cisco SoftPhone
D. Advanced call-handling software, such as Cisco Unity
Answer: B
Question 4.
A software engineering firm wants to streamline call center operations to reduce customer wait times and improve employee productivity.
Which Cisco solution best matches this business need?
A. IP Telephony
B. DSL
C. WLAN
D. Optical Network
Answer: A
Question 5.
A growing publishing firm needs a secure way for remote content editors to connect through the Internet to the company extranet.
Which Cisco solution best matches this business need?
A. IP telephony
B. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
C. Content Networking
D. Wireless network
Answer: B
Question 6.
What creates an encrypted tunnel through a shared public network infrastructure, such as the Internet to provide a secure connection between remote users and a private network?
A. VPN
B. HTTP
C. DSL
D. Optical Networking
Answer: A
Question 7.
What does a router do?
A. Reads Media Access Control (MAC) addresses to forward messages to the correct location
and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network (WAN)
B. Stores data on network and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network
(WAN)
C. Routes traffic down alternative paths and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-
area network (WAN)
D. Broadcasts data to all devices that are connected to it across the local-area network (LAN) and
wide-area network (WAN)
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which device is used in wireless networks to send transmission to a target area?
A. Directional Antenna
B. Optical fiber
C. Omni-directional antenna
D. Access point
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which wireless local-area network (WLAN) device is often used to make wireless connections between buildings or campuses?
A. Access Point
B. Bridge
C. Router
D. Client Adapter
Answer: B
Question 10.
On what type of network does the Cisco Unified Communications system reside?
A. A single, joined voice, video and data network
B. Voice networks only
C. Wireless networks only
D. Data networks only
E. Independent voice, video and data networks
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Exhibit:
The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that the aggregate bandwidth between zones that are controlled by the Portland Gatekeeper and the Seattle Gatekeeper is limited to 100,000 kbps?
A. bandwidth interzone 166667
B. bandwidth remote 166667
C. bandwidth session 166667
D. bandwidth region 166667
E. bandwidth zone 166667
Answer: B
Question 2.
ITCertKeys.com has a single Cisco IPVC 3511 MCU E. At present there are two conferences occurring as follows:
Conference 1: three conference participantstransrating 768 kbps to 384 kbpsenhanced
continuous presence
Conference 2: three conference participantstransrating 768 kbps to 384 kbpsmultiple
conference view (3)A third conference is desired with the following requirements:
Conference 3: three conference participants
What will occur when the third conference is attempted?
A. The third conference will succeed as desired.
B. The third conference will succeed, but without the enhanced continuous presence.
C. The third conference will fail because an IPVC 3511 MCU does not have the resources for
three conferences of three people each.
D. The third conference will fail because the EMP module does not have the resources to provide
the number of required services.
Answer: A
Question 3.
Exhibit:
ITCertKeys.com is using Cisco meeting place at its world headquarters; ITCertKeys.com also has a Cisco CallManager cluster. The Cisco CallManager cluster includes a video deployment with both SCCP and H.323 video endpoints. The videoconferencing capability is provided by a Cisco IPVC 3540 Series Videoconferencing System.
Using the topology in the exhibit, what should be the video gateway location?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B
Question 4.
ITCertKeys.com is deploying Cisco VT Advantage to enable executives to participate in video calls with customers and suppliers.
Which two devices can be used to allow these external calls to be placed over a dedicated PRI? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco IPVC 3521
B. Cisco IPVC 3526
C. Cisco IPVC 3540
D. Cisco Multiservice IP-to-IP Gateway
E. Cisc MCM proxy
Answer: B, C
Question 5.
Exhibit:
A network has two gatekeepers that control four zones.
Which command is used to ensure that the aggregate bandwidth between the Seattle and Spokane zones is limited to 100,000 kbps?
A. bandwidth interzone 166667
B. bandwidth remote 166667
C. bandwidth session 166667
D. bandwidth region 166667
E. bandwidth zone 166667
Answer: A
Question 6.
Exhibit:
CAC is being configured for the centralized call-processing video telephony network. Each video terminal is capable of a maximum data rate of 320 kbps, and two video terminals are planned for each site. The requirement is to make two simultaneous video calls between the ITCertKeys main office and each remote ITCertKeys branch office site. The audio codec will be G.711.
In order to ensure quality of service for calls, which action should be taken when configuring Cisco CallManager?
A. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 922
kbps.
B. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 384
kbps.
C. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 768
kbps.
D. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 922 kbps
between the central site and each remote site.
E. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 384 kbps
between the central site and each remote site.
F. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 768 kbps
between the central site and each remote site.
Answer: C
Question 7.
ITCertKeys.com has a requirement for up to 10 simultaneous conferences of four people each, and each conference requires 384-kbps to 128-kbps transrating and H.261 to H.263 video transcoding.
What should this company purchase?
A. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A
B. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP blade
C. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP3 blade
D. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A
E. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP blade
F. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP3 blade
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which three factors must be considered when designing a H.323 videoconferencing dial plan? (Choose three.)
A. the number of sites in the enterprise
B. the number and location of gatekeepers
C. the incoming PSTN call routing method
D. the DNs and location of conferencing MCUs to be deployed
E. the videoconferencing features and applications to be deployed
F. the location of voice gateways
Answer: A, C, D
Question 9.
Exhibit:
The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones.
Which command is used to ensure that no single call in Zone Eugene uses more than 768 kbps?
A. bandwidth interzone 768
B. bandwidth limit 768
C. bandwidth session 768
D. bandwidth call 768
E. bandwidth zone 768
Answer: C
Question 10.
What is traditionally used in a H.323 gatekeeper to pool endpoints into groups?
A. zones
B. clusters
C. calling search spaces
D. toll bypass routing
Answer: A
Question 11.
ITCertKeys.com has a small group of users who do interactive video teaching from H.323 endpoints to H.320 videoconferencing systems.
What should you do so that incoming calls can reach endpoints that are associated with a specific E.164 address?
A. Deploy an IPCC server and configuration an IVR to act as a front end to the MCU
B. Enable the DID capability that is built into the gateway
C. Deploy the Cisco IP IVR
D. Configure the DID in the Cisco CallManager
Answer: B
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