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Question 1.
IPSEC is a standard that provides packet-level encryption. IPSEC is associated with which technology?
A. SSL
B. PPTP
C. L2TP
D. VPN
Answer: D
Explanation:
This is a problem that can cause a lot of discussion. From a software perspective, in Windows 2000, IPSEC is only supported on L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol). The first inclination would be to answer L2TP. But IPSEC is not a Windows standard, it is an Internet standard and was first available from router to router. When used from router to router, it is router software and not operating system software that applied here. So, IPSEC can be used for almost any type of transmission, but is used for tunneling and to create tunnel circuits between two points. For this reason, we select VPN (Virtual Tunneling Protocol), which includes both PPTP (Point to Point Tunneling Protocol) and L2TP. If you wanted to answer this question exclusively under the premise of Windows 2000, then you would select L2TP. But we need to answer the question on a general basis when the question does NOT indicate a particular operating system.
Incorrect Answers:
A: SSL (Secured Sockets Layer) is a security protocol used for protecting data, and is also an encryption method. (IPSec is an encryption method too)
B: PPTP can use an IPSec tunnel if the tunnel is established between two routers. PPTP does not natively support IPSec.
C: L2TP may use IPSec (it is optional and has to be enabled for the transmission) and under Windows 2000 can use IPSec with L2TP natively. The choice between C & D for this question can be a toss-up and will bring on a lot of discussion.
Question 2.
Which choice best describes half-duplex data transmission?
A. Data travels in only one direction.
B. Data travels in two directions, but only one direction at a time
C. Data travels in two directions simultaneously, but only at half speed
D. Data travels in two directions simultaneously
Answer: B
Explanation:
That is the definition, it is a two way street, but one direction at a time.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This is simplex.
C: There is no definition for this.
D: This is full-duplex.
Question 3.
Which common network component is a low-level device that amplifies the electronic signal traveling on a cable segment to ensure that these signals do not degrade?
A. Bridge
B. Repeater
C. Hub
D. Router
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is the definition of a repeater.
Incorrect Answers:
A, D: These are segmentation devices that separate a network into segments. These can be viewed as a method to allow signals to travel farther, but these are high level devices and is a complex approach to extending a segment.
C: Hubs may or may not amplify signals. Switches usually do. But these devices are more complex than repeaters, and although they provide repeating functions, the correct answer here is an individual repeater inserted where signals might otherwise degrade.
Question 4.
Which connection medium operates at a maximum speed of 44.736 Mbps?
A. ISDN
B. DSL
C. T3 line
D. T1 line
Answer: C
Explanation:
This is the T3 transmission speed, which is usually duplex and gives you a max of 44.736 in EACH direction.
Incorrect Answers:
A: ISDN provides up to 144Kbps (2x64Kbps plus 16Kbps) channels.
B: DSL currently provides transmission speeds up to T1 speeds (1.544Mbps)
D: A T1 line transmits at a maximum of 1.544Mbps.
Question 5.
Your manager attended a half-day seminar and learned about polymorphic viruses. She asks you to explain them further. What feature of polymorphic viruses make them the most difficult viruses to detect?
A. They avoid detection by redirecting hard-drive requests from the virus scanning software
B. They attach themselves to executable programs, making them undetectable when you list the
directory
C. These viruses are written as macros in Microsoft Word documents, so they go undetected
because virus scanning generally scans only executable files.
D. These viruses are able to appear as a different process each time they are run, thus they
elude detection.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Virus detection is based on examining a signature (the code segment) of the virus within a module. A polymorphic virus eludes detection by dynamically altering the signature as it infects other modules.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This is a form of stealth viruses, that hide themselves.
B: This is the method of almost every executable virus.
C: These are Macro Viruses, and current virus detection programs are now capable of scanning for this type of virus.
Question 6.
Derek is creating an image map named "cityscape." in his HTML code. What must he use as the corresponding USEMAP name?
A. "cityscape""
B. cityscape.gif"
C. "#cityscape"
D. "!cityscape"
Answer: C
The USEMAP= "#cityscape" attribute with specifies that an image map with the name of cityscape should be used. The FaceMap image map must be defined at another location within the same HTML document. The USEMAP= "#cityscape" attribute and value specifies a local reference within the same HTML document.
Incorrect answers:
A, B, C: These are all incorrect USEMAP syntax.
Note:
An example of the use of an image map. First we define a map name. We insert the same name for the map as was specified in the USEMAP attribute above. Then we define the map with area elements. The code is included in the same HTML file as the code from the question above.
<map name="#cityscape">
<area shape="rect" coords="left-x, top-y, right-x, bottom-y">
<area shape="circle" coords="center-x, center-y, radius-x">
<area shape="poly" coords="x1,y1, x2,y2 x3,y3, ...">
</map>
Question 7.
What port does the Domain Name System (DNS) use?
A. 21
B. 80
C. 53
D. 25
Answer: C
Explanation:
DNS uses TCP port 53.
Incorrect answers:
A: FTP, file transfer protocol, uses TCP port 21.
B: HTTP, hyper text transfer protocol, uses TCP port 80.
D: SMTP, simple mail transfer protocol, uses TCP port 25.
Question 8.
Several tags must appear in an HTML file. Which of the following choices list required tags in the current sequence of the appearance?
A. <body, head, HTML>
B. < head, HTML, body>
C. <head, body, HTML>
D. <HTML, head, body>
Answer: D
Explanation:
An HTML file has the following structure:
<HTML>
<HEAD>
</HEAD>
<BODY>
</BODY>
</HTML>
The order of the tags is HTML, HEAD, BODY.
Question 9.
Which of the following best describes a cookie?
A. A small text file created by a web server that resides on the users computer.
B. An external application launched by a web browser or internet client program to view non-native file formats and other data types.
C. A file format used for importing and exporting graphics.
D. A small program created in the Java language especially designed to reside in HTML pages.
Answer: A
Explanation:
web servers and web browsers do not have access to store data on your computer. Sometimes a website wants to leave an indicator that you have been there before. One common use is to save the userid of the person who last did a logon to the site, and maybe even the password. Then when you visit the site again, it knows you, and can even log you on. These files that are created are text files, and reside on the client’s computer. It is not an application, so B is wrong. It could be considered a file format, in a loose way, but it is not involved with the import or export of graphics, so C is wrong. It is also not a program, so D is wrong.
Question 10.
Which IP class uses 16 bits for the network portion and 16 bits for the host portion of the address?
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
Answer: B
Explanation:
a Class B IP address is 16 Network, 16 Host. A class A address is 8 Network and 24 Host, and a Class C is the opposite, 24 network and 8 host, so A & C are wrong. The Class D is the multicast range, and does not use a network/host format, so D is wrong.
Question 11.
Which mail protocol is used to retrieve the e-mail to the client machine?
E. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
F. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
G. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
H. Post office Protocol (POP)
Answer: D
Explanation:
POP (Post Office Protocol) is used to receive (download) e- mail messages from the mail server to the client computer whereas IMAP is a mail protocol that is use to view the e-mails interactively on the mail server.
HTTP is the protocol used for WEB Pages, and is not a mail protocol.
SMTP allows the sending of mail messages.
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Question 1.
A report output file gets generated when you run "Validate APPS schema" by using the adadmin utility in the Oracle Applications 11i E-Business Suite environment. If the report shows something similar to "GL_CODE_COMBINATIONS table does not exist or is an invalid object", what is the first step that the database administrator (DBA) should take to correct this issue?
A. Run the AD Relink utility and relink the GL product.
B. Use License Manager, and register the GL product.
C. Run the "Recreate grants and synonyms for APPS schema" task by using the adadmin utility.
D. Run Autopatch, and apply GL latest available patch.
E. Run Rapid Install to reinstall the database components.
Answer: C
Question 2.
In which three cases is it most effective to run validation on the APPS schema in the Oracle Applications 11i E-Business Suite setup? (Choose three.)
A. before performing an export/import
B. immediately after an upgrade or applying a maintenance pack
C. after converting to multiple organizations or multiple reporting currencies
D. after a patch or multiple patches are applied
E. whenever you receive a run-time error that suggests that a problem is caused by the AD_DDL
package
Answer: B, D, E
Question 3.
Which four statements correctly describe a schema? (Choose four.)
A. There is no one-to-one relationship between schemas and users in a database.
B. the concept of a database schema is directly tied to the concept of a database user, or a grant
from the schema owner
C. The database user and the schema never have the same name.
D. A schema can allow another schema to use its objects by granting access.
E. An Oracle Application products database objects are divided between the product schema and
the APPS schema.
F. A schema is a named collection of database objects.
Answer: B, D, E, F
Question 4.
You have just brought the middle tier back after a hardware problem has been fixed. Oracle Applications are now experiencing problems with an entire product group of forms (fnd), which includes the sign-on form. You decide that you will generate the forms files in AD Administration to see whether this will fix the problem.
You answered the prompts from the utility as follows:
1. Do you want to generate Oracle Forms using your current character set? (Yes)
2. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms PL/SQL library files? (Yes)
3. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms executable files? (Yes)
4. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms menu files? (Yes)
5. Enter list if products, or enter 'all' [all]: (fnd)
6. Generate specific form objects for each selected product? (Yes)
7. Enter libraries and menus to generate, or enter 'all' [all]: (APPCORE.pll, the main library)
8. Enter forms to generate, or enter 'all' [all]: FNDSCSGN.fmx
The utility finished with no errors in the log file.
What is the outcome of running the adadmin utility?
A. all forms but one in the product group fnd now render with errors
B. all forms but one in the product group fnd now render without errors
C. all forms in the product group fnd now render with errors
D. all forms in the product group fnd now render without errors
Answer: A
Question 5.
Where can you find the Oracle 8.0.6 and iAS files in the Oracle Applications 11i file system?
A. DB
B. ORA
C. COMN
D. FND_TOP
E. APPL_TOP
Answer: B
Question 6.
You needed to apply patches to the production environment. Applying the patches on the Test environment was successful. When you applied the patches to the Production environment, the patches finished without any errors during the process. However, patch changes were not applied and the patch histories were not changed.
What could be the cause of this situation?
A. The patch was applied in pre-Install mode.
B. The patch was applied inNormal mode.
C. The AutoPatch version is incorrect.
D. The Production database is down.
E. The patch was applied in Test mode.
F. The table for the patch history is full.
Answer: E
Question 7.
What is contained in the FND_APPLICATION_TL table found in the Oracle Applications 11i database?
A. trigger logic for all the Application Object Library (AOL) related tables
B. transaction-load statistics of Application Object Library usage
C. table list of all the Oracle Application Object Library (AOL) objects
D. language translated information about all the applications registered with Application Object
Library
Answer: D
Question 8.
You suddenly start receiving errors indicating that there are numerous Java files in the database that are corrupted and cannot be run. You have determined that you have to reload the Java Virtual Machine (JVM) to fix the errors.
In addition to reloading the JVM, what Oracle database utilities, if any, do you need to run and why? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Reload JAR files to the database, because after reloading the JVM, the Java class files would
be missing.
B. Compile the Menu information, to restore Java menu files to the application forms.
C. Compile the APPS schema, because after the JVM has been reloaded, APPS permissions
need to be reestablished.
D. None of the Oracle database utilities need to be run, because by reloading the JVM, all the
Java file corruption is corrected with the new files loaded during this process.
Answer: A
Question 9.
What is true about Rapid Install?
A. Along with creating Oracle homes, Rapid Install generates new configuration files by using
Autoconfig.
B. Rapid Install can be used to install only the new technology-stack components.
C. Rapid Install can be used to install a new database tier.
D. For an upgrade, Rapid Install installs Oracle 9i RDBMS Oracle home without a database.
E. Rapid Install can be used to set up the file system and configure server processes for an
upgraded system.
F. Rapid Install can be used only for a new installation of Oracle Applications.
Answer: F
Question 10.
In your Oracle Applications 11i EBS implementation, the database is corrupt and to resolve it the database Java Virtual Machine (JVM) was reloaded. Identify the type of problem that may occur and the related correct solution.
A. Problem: Many invalid objects are found in the APPS schema.
Solution: Run the "Validate APPS schema" task by using the adadmin utility.
B. Problem: The Application window does not show any of the Accounts Receivables data.
Solution: Use the "Compile/Reload Applications Database Entities" option from the adadmin
utility.
C. Problem: The Application screen display does not come up with one of the installed language
characters.
Solution: Run the "Convert Character set" task by using the adadmin utility.
D. Problem: All Oracle Applications Java classes are missing.
Solution: Run the "Reload JAR files to the DB" task by using the adadmin utility.
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Review the image, and then answer the question below. You have managed the Dock preferences to define where on the computer screen the Dock will appear for these four accounts:
Lab (a computer group), Science1 (a computer in the Lab computer group), Teachers (a workgroup), and John (a member of the Teachers workgroup).
When John logs in on the Science1 computer, where on the computer screen does the Dock appear?
A. Bottom of the screen
B. Left side of the screen
C. Right side of the screen
D. John will be prompted to choose whether his user preferences or the Teachers workgroup
preferences should be used. The Dock will appear at the location of his choice.
Answer: C
Question 2.
You are setting up a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer to store the home folders for 10 users. The computer has 510 GB of free space on the volume where the home folders reside.
Which of these procedures will ensure that each user has an equal amount of storage space, yet leave at least 10 GB free?
A. In AFP service in Server Admin, select Limit disk usage to, and set the value to 50 GB.
B. In AFP service in Server Admin, select Limit disk usage to, and set the value to 500 GB.
C. In Workgroup Manager, in the Home pane for each user account, set the Disk Quota to 50 GB.
D. In Workgroup Manager, in the Quota pane for a group containing all of the users, set the Limit
to 50 GB.
Answer: C
Question 3.
You have enabled AFP service on your Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. You configured the authentication method as Any. The server will attempt to authenticate file service users using which authentication methods, and in what order?
A. (1) Kerberos; (2) SSH
B. (1) Standard; (2) Kerberos
C. (1) Kerberos; (2) Standard
D. (1) SSH; (2) Standard; (3) Kerberos
E. (1) Standard; (2) Kerberos; (3) SSH
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which utility should you use on a Mac OS X v10.5 computer to create resources, such as rooms and projectors, in an LDAP directory so that those resources can be scheduled by iCal service users?
A. Directory
B. Address Book
C. Directory Utility
D. Directory Access
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which of these is a zone that is configurable from Server Admin?
A. Cache
B. Master
C. Pointer
D. Forward
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which utility can you use to display the status of ticket-granting tickets on a Mac OS X v10.5 computer?
A. Kerberos
B. Server Admin
C. KerberosAgent
D. Keychain Access
E. Directory Utility
F. Certificate Assistant
Answer: A
Question 7.
Your company has a set of site-licensed fonts in a folder named Fonts, on the share point, Resources, on your Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. You are configuring the Resources share point so that these fonts will be automatically accessible by all your Mac OS X users.
After you have enabled the Automount option for the Resources share point, how should you configure the share point in the automount configuration sheet?
A. Choose User home folders.
B. Choose Shared Library folder.
C. Choose Shared Applications folder.
D. Choose Custom mount path and enter ~/Library/Fonts for the path.
Answer: B
Question 8.
What is the maximum number of replicas of one Open Directory master that can be used in a Mac OS X Server v10.5 Open Directory infrastructure?
A. 31
B. 64
C. 256
D. 1024
E. 1056
Answer: E
Question 9.
A MacBook computer running Mac OS X v10.5 was formerly managed, but its managed preferences have been disabled on the server. Still, the user is unable to change some preferences on the MacBook.
Which statement presents a valid method for restoring the users access to these preferences?
A. Delete the /Library/Managed Preferences/ folder.
B. Delete the MCX attributes from the user records in the NetInfo database.
C. Deselect the Managed Accounts option in the Services pane of Directory Utility.
D. Deselect the Managed Accounts option in the Accounts pane of System Preferences.
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which protocol does the iChat service in Mac OS X Server v10.5 use to send messages?
A. IRC (Internet Relay Chat)
B. SMP (Symmetric Messaging Protocol)
C. AIMP (AOL Instant Messaging Protocol)
D. XMPP (Extensible Messaging and Presence Protocol)
Answer: D
Question 11.
Review the image, and then answer the question below. You have specified the applications that will be displayed in the Dock for the Lab computer group, the Science1 computer, which is a member of the Lab computer group, the Teachers workgroup, and for a member of the Teachers workgroup, John, as shown in the image.
When John logs in on the Science1 computer for the first time, which of the applications below will NOT be displayed in the Dock?
A. iMovie
B. Keynote
C. TextEdit
D. QuickTime Player
Answer: D
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Question 1. You are configuring the eri0 network interface using the ifconfig command with the options netmask + and subnet mask 255.255.255.0. # /usr/sbin/ifconfig eri0 netmask + To verify the system is properly set up you issue an ifconfig -a command. You notice that the eri0 network interface has the netmask incorrectly set for 255.255.0.0. Which file do you need to check first? A. /etc/hosts B. /etc/netmasks C. /etc/hostname.eri0 D. /etc/nsswitch.conf Answer: B Question 2. You are installing a StorEdge A3500. You have created 5 LUNS, but after a boot -r can only see one of them in the format output. What should you modify/run to increase the single LUN issue? A. /kernel/drv/rdriver.conf B. /etc/osa/rmparams C. /kernel/drv/sd.conf D. /usr/lib/osa/bin/symconf Answer: C Question 3. You replaced a failed system board on a Sun Fire E20K. The new system board has no memory and needs to be tested. How should you test the new board? A. Add the line ?$GGWKHOLQHno_memory_ok?in the postrc file. B. Use the option -m with hpost command. C. You need memory in a system board to test it. D. Add the line ?$GGWKHOLQHmemory_ok?in the postrc file. Answer: A Question 4. You have completed repairs on a Sun Fire E25K and the next step is to run extended POST to verify the service action. How can you run extended post level 32 on domain A only? A. Enter level 32 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/.postrc file. B. Enter level 32 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/A/.postrc file. C. Enter 2 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/A/.postrc file. D. Enter 2 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/.postrc file. Answer: B Question 5. A customer wants to install four domains on their Sun Fire 6900. What needs to be configured using the setupplatform command on the System Controller? A. COD for all domains B. System controller failover C. ACL's for all domains D. Dual partitioning Answer: D Question 6. You have installed a Sun Enterprise 5500 onto a customer's network. The customer's networking department has told you that you must force the production interface, qfe0, to 100Mbps, Full Duplex. Which two ndd commands will you need to add to your startup script to ensure that your interface is running at the correct settings? (Choose two.) A. ndd -set /dev/qfe autoneg_cap 0 B. ndd -set /dev/qfe adv_100fdx_cap 1 C. ndd -set /dev/qfe link_mode 1 D. ndd -set /dev/qfe 100fdx_cap 1 E. ndd -set /dev/qfe link_speed 1 Answer: A, B Question 7. You install a system to customer specifications and after rebooting you get the following message: NIS server not responding for... retrying The customer tells you that there is a network problem which prevents this machine from reaching the NIS server. You boot the machine into single user mode. What action should you take to allow the system to operate until the NIS server is reachable again? A. Edit /etc/nsswitch.conf so that file is first for all entries and reboot into multiuser mode. B. Copy /etc/nsswitch.files to /etc/nsswitch.conf and reboot into multiuser mode. C. Edit /etc/resolv.conf so that the domain entry is commented out and reboot into multiuser mode. D. Rename /etc/rc2.d/S72inetsvc to /etc/rc2.d/DisabledS72inetsvc and reboot into multiuser mode. Answer: B Question 8. You have performed a setkeyswitch on for domain A on a Sun Fire 6800 where the auto-boot? OBP variable is set to false. What command at the OBP should you run to find the status of the POST? A. show-post-results B. showlog-results C. show-log-results D. showlog results E. showpost-results F. showpost results Answer: A Question 9. A customer has been receiving the following message: unix: WARNING: /tmp: File system full, swap space limit exceeded You are asked to create a swapfile to increase swap space. The swap file specifications are: - File name: swap1 - Destination directory: /delta - Length of swap1: 20 Megabytes Which command should you use to create the swap file? A. mkfile 20m /delta/swap1 B. mkfile -a 20m /delta/swap1 C. swap -a 20m /delta/swap1 D. swap 20m /delta/swap1 Answer: A Question 10. A customer has a number of Sun Fire 25Ks and you need to identify which one to work on. You are in the data center but not at the keyboard. Which command should you ask the customer to run to determine the chassis serial number? A. showplatform B. showcsn C. showenvironment D. showserial Answer: A
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Question 1.
What IE is not mandatory in a Q.931 Service msg?
A. Bearer capability
B. Channel ID
C. Message Type
D. Change Status
E. Call Reference
Answer: A
Question 2.
The purpose of Administrative Distance, as used by Cisco routers, is:
A. To choose between routes from different routing protocols when receiving updates for the
Same network
B. To identify which routing protocol forwarded the update
C. To define the distance to the destination used in deciding the best path
D. To be used only for administrative purposes
Answer: A
Question 3.
What is the maximum PMD value of a 100km fiber segment if the cable is specified with 0.5ps/km? (worst case)?
A. 0.005ps
B. .05ps
C. 5ps
D. 50ps
E. 500ps
Answer: C
Question 4.
What is the equivalent of 50 GHz spacing in DWDM in terms of nm?
A. 1.6 nm
B. 0.8 nm
C. 0.4 nm
D. 0.2 nm
Answer: C
Question 5.
Click the Exhibit to view the topology.
Router A has a 512K-access port into the frame relay cloud. Router B has 128K-access port into the frame relay cloud. The two routers are connected with symmetrical PVCs that are configured for 64K committed information rate (CIR). What Frame Relay Traffic Shaping map-class subcommand should be entered on Router A to prevent workstation A from overrunning the access port on Router B?
A. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 512000
B. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 512000
C. frame-relay traffic-rate 512000 64000
D. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 64000
E. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 128000
Answer: E
Question 6.
If a host sends a TCP segment with the RST flag set, it means:
A. The receiver should send all data in the reassembly buffer to the application receiving it
immediately.
B. The receiver should reset the session.
C. Any routers between the source and destination hosts should reset the state of the connection
in their buffers.
D. The receiver should make certain its send buffer is pushed onto the wire.
Answer: B
Question 7.
How many E1 channels can STM-1 frame transport?
A. 7
B. 21
C. 63
D. 84
Answer: C
Question 8.
BGP can implement a policy of 'Route Dampening' to control route instability.
What statement about route dampening is NOT correct?
A. A numeric penalty is applied to a route each time it flaps.
B. The penalty is exponentially decayed according to parameters, such as halF. life-time.
C. The history of unstable routes is forwarded back to the sender to control future updates.
D. The route is eventually suppressed based on a configurable 'suppress limit'.
Answer: C
Question 9.
MPLS traffic engineering data is carried by:
A. Opaque LSAs or IS-IS TLVs
B. BGPMEDs
C. RTP or RTCP packets
D. MBGP
Answer: A
Question 10.
Click the Exhibit button.
In the diagram, if a resilient packet ring (RPR) is built between ML-series cards,____restoration exists on the ring, while the redundant connections to the 7609 rely on protection.
A. 50ms,STP
B. STP.STP
C. STP, 1+1 APS
D. 50ms, 50ms
Answer: A
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Question 1. What is the primary benefit of the "timE. to-live" field in the IP header? A. To improve buffer utilization B. To reduce the impact of routing loops C. To allow calculation ofrounD. trip delays D. To remind us that all earthly joys are fleeting E. To avoid delivery of packets that are no longer useful Answer: B Question 2. A router interface address is 180.60.45.96 with a mask of 255.255.255.224. What configuration statement A. routerospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 255.255.255.32 area 0 B. routerospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 0.255.255.224 area 0 C. router ospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 0.0.0.31 area 0 D. routerospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 0.0.0.224 area 0 Answer: C Question 3. An IGX-8 identifies itself as an IGX-32 on the configuration screen. What has gone wrong? A. The NPM was originally in an IGX-32. B. Database corruption has occurred. C. The user must physically set a jumper on the SCM to correct this. D. Use thesetnovram command to change the switch type. Answer: C Question 4. In PNNI networks, AESA has the following general format: A. 12-byte network prefix plus a 7-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector B. 11-byte network prefix plus an 8-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector C. 7-byte network prefix plus a 12-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector. D. 13-byte network prefix, a 6-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector Answer: D Question 5. To eliminate the need for adjacent routers on broadcast networks to form n(n-1)/2 adjacencies, ISIS defines a pseudonode or Designated Intermediate System, DIS. All router on the broadcast medium form an adjacency with the DIS. The Backup DIS is called: A. Redundant DIS B. BDR C. There is no concept of a backup DIS in IS-IS D. Designated Redundant System Answer: C Question 6. Cisco/StrataCom (Gang of four) LMI uses what DLCI for messages? A. 0 B. 1023 C. It should be configurable, as per the specification. D. It is negotiated when the ports become active. Answer: B Question 7. Click the Exhibit button to view the topology. Using the above diagram, which are valid BGP AS_Path Attributes received at Net1 for a route originating from AS65100? (multiple answer) A. 200 57000 100 65100 B. 200 57000 100100 C. 100 57000 200 D. 200 57000 100 E. 65100 100 57000 200 Answer: A, D, E Question 8. The default network clocking source in a BPX network is: A. The internal oscillator of the lowest-numbered node B. The internal oscillator of the highest-numbered node C. Each node's own internal oscillator D. The clock chip on the network management system Answer: B Question 9. When using IS-IS for IP routing, Dual IS-IS defined by RFC 1195, what is true? (multiple answer) A. It is necessary to configure a NSAP address. B. it is not possible to perform both IP and CLNS routingwih the same process. C. IP address and subnet information is carried in the TLVfield on the L-1/L-1 LSPs. D. Dual IS-IS does not support VLSM information. Answer: A, C Question 10. What is true about the DLCI field in the Frame Relay header? A. It consists of two portions, source and destination, which map data to a logical channel. B. It generally has significance only between the local switch and the DTE device. C. It is an optional field in the ITU-T specification. D. It is present only in data frames sent through the network. Answer: B
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Question 1.
An entity beans class contains the following method signature:
public Integer ejbCreate (int partNum, String partDescription,
float partCost, String partSupplier) throws CreateException
Which statement is true of the beans ejbCreate() method?
A. AnejbPostCreate() method with the same number and types of parameters must be present in
the beans remote interface.
B. An ejbPostCreate() method with the same method signature must be present in the beans
home interface.
C. An ejbPostCreate() method with tne same numoer and types of parameters must be present in
the beans class.
D. An ejbPostCreate() method with the same method signature must be present in the beans
class.
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which choice defines the term isolation when used to describe the properties of a transaction?
A. Isolation guarantees that a transaction will either result in a new valid system, or the system
will be restored to its original state.
B. Isolation guarantees that a committed transaction will persist despite any type of system
failure.
C. Isolation guarantees that logically related operations are dealt with as a single unit.
D. Isolation guarantees that transactions running at the same time will not have access to each
others partial results.
Answer: D
Question 3.
An EJB client invokes a create() method. An EJB container instantiates an enterprise bean as the result of this method call. The bean is then held in a pool awaiting a method invocation.
To which type of enterprise bean does this process refer?
A. BMP entity bean
B. CMP entity bean
C. Stateless session bean
D. Stateful session bean
Answer: C
Question 4.
A finder method in an entity bean is written to find more than one primary key.
Which statement correctly describes the invocation of this type of ejbFind...() method?
A. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the home object allocates a bean instance
and invokes the corresponding ejbFind...() method. The home object instantiates a remote
object for each primary key, with a collection of remote references returned to the client.
B. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the home object allocates a bean instance
And invokes the corresponding ejbFind...() method. The home object instantiates a collection
of remote objects for each primary key, with individual remote references returned to the client.
C. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the remote object invokes the corresponding
ejbFind...() method. The remote object then returns a collection of remote references to the
client.
D. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the home object allocates a bean instance
and invokes the corresponding ejbFind...() method. The home object instantiates a collection of
primary key references and returns them to the client.
Answer: A
Question 5.
The ejbRemove() method for an enterprise bean contains the following line of code:
prepStmt = dbConn.prepareStatement ("DELETE FROM MyTable WHERE MyKey = ?");
What type of enterprise bean might this be?
A. Stateful session bean
B. BMP entity bean
C. CMP entity bean
D. Stateless session bean
Answer: A, B, D
Question 6.
Which statement correctly describes CMP entity beans and finder methods?
A. The beans class should contain empty ejbFind() methods with corresponding find() methods
defined in the remote interface.
B. The beans class should not contain ejbFind() methods; empty find() methods are defined in the
home interface.
C. The beans class should not contain ejbFind() methods; empty find() methods are defined in
the remote interface.
D. The beans class should contain empty ejbFind() methods with corresponding find() methods
defined in the home interface.
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which client application could benefit from the use of a callback object?
A. A Java Micro Edition application that notifies the user of a hand. held computer when traffic
conditions have improved along a given freeway
B. A Java applet that allows users to send an E. mail message to the quality control department
C. A Java application used by police officers in the field to retrieve vehicle registration information
from a remote database by supplying a complete or partial license plate number
D. A Java applet that retrieves a map image when given a street address
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which statement correctly describes the EJBContext interface?
A. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to find, create and remove
enterprise beans.
B. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to ascertain information about
runtime status for enterprise beans.
C. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to obtain metadata for enterprise
beans.
D. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to obtain network references to
enterprise beans.
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which type of factory object returns references to objects that reside within the same process as the factory object?
A. Out-process
B. Generic
C. Specific
D. In-process
Answer: D
Question 10.
Which statement correctly describes the EJBHome interface?
A. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces, which provide methods to create,
find and remove enterprise beans.
B. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces, which provide a clients view of an
enterprise bean.
C. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces and is the common superinterface
for the SessionBean and EntityBean interfaces.
D. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces, which the container uses to inform
enterprise beans about life cycle events.
Answer: A
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Question 1.
With regard to databases, what is normalization?
A. The process of reducing the cardinality of a relation
B. The process of organizing and refining relations
C. The process of duplicating data to reduce the number of tables
D. The process of limiting data stored in a table to a specific range of values
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which three pieces of information did E.F. Codd describe as necessary to retrieve a data value from a relational database?
A. Attribute, domain, and tuple
B. Entity, relation name, and domain
C. Table name, primary key, and entity
D. Attribute, relation name, and primary key
Answer: D
Question 3.
What is a virtual table?
A. A virtual table is a relation created as the result of data manipulation; it exists only in computer
memory, and is not a permanent part of the database.
B. A virtual table is a relation stored in the database; it is used when multiple users access the
same relation in a database.
C. A virtual table is a relation derived from the database data dictionary; it contains metadata
about a base relation. A virtual table is a relation derived from the database?data dictionary; it
contains metadata about a base relation.
D. A virtual table is a relation that consists of primary and foreign keys for a particular set of
relations in a database.
Answer: A
Question 4.
Your enterprise has reached the conceptual design phase for a database project.
What is the desired goal at the end of this design phase?
A. A set of normalized relations
B. A reviewed entity-relationship (ER) model
C. An entity-relationship (ER) model with no redundant data
D. A set of denormalized relations
Answer: B
Question 5.
In which phase of database design do you identify entities, attribute domains, and relationships?
A. Logical
B. Physical
C. Application
D. Conceptual
Answer: D
Question 6.
Consider the Dept1_Parts and Dept2_Parts relations shown in the exhibit.
Which of the following SQL statements would create a set difference of the two relations with the widest variety of Structured Query Language dialects?
A. SELECT * FROM
Dept1_Parts
EXCEPT(SELECT
PartJD FROM
Dept2_Parts);
B. SELECT * FROM
Dept1_Parts MINUS
(SELECT Part_ID
FROM Dept2_Parts);
C. SELECT * FROM
Dept1_Parts
DIFFERENCE
(SELECT Part_ID
FROM Dept2_Parts);
D. SELECT * FROM
Dept1_Parts WHERE
Part_ID NOT IN
(SELECT Part_ID FROM
Dept2_Parts);
Answer: D
Question 7.
CORRECT TEXT
Consider the Information Engineering diagram shown in the exhibit. Building_ID, R_ID, Room_Count and Room_Num are integer numbers, whereas Bldg_Name, Location and Res_Name are all represented by variable-length strings with a maximum of 20 characters.
Which SQL statement best implements the RESIDENT relation shown in this diagram?
Answer: CREATE TABLE RESIDENT (
Room_Num, Res_Name, BuildingJD NOT NULL, FOREIGN KEY
R_ID NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
BuildingJDREFERENCES BUILDING(BuildingJD));
RoomJMum, ResJMame,
BuildingJD NOT NULL);
Answer: CREATE TABLE RESIDENT( RJD
INTEGER NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
Room_Num INTEGER, ResJMame
VARCHAR (20), BuildingJD INTEGER NOT
NULL);
Answer: CREATE TABLE RESIDENT( RJD INTEGER NOT NULL
PRIMARY KEY, Room_Num INTEGER, ResJMame VARCHAR (20),
BuildingJD INTEGER NOT NULL, FOREIGN KEY BuildingJD
REFERENCES BUILDING (BuildingJD));
Answer: Pending
Question 8.
Which term describes one or more database operations that are executed as a single unit?
A. Update
B. Transaction
C. Encapsulation
D. Operational group
Answer: B
Question 9.
Your enterprise is involved in planning a database project. The exhibit shows the result of one phase of the database design life cycle.
Which term best describes the diagram shown in the exhibit?
A. Information Engineering (IE) data model
B. Corporate data model
C. Database requirements model
D. ERD model
Answer: B
Question 10.
Consider the following relations shown in the exhibit.
Which of the following SQL statements would return the Customers2 relation from the Customers relation?
A. SELECT * FROM Customers
WHERE Satisfaction_Rate <= 80
OR Satisfaction_Rate >= 90;
B. SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE
Satisfaction_Rate IN (80 AND 90);
C. SELECT'FROM Customers
WHERE Satisfaction_Rate >= 80
AND Satisfaction_Rate <= 89;
D. SELECT * FROM
Customers WHERE
Satisfaction_Rate
BETWEEN (80, 90);
Answer: C
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Question 1.
An administrator currently has Secure Gateway and web interface on the same server in the DMZ. After learning about Access Gateway, the administrator decided to purchase two units for redundancy that will be located in the DMZ and implement the increased functionality that Access Gateway offers. Two new Interface servers will be introduced.
Where should the administrator place the web interface servers?
A. Both Web Interface servers should be placed in the DMZ
B. One Web interface server should be placed on the internal network and one web interface
server should be placed on the external network
C. Both Web Interface servers should be placed on the internal network
D. One web interface server should be placed in the DMZ and one web interface server should
Be placed on the internal network
Answer: C
Explanation:
When you remove Secure Gateway from the DMZ and replace it with the Access Gateway, you can move the Web Interface to your internal secure network. The Access Gateway authenticates and authorizes users and then connects to the Web Interface. This provides greater security because there are two fewer Windows servers in the DMZ. (Installation Guide p.102)
Question 2.
An administrator decided to make a number of video-based training packages available to the Finance department through Citrix XenApp. The Citrix XenApp farm silo's its applications and all Finance Applications are in the Finance Application silo. Other application silos include Technical, Sales and workflow.
Where can an administrator enable multimedia optimization for the finance training applications?
A. A policy applied to all finance users
B. Server properties
C. Server farm properties
D. A policy applied to all servers in the finance application silo
Answer: B
Explanation:
All SpeedScreen Options are configured on a Per server or Per Farm Basis using the Properties Page of the Fram or each individual Server. Exceptions here are the SpeedScreen Latency Reduction (Done on a Per Server Basis using the "SpeedScreen Latency Reduction Manager") And SpeedScreen Image Acceleration (Done using Policies). In this case it would be the server Properties because the settings need to beapplied only for the finance app and they have their 2 own Application silo.
Question 3.
What should an administrator use to confirm the name of a Citrix License Server?
A. The hostname command in a command prompt
B. The basic information screen in the Windows 2008 system applet
C. The query command in a command prompt
D. The server information screen in the Access Management Console
Answer: A
Explanation:
The command hostname is correct. This is the easiest way to identify what hostname a server is currently using.
Question 4.
A single web interface server named xenappweb1.mycompany.com is currently being leveraged to host applications for Citrix users through HTTP. For additional redundancy and security as equired by management, a second web interface server named xenappweb2.mycompany.com will be made available and load-balanced with a hardware load balancer and SSL will be used to secure all traffic to the web interface servers.
In order to configure the environment to meet the requirements defined above, which three statements are valid configuration steps? (Choose three.)
A. Create a new load balancing group on the load balancer that contains the web interface sites
from each web interface server that are to be load balanced
B. Create a new DNS entry for xenapp.mycompany.com and assign it the IP Address of the VIP
on the hardware load balancer
C. Install a root certificate on each web interface server that matches the certificate on the load
balancer
D. Create a new CNAME alias a DNS for xenapp.mycompany.com and add both web interface
server names to the record for load balancing
E. Install a separate SSL certificate on each server that matches the FQDN of each server
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:
Creating a CNAME Allias would be a valid way of doing things if you did not have Hardware load balancer. This would round Robin connections to each WebServer using DNS Round Robining. Installing a seperate SSL Certificate matching the FQDN for each server would result in Certificate errors in the Browser because the initial connection would be to the load balancer and that has a different FQDN.
Question 5.
An administrator configured a session bandwidth policy. The administrator set a maximum bandwidth rule of 200 Kbps and placed a 50 Kbps and a 30% restriction on the audio channel. The effective bandwidth for the audio channel will be _______________ kbps? (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. 50
B. 60
C. 15
D. 200
Answer: A
Explanation:
50 is lower than 30% (which would be 60) so the 50 is what will be the effective limit as both have been defined but 50 would be reached first. Default full load is 90% and default no load is 10%
Question 6.
To which Citrix service does Web Interface forward a user's logon credentials?
A. MFCOM
B. Independent Management Architecture
C. WMI
D. XML
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Citrix Web Interface communicates only with the XML Service on the Xenapp Server. This is by default port 80 or 443 if SSL ecryption is configured. It may be changed however if the need arises.
Question 7.
How can an administrator turn off a policy rule without having to edit every policy that contains that rule?
A. Lower the priority of the policy
B. Change the Policy to deny
C. Delete the Policy
D. Change the rule in the highest priority policy to disabled
Answer: D
Explanation:
Rules in a higher ranked policy override the same rules in a lower ranked policy. (Course Ware p.349)
Question 8.
The Citrix License Management Console runs on which two supported web servers? (Choose two.)
A. Sun Java System Web Server
B. Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS)
C. Apache HTTP Server
D. IBM HTTP server
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
The License Management Console runs as a Web service. Configure a Web service-either Apache or IIS-before you install the License Management Console. (Citrix eDocs on Licensing: Licensing Your Product->Getting Started with Citrix Licensing->Prerequisites->Configuring a Web Service)
Question 9.
An administrator wants to provide access to a group of help desk users to manage sessions remotely on a server.
Which two options are the most secure ways of solving this issue using the least privilege security model? (Choose two.)
A. Assign only the administrative rights required within the Access Management Console
B. Assign only the administrative rights required within the XenApp Advanced Configuration Tool
C. Instruct the help desk users to install the XenApp Advanced Configuration tool and manage
sessions from their workstation
D. Instruct the help desk users to install the Access Management Console and manage sessions
from their workstation
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
Almost all Managemnt Tasks have been moved to the Acces Managment Console in Xenapp 5.0. Th Advanced Configuarion Tool (Perviously the CMC) only handels Policies, zone and Printer Features now.
Question 10.
Several new policies were recently created in a Citrix XenApp farm. A user has called stating that he cannot see client drivers or printers when connecting to the farm since the polices were implemented.
What could an administrator use to determine which policies are conflicting?
A. Policies Search Engine
B. Report Center
C. Event Viewer
D. Diagnostic Facility
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Policy search engine can be used to see a resultant set of Policies based on Criteria that the admin can define in the search. The first step when trouble shooting Policies should always be to use the Policy Search Engine to view the resultant policy.
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Question 1.
Identify two descriptive flexfield components whose values are used to determine contexts. (Choose two.)
A. the Context field
B. global segments
C. the Reference field
D. context-sensitive segments
Answer: A, C
Question 2.
ABC Corp. is running on 11 i Oracle Applications and wants to ensure that supply records of one supplier are not visible to another supplier.
Which action will meet the requirement?
A. by securing attributes for each supplier
B. by excluding attributes for individual suppliers
C. by assigning the same attribute value for VENDOR_CONTACT_ID
D. by assigning a separate attribute value for INTERNAL_CONTACT_ID
Answer: A
Question 3.
Identify two correct statements regarding Function Security. (Choose two.)
A. defines access controls through roles
B. is built on the Role Based Access Control layer
C. is the base layer of Access Control in Oracle Applications
D. restricts user access to individual menus and menu options
E. restricts user access to data within menus and menu options
Answer: C, D
Question 4.
Identify three features of Data Groups. (Choose three.)
A. Multiple data groups can be assigned to a Menu.
B. Multiple data groups can be assigned to a Responsibility.
C. A data group identifies the Oracle username that a form connects to when a Responsibility is
selected.
D. Data groups can be used to support multiple installations of an Oracle Applications product
That supports multiple sets of books.
E. Concurrent managers use a data group to identify the application that owns a report or
concurrent program.
Answer: C, D, E
Question 5.
Which two statements are true regarding ownership of shared entities? (Choose two.)
A. Customers is owned by Oracle Human Resources whereas Locations is owned by Oracle
Receivables.
B. Items is owned by Oracle Purchasing whereas Locations is owned by Oracle Receivables.
C. Sales Force is owned by Oracle Order Management whereas Employees is owned by Oracle
Human Resources.
D. Set of books is owned by Oracle General Ledger whereas Locations is owned by Oracle
Human Resources.
E. Suppliers is owned by Oracle Purchasing whereas Units of Measure is owned by Oracle
Inventory.
Answer: D, E
Question 6.
Which two options would you use to restrict the functionality provided by a responsibility? (Choose two.)
A. creating an appropriate role
B. creating an appropriate group
C. constructing a new menu hierarchy
D. defining rules to exclude specific functions
Answer: C, D
Question 7.
A value set has the validation type set to "Independent." When a user enters a partial segment value, the list of values then retrieves all available values. Identify the List Type attribute.
A. poplist
B. list ofvalues
C. long listofvalues
D. poplist and list ofvalues
Answer: C
Question 8.
As a system administrator for ABC Corp. you are required to notify the sales manager as soon as a customer's shipment gets processed.
How might you do this?
A. through an Event Alert
B. through a Periodic Alert
C. by configuring the Workflow Engine
D. by configuring the Application server
Answer: A
Question 9.
Identify three features of Oracle Workflow builder. (Choose three.)
A. monitors workflows
B. runs on Linux platform
C. saves workflow definition as a flat file
D. defines and customizes workflow definitions
E. has Navigator tree and Process diagram as its components
Answer: C, D, E
Question 10.
XYZ Corp. is in the business of manufacturing cosmetics. It obtains and pays for raw materials.
Which business flow in Oracle E-Business Suite would map to the above activities of obtaining and paying for raw materials?
A. Order to Cash
B. Procure to Pay
C. Forecast to Plan
D. Demand to Build
E. Contract to Renewal
Answer: B
Question 11.
ABC Corp. has implemented Oracle Manufacturing applications.
How is the data in these applications partitioned?
A. by Application
B. by Legal Entity
C. by Operating Unit
D. by Business Group
E. by Inventory Organization
Answer: E
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