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Braindumps for "1D0-410" Exam

Who is the really for

 I am currently studying with the 'Official CIW Self-Study Suite' purchased from SmartCertify. I have checked out the Sybex self-study book endorsed by ProsoftTraining. It is approx 50 dollars, the SmartCertify is ALOT more. I have been developing web pages for over a year now. HTML401, CSS, JavaScript, VBScript, and ASP. I thought the CIW certification would be right up my alley..

Well, the CIW Foundations test is not just web development it is an INTERNETWORKING Webmaster certification... Are you Networthy has taken on a new meaning to me! 

The Internet Fundamentals covers areas from how to set a security within the main browser types, to knowing the URLs for goverment agency websites, to project management.. and more.

The Web Authoring (which is my strong area) covers HTML 4.01 new specs to the old HTML 3.2 specs, it covers all the and the attibutes of each, and the book finishes off with explanations of DOM, XML.. etc.

The Networking Fundamentals (WHAT A WAKE UP CALL) if you want to just develop web pages and don't want to deal with networking.. THEN FORGET THIS CERTIFICATION. This will definitely filter out the "REAL" internet webmaster and the diddle daddlers.. You'll have to know everything from the OSI/RM, topologies, IEEE standards, RFC numbers, how IP addressing works, to even the different firewall topologies that can be implemented!

I am currently creating spreadsheets and documents for my personal studies that I will make available upon request. I have the CIW Master Designer and the CIW Master Administrator in my sights, so I'll have study material for them soon as well.



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Braindumps: Dumps for 642-355 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "642-355" Exam

Cisco Storage Networking Design Specialist

 Question 1.
What should you do to allow iSCSI hosts on multiple subnets to connect to a single GigE interface on an IPS module?

A. Configure QoS on the IPS module iSCSI interface
B. Configure QoS on the IPS module GigE interface
C. Configure multiple VSANs on the IPS module iSCSI interface
D. Configure VLAN subinterface on the IPS module GigE interface

Answer:  D

Question 2.
What is the definition of fan-in ratio as it applies to SANs?

A. The ratio of storage ports to a single host port
B. The amount of aggregation port bandwidth in the path from storage port to host port
C. The amount of aggregate bandwidth of ISLs in the path from host port to storage port
D. The ratio of host ports that need to access a single storage port

Answer:  D

Question 3.
You are implementing an FCIP solution for SAN extension between tow data centers using the CISCO MDS 9000 platform. For redundancy, there are two Metro Ethernet paths between the data centers. 

How can you specify the primary and secondary path for each FCIP tunnel?

A. Configure EIGRP routing on the IPS-8
B. Configure OSPF routing on the IPS-8
C. Configure QoS on the IPS-8
D. Configure static routes on the IPS-8

Answer:  D

Question 4.
Which two items are necessary when implementing a highly available SAN design? (Choose two.)

A. Nondisruptive upgrades
B. Redundant hardware
C. Real-time fabric monitoring
D. Localized data backups
E. Traffic engineering and QoS

Answer:  A, B

Question 5.
Select three characteristics of the Cisco Coarse wave division multiplexing (CWDM) solution. (Choose three.)

A. Supports a maximum connection length of 220 kilometers
B. Can be optically amplified to extend the distance characteristics
C. Requires OADMs (Optical add/drop multiplexers) to aggregate multiple wavelengths across 
    the same fiber pair
D. Multiplexes up to eight wavelengths across a single fiber pair
E. Supports both linear and ring topologies

Answer:  C, D, E

Question 6.
Which of these provides fabric-based virtualization for multiple independent software vendors?

A. Multiprotocol Services module
B. Cisco MDS 9513 Supervisor 2
C. Cisco MDS 9000 32-port 1/2 -Gbps Fibre Channel Module
D. Storage Services Module (SSM)

Answer:  D

Question 7.
Which SAN extension topology is a low-latency, cost effective, high-bandwidth solution that is suitable only within a limited geographical area?

A. FCIP
B. DWDM
C. SONET/SDH
D. CDWM

Answer:  D

Question 8.
What is the principal cost advantage of a collapsed core SAN design compared to a core-edge design if each connects the same number of host and storage ports?

A. Fewer long-wave SFPs
B. Fewer director-class switches
C. Fewer ISL connections
D. Fewer domains on the domain list
E. Fewer hops for a given exchange

Answer:  C

Question 9.
Which two kinds of applications require substained throughput and are sensitive to latency? (Choose two.)

A. Synchronous replication
B. Asynchronous replication
C. Email
D. OLTP
E. Tape Backup

Answer:  A, E

Question 10.
Which three solutions would be suitable for data replication between two data centers separated by 450 km? (Choose three.)

A. Dark Fiber
B. CWDM
C. iSCSI over SONET/SDH
D. DWDM
E. FCIP over SONET/SDH
F. FCIP Over Routed IP network

Answer:  D, E, F


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Braindumps: Dumps for 1Y0-A09 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "1Y0-A09" Exam

Implementing Citrix XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0

 Question 1.
An administrator created a template of a Microsoft Windows XP SP3 virtual machine (VM) and now needs to modify it. 

How can the administrator modify the template?

A. Export the template from the XenServer host, import it to another system, power it on and 
    Make the changes
B. Power on the VM template, make the changes and save the template
C. Create a new VM based on the original template, make the changes to the new VM and turn 
    the new VM into the new template
D. Put the XenServer host in Maintenance mode, make the changes to the VM template and then 
    exit Maintenance Mode

Answer: C

Question 2.
Which step requires an administrator to enable maintenance mode on a XenServer host?

A. Creating Fibre Channel storage repositories
B. Enabling high availability
C. Creating NIC bonds
D. Enabling storage multipathing

Answer: D

Question 3.
Which storage repository type allows an administrator to create a new storage repository that does not erase any existing data on the specified storage target?

A. EQUAL
B. NFS
C. EXT
D. NetApp

Answer: B

Question 4.
What must an administrator configure on the pool master to allow migration of virtual machines (VMs) between servers in the pool?

A. Shared Storage
B. NIC bond
C. High availability
D. Management Interface

Answer: A

Question 5.
Which is a valid MAC address?

A. 6A:70:A0:5E:D0
B. 255.255.255.255
C. 6A:70:A0:5E:D0:04
D. 127.0.0.1

Answer: C

Question 6.
DRAG DROP
An administrator needs to connect a network to an external VLAN using the command line interface (CLI). Click the Task button to place the steps necessary to connect a network to an external VLAN using the CLI in the correct order. Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item.
 

Answer:
 

Question 7.
DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to place the steps in the correct order for an administrator to configure multipathing using XenCenter. Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item. 

What is the correct order of steps for the configuration of multipathing using XenCenter?
 

Answer:
 

Question 8.
Which two XenServer CLI commands are valid? (Choose two.)

A. Pool-ha-enable
B. Pool-backup
C. Pool-recover-slaves
D. Pool-create-pool

Answer: A, C

Question 9.
An administrator recently created an ISO library for a XenServer environment. The administrator now wants to make the ISO library available to all XenServer hosts. 

What must the administrator do before the ISO library can be attached using XenCenter?

A. Copy the ISO library to the control domain
B. Build a directory to copy the ISO library into
C. Make an exploded network repository using FTP
D. Create an external NFS or CIFS share directory

Answer: D

Question 10.
An organization has a single installation of XenServer Enterprise Edition 4.0. The administrator plans to upgrade the host to version 5.0. 

Which upgrade path should the administrator take?

A. Upgrade XenCenter to 5.0 and use the Updates Manager
B. Upgrade directly from version 4.0 to version 5.0
C. Upgrade to version 4.1 and then upgrade to version 5.0
D. Upgrade the XenServer using Emergency Mode

Answer: C


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Braindumps: Dumps for 1Y0-A11 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "1Y0-A11" Exam

Basic Administration for Citrix NetScaler 9.0

 Question 1.
An administrator should configure Link Aggregation on a 7000 NetScaler system when __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)

A. redundancy on a half duplex operation is required
B. redundancy on an operation across multiple data rates is required
C. the bandwidth requirements inbound to or outbound from the Netscaler are greater than 1 
    Gb/sec
D. the bandwidth requirements inbound to or outbound from the Netscaler are greater than  8 
    Gb/sec

Answer: C

Question 2.
Scenario: An administrator must set up a NetScaler system network with USIP mode enabled. The NetScaler must be able to preserve client IP addresses in TCP/IP packets reaching the backend servers except for connections coming from particular IP addresses that are defined in an ACL. In the case of connections coming from the IP addresses defined in the ACL, the packets reaching the back-end servers should receive the NetScaler IP address instead of the client IP address. 

On which entity should RNAT be configured to meet the requirements in this scenario according to best practices?

A. ACL
B. Client
C. Virtual server
D. Back-end server

Answer: A

Question 3.
How can an administrator configure a health check for a server receiving HTTP traffic so that it monitors the responses of the server to actual client requests as opposed to probes whenever possible?

A. Use the default TCP monitor
B. Configure an HTTP-ECV monitor
C. Configure an HTTP-Inline monitor
D. Use the TCP monitor with the transparent parameter selected
E. Configure an HTTP monitor with the transparent parameter selected

Answer: C

Question 4.
An administrator configured cache redirection and needs to provide a report of how that feature is functioning in the network environment. 

What can the administrator use to see a graphical representation of the statistics for the vserver performing the cache redirection?

A. The monitor view for the service bound to the correct vserver
B. The chart option in the Dashboard once the correct vserver is selected
C. The chart option in the Dashboard for the service bound to the correct vserver
D. The request and response rates option in the Dashboard oncete correct vserver is selected

Answer: B

Question 5.
Page 2 of 24
An administrator has just enabled caching and wants to make sure that this will positively impact server performance. 

Which information can the administrator get from the Dashboard to determine whether server performance was positively affected by enabling caching?

A. Client connection count increases
B. Server side request rate increases
C. Client connection count decreases
D. Server side request rate decreases

Answer: D

Question 6.
An SNMP manager attempted to poll for an OID but received the error message: "response timeout." 

Which option could the administrator have misconfigured for SNMPv2 to cause this error message?

A. SNMP trap
B. SNMP user
C. SNMP group
D. SNMP community

Answer: D

Question 7.
Which SNMP trap must an administrator configure to be informed when the response time for a monitor probe that had exceeded the set threshold returns to normal?

A. entityup
B. entitydown
C. monRespTimeoutAboveThresh
D. monRespTimeoutBelowThresh

Answer: D

Question 8.
Scenario: An administrator needs to create a health check that will mark an HTTP service down if the bound monitor probe fails. The administrator wants to create a monitor and configure the health check so that a trap is sent if the monitor probe reply exceeds 20 milliseconds. 

How can the administrator create the monitor for this health check using the command line interface?

A. setmon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -interval 20 milli
B. add lbmon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -interval 20 milli
C. setmon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -resptimeout 20 milli
D. add lbmon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -resptimeout 20 milli

Answer: D

Question 9.
Scenario: An administrator is planning on configuring health checks for services bound to web servers 1 and 2 which are listening on TCP port 80 for HTTP and TCP port 443 for HTTPS. Service1 receives the encrypted traffic and Service 2 receives the clear text traffic. 

How should the administrator create the monitor for Service1 using the command line interface?

A. setmon monitor-SVC1-Mon TCP -secure YES
B. add lbmon monitor-SVC1-Mon HTTP -secure YES
C. setmon monitor-SVC1-Mon HTTP -transparent NO
D. add lbmon monitor-SVC1-Mon TCP -transparent NO

Answer: B

Question 10.
DRAG DROP
Scenario: A multinational company operates in areas where there is significant threat of natural disaster. The administrator decides to create redundancy in their network because of a continuous power outage threat at the South America site. The company also has two sites in North America, one near New York and the other near the San Andreas fault line, a site of frequent earthquakes and tremors. The company also has a site in Tokyo, Japan, which experiences several natural disaster threats. The company plans to use a NetScaler system for load balancing and to prevent interruption of network services because of a local natural or human disaster. 

Would a high availability (HA) deployment resolve the issue described in the scenario, and if so, how should the HA nodes be paired?
Click the Task button to answer.
Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item.
 

Answer:
 

Question 11.
Where in the configuration utility can an administrator configure a NetScaler high availability pair to ensure that specific interfaces are NOT monitored?

A. The root of the System node
B. The root of the Network node
C. The interface sub node in the System node
D. The interface sub node in the Network node

Answer: D


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Braindumps: Dumps for 3M0-331 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "3M0-331" Exam

3Com WAN Specialist Final Exam v2.0

 Question 1.
What Class D IP address range is reserved for Multicast packets?

A. 224.0.0.0 through 239.0.0.0
B. 224.255.255.255 through 239.255.255.255
C. 222.0.0.0 through 224.255.255.255
D. 224.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255

Answer: D

Question 2.
What is the correct order of attribute comparison for local BGP route selection?

A. Local preference, then AS path, then origin type, then MED value
B. Origin type, then MED value, then local preference, then AS path
C. AS path, then local preference, then origin type, then MED value
D. MED value, then origin type, then local preference, then AS path

Answer: A

Question 3.
Which two is true of Line Rate? (Choose two.)

A. It limits the rate of input of all classified traffic on an interface
B. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Shaping
C. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Policing
D. It limits the rate of input of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification
E. It limits the rate of output of all classified traffic on an interface
F. It limits the rate of output of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification

Answer: B, F

Question 4.
Which of the following is not an OSPF packet type?

A. Link-state request
B. Hello
C. Database description
D. Goodbye
E. Link-state acknowledgment

Answer: D

Question 5.
Which 3COM router supports both SIC and MIM modules?

A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 6040
D. 5682
E. 6080

Answer: B

Question 6.
Which type of Virtual Circuits does the Router 6000 family support?

A. PVCs only
B. SVCs only
C. PVCs and SVCs

Answer: A

Question 7.
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, which is NOT provided by Application Specific Packet Filtering (ASPF)?

A. Defense against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks
B. Site and content blocking
C. Enhanced session logging
D. Java Blocking
E. Support for Port to Application Mapping (PAM)

Answer: B

Question 8.
Which three are true of traditional, best-effort forwarding? (Choose three.)

A. All applications are equally likely to be affected by congestion
B. Queuing of packets is first in, first out (FIFO)
C. All packets have equal rights to network resources
D. Packets using TCP are less likely to dropped than packets using UDP
E. Packets from a higher performance NIC are less likely to be dropped

Answer: A, B, C

Question 9.
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)

A. Dynamic Security Link
B. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
C. Network Address Translation (NAT)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
E. IP Security (IPSec)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

Answer: B, D, E

Question 10.
In software version 2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, a Low Latency Queue has been added to one of the other queuing mechanisms, to better support delay-sensitive applications. 

Which is the queuing mechanism that has been enhanced in this way?

A. FIFO Queuing
B. Weighted Fair Queuing
C. Class Based Queuing
D. Fair Queuing
E. Priority Queuing
F. Custom Queuing

Answer: C


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Braindumps: Dumps for 156-515 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "156-515" Exam

Check Point Certified Security Expert Plus NGX

 Question 1.
Which files should be acquired from a Windows 2003 Server system crash with a Dr. Watson error?

A. drwtsn32.log
B. vmcore.log
C. core.log
D. memory.log
E. info.log

Answer: A

Question 2.
VPN debugging information is written to which of the following files?

A. FWDIR/log/ahttpd.elg
B. FWDIR/log/fw.elg
C. $FWDIR/log/ike.elg
D. FWDIR/log/authd.elg
E. FWDIR/log/vpn.elg

Answer: C

Question 3.
fw monitor packets are collected from the kernel in a buffer. 

What happens if the buffer becomes full?

A. The information in the buffer is saved and packet capture continues, with new data stored in 
    the buffer.
B. Older packet information is dropped as new packet information is added.
C. Packet capture stops.
D. All packets in it are deleted, and the buffer begins filling from the beginning.

Answer: D

Question 4.
Which file provides the data for the host_table output, and is responsible for keeping a record of all internal IPs passing through the internal interfaces of a restricted hosts licensed Security Gateway?

A. hosts.h
B. external.if
C. hosts
D. fwd.h
E. fwconn.h

Answer: D

Question 5.
You modified the *def file on your Security Gateway, but the changes were not applied. Why?

A. There is more than one *.def file on the Gateway.
B. You did not have the proper authority.
C. *.def files must be modified on the SmartCenter Server.
D. The *.def file on the Gateway is read-only.

Answer: C

Question 6.
Assume you have a rule allowing HTTP traffic, on port 80, to a specific Web server in a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ). 

If an external host port scans the Web server's IP address, what information will be revealed?

A. Nothing; the NGX Security Server automatically block all port scans.
B. All ports are open on the Security Server.
C. All ports are open on the Web server.
D. The Web server's file structure is revealed.
E. Port 80 is open on the Web server.

Answer: E

Question 7.
Which of the following types of information should an Administrator use tcpdump to view?

A. DECnet traffic analysis
B. VLAN trunking analysis
C. NAT traffic analysis
D. Packet-header analysis
E. AppleTalk traffic analysis

Answer: D

Question 8.
Which statement is true for route based VPNs?

A. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each gateway
B. Route-based VPNs replace domain-based VPNs
C. Route-based VPNs are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain
D. Packets are encrypted or decrypted automatically
E. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required

Answer: E

Question 9.
The list below provides all the actions Check Point recommends to troubleshoot a problem with an NGX product.

A. List Possible Causes
B. Identify the Problem
C. Collect Related Information
D. Consult Various Reference Sources
E. Test Causes Individually and Logically

Select the answer that shows the order of the recommended actions that make up Check Point's troubleshooting guidelines?

A. B, C, A, E, D
B. A, E, B, D, C
C. A, B, C, D, E
D. B, A, D, E, C
E. D, B, A, C, E

Answer: A

Question 10.
NGX Wire Mode allows:

A. Peer gateways to establish a VPN connection automatically from predefined preshared 
    secrets.
B. Administrators to verify that each VPN-1 SecureClient is properly configured, before allowing it 
    access to the protected domain.
C. Peer gateways to fail over existing VPN traffic, by avoiding Stateful Inspection.
D. Administrators to monitor VPN traffic for troubleshooting purposes.
E. Administrators to limit the number of simultaneous VPN connections, to reduce the traffic load 
    passing through a Security Gateway.

Answer: C



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Braindumps for "270-131" Exam

Certified Unicenter Specialist Administrator

 Question 1.
What field in the Message Record contains the pattern that is matched against the Event Console Messages?

A. Description Field
B. Message ID
C. Sequence Number
D. Token Number

Answer: B

Question 2.
Workload Management can submit jobs to:

A. Servers that have Workload Agent installed
B. Servers that have Workload Agent installed and are defined as Stations by the Workload 
    Manager
C. Any Unicenter Server
D. Servers that have Workload Server installed and are defined as Stations by the Workload 
    Agent

Answer: B

Question 3.
SNMP relies on which transport from the TCP/IP protocol suite?

A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. TCP
D. UDP

Answer: D

Question 4.
The Unicenter 2D and 3D Maps visually represent system, database, and application resources.

They are in which component of the WorldView Layer?

A. Common Object Repository
B. Real World Interface
C. WorldView Application Programming Interface
D. WorldView Gateway

Answer: B

Question 5.
What Unicenter NSM Classic tool is used to customize Classes in the COR?

A. Nodeview
B. Class Wizard
C. DSM Wizard
D. Object View

Answer: B

Question 6.
Communication between the SNMP Administrator and Agents is routed through which component?

A. Common Object Repository
B. Distributed Services Bus
C. Distributed State Machine
D. Finite State Machine

Answer: B

Question 7.
What must be installed before WorldView that includes a local repository?

A. Agent components
B. DSM components
C. Microsoft SQL Client
D. Microsoft SQL Server

Answer: D

Question 8.
What are the three conceptual layers within Unicenter NSM? (Choose three.)

A. Agent Technology Layer
B. Application Management Layer
C. Manager Layer
D. Internet Control Layer
E. Network Management Layer
F. WorldView Layer

Answer: A, C, F

Question 9.
When installing Microsoft SQL Server in a Unicenter NSM environment, what network protocol must be installed for a routed environment?

A. Banyan VINES
B. Named Pipe only
C. NWLink IPX/SPX
D. TCP/IP Sockets

Answer: D

Question 10.
CCI provides communication between which Unicenter NSM components?

A. Agent Technologies Components
B. Enterprise Management Components
C. Unicenter Agents
D. WorldView Gateway and the Common Object Repository

Answer: B


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Braindumps: Dumps for 312-49 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "312-49" Exam

ECCouncil Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator

 Question 1.
When an investigator contacts by telephone the domain administrator or controller listed by a whois lookup to request all e-mails sent and received for a user account be preserved, what U.S.C. statute authorizes this phone call and obligates the ISP to preserve e-mail records?

A. Title 18, Section 1030
B. Title 18, Section 2703(d)
C. Title 18, Section Chapter 90
D. Title 18, Section 2703(f)

Answer: D

Question 2.
Item 2If you come across a sheepdip machine at your client site, what would you infer?

A. Asheepdip coordinates several honeypots
B. Asheepdip computer is another name for a honeypot
C. Asheepdip computer is used only for virus-checking.
D. Asheepdip computer defers a denial of service attack

Answer: C

Question 3.
In a computer forensics investigation, what describes the route that evidence takes from the time you find it until the case is closed or goes to court?

A. rules of evidence
B. law of probability
C. chain of custody
D. policy of separation

Answer: C

Question 4.
How many characters long is the fixed-length MD5 algorithm checksum of a critical system file?

A. 128
B. 64
C. 32
D. 16

Answer: C

Question 5.
CORRECT TEXT
To calculate the number of bytes on a disk, the formula is: CHS**

Answer: number of circles x number of halves x number of sides x 512 bytes per sector

Answer: number of cylinders x number of halves x number of shims x 512 bytes per sector

Answer: number of cells x number of heads x number of sides x 512 bytes per sector

Answer: number of cylinders x number of halves x number of shims x 512 bytes per sector

Answer: Pending

Question 6.
You are using DriveSpy, a forensic tool and want to copy 150 sectors where the starting sector is 1709 on the primary hard drive. 

Which of the following formats correctly specifies these sectors?

A. 0:1000, 150
B. 0:1709, 150
C. 1:1709, 150
D. 0:1709-1858

Answer: B

Question 7.
A honey pot deployed with the IP 172.16.1.108 was compromised by an attacker . Given below is an excerpt from a Snort binary capture of the attack. Decipher the activity carried out by the attacker by studying the log. Please note that you are required to infer only what is explicit in the excerpt. (Note: The student is being tested on concepts learnt during passive OS fingerprinting, basic TCP/IP connection concepts and the ability to read packet signatures from a sniff dump.) 03/15-20:21:24.107053 211.185.125.124:3500 -> 172.16.1.108:111
TCP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29726 IpLen:20 DgmLen:52 DF
***A**** Seq: 0x9B6338C5 Ack: 0x5820ADD0 Win: 0x7D78 TcpLen: 32
TCP Options (3) => NOP NOP TS: 23678634 2878772
=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=
03/15-20:21:24.452051 211.185.125.124:789 -> 172.16.1.103:111
UDP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29733 IpLen:20 DgmLen:84
Len: 64
01 0A 8A 0A 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 A0 ................
00 00 00 02 00 00 00 03 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 ................
00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 01 86 B8 00 00 00 01 ................
00 00 00 11 00 00 00 00 ........
=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=
03/15-20:21:24.730436 211.185.125.124:790 -> 172.16.1.103:32773
UDP TTL: 43 TOS:0x0 ID:29781 IpLen:20 DgmLen:1104
Len: 1084 47 F7 9F 63 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 B8

A. The attacker has conducted a network sweep on port 111
B. The attacker has scanned and exploited the system using Buffer Overflow
C. The attacker has used a Trojan on port 32773
D. The attacker has installed a backdoor

Answer: A

Question 8.
The newer Macintosh Operating System is based on:

A. OS/2
B. BSD Unix
C. Linux
D. Microsoft Windows

Answer: B

Question 9.
Before you are called to testify as an expert, what must an attorney do first?

A. engage in damage control
B. prove that the tools you used to conduct your examination are perfect
C. read your curriculum vitae to the jury
D. qualify you as an expert witness

Answer: D

Question 10.
You are contracted to work as a computer forensics investigator for a regional bank that has four 30 TB storage area networks that store customer data. 

What method would be most efficient for you to acquire digital evidence from this network?

A. create a compressed copy of the file with DoubleSpace
B. create a sparse data copy of a folder or file
C. make a bit-stream disk-to-image file
D. make a bit-stream disk-to-disk file

Answer: C


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CCIE Storage Networking

 Question 1.
On a standalone switch, all ports in VSAN 9 are administratively shut down. 

What is the operational state of VSAN 9?

A. Up
B. Initializing
C. Active
D. Suspended
E. Down

Answer: E

Question 2.
There are three different roles on the MDS: Role1 allows show commands only. Role2 allows debug and configure commands, and denies show command. Role 3 permits VSAN 10-30 only. 

User1 belongs to Role1, Role2 and Role3. What can User1 do?

A. Show,debug, and configure on VSAN 10-30
B. Debug and configuration commands on VSAN 10-30
C. Show, debug, configure on all VSAN
D. Debug and configure commands only on all VSAN
E. Show,debug, configure and save configuration on VSAN 10-30

Answer: C

Question 3.
What statement is true?

A. Class of Service 1 frames are acknowledged only when requested by the sender.
B. R_RDY is the correct way to acknowledge a Class of Service 1 frame.
C. Class of Service 1 and 2 reserve 100% of the available bandwidth.
D. Class of Service 3 framesrequire an ACK1 response.
E. Class of Service 2 frames are acknowledged by an ACK response.

Answer: E

Question 4.
What is the purpose of the Open Fibre Control system?

A. It defines a safety mechanism for SW laser data links.
B. It specifies the maximum bit error rate for Fibre channel links.
C. It defines the distance limitation for different types of lasers.
D. It defines the mechanism in which Fibre Channel switches communicate with Gbics.
E. It defines the flow control mechanism for Fibre Channel.

Answer: A

Question 5.
What SW_ILS frame is used to perform Principal Switch Selection?

A. ELP
B. RDI
C. DIA
D. ESC
E. EFP

Answer: E

Question 6.
The purpose of the SW_ILS ELP frame is to:

A. None of the above
B. Begin principal switch selection
C. Notify other switches they can now request domain IDs
D. Exchange FSPF routing information
E. Notify other switches that a principal switch has been elected

Answer: A

Question 7.
Select the true statements concerning the IP address subnetting requirements of gigabit Ethernet interfaces on the IPS-8 module:

A. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1.10 and gigabigethernet2/1.10 must be configured with IP 
    addresses in the same subnet
B. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and gigabigethernet2/1 can be configured with IP addresses in 
    The same subnet
C. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and gigabigethernet1/2 can not be configured with IP addresses 
     in the same subnet
D. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and mgmt0 can not be configured with IP addresses in the same 
     subnet
E. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1.10 and gigabigethernet2/1.12 can be configured with IP 
    Addresses in the same subnet

Answer: B, D

Question 8.
Node is logged into port fc1/1 in VSAN 4000. If VSAN 4000 is deleted then what will happen?

A. Invalid - VSAN 4000 is not available.
B. Node will move to VSAN 1.
C. Node will move to VSAN 4095.
D. Node will move to VSAN 4094.
E. Invalid - VSAN can not be deleted until all members are removed.

Answer: D

Question 9.
To capture all of the RSCN traffic originating from a standalone switch with no free ports, what should be utilized?

A. SPAN
B. REMOTE SPAN
C. MDS fcanalyzer
D. Ethereal with PAA
E. debug rscn events initiators vsan 1000

Answer: C

Question 10.
Which organizations produce standards related to SCSI, Fibre Channel or Fibre Channel Protocol?

A. T12 Committee
B. T10 Committee
C. T11 Committee
D. SNIA
E. Cisco Systems

Answer: B, C



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CIPT Cisco IP Telephony( CIPT)

 Question 1.
When a phone needs a conference resource, which of the following Cisco CallManager objects is queried first?

A. media resource device list
B. media resource group list
C. media resource group
D. media resource pool

Answer: B

Question 2.
Which two of these tools can be used to reestablish a Cisco CallManager cluster SQL subscription? (Choose two.)

A. DNA
B. SQL Server Service Manager
C. RTMT
D. DBLHelper
E. SQL Server Enterprise Manager

Answer: D, E

Question 3.
Which of these options will prevent a device from being able to initiate conferences?

A. Place all conference media resources in MRGs and exclude these MRGs from the MRGL.
B. Exclude the conference media resources from all MRGs.
C. Exclude the conference media resource partitions from the CSS.
D. Remove the default MRGL from the device pool.

Answer: A

Question 4.
A user reports poor quality on voice calls and is instructed to select the QRT softkey. 

How can you access the information generated by this call?

A. use the QRT plug-in on the PC of an administrator
B. use Tools\QRT Viewer under the CiscoCallManager Serviceability page
C. use the System\Real-time Monitor Tool under CiscoCallManager Administration
D. use theperfmon counter application under Administrative Tools

Answer: B

Question 5.
DRAG DROP
Drag drop
 

Answer:
 

Question 6.
How is a backup target changed to a backup server?

A. Modify the BARS service parameter from Target to Server.
B. Use BARSadministration to change from Target to Server.
C. Use BARSadministration to delete the destination target.
D. Uninstall BARS and reinstall as a backup server.

Answer: D

Question 7.
What are Cisco CallManager Locations used for?

A. Specify the bandwidth used for audio and video calls.
B. Define the time zones for devices connected to the CiscoCallManager.
C. Implement call admission control in a centralized call processing deployment.
D. Provide alternate call routing when the primary call path is unavailable.
E. Assign directory numbers to devices as they connect to the IP telephony network.

Answer: C

Question 8.
Based on the following dial-plan rules, what is the minimum number of partitions that must be defined?
All employees can call local and service numbers.
Managers can call long distance and international numbers.
Executives can call all numbers.
Only administrative assistants can call executives.
Incoming calls can only be routed to IP phones.

A. 6
B. 4
C. 5
D. 3

Answer: B

Question 9.
What will happen if Option 150 is not configured on the DHCP server?

A. CiscoCallManager will be unable to replicate its database to the subscribers.
B. IP Phones will not be able to load their configuration files.
C. CiscoCallManager will be unable to access the TFTP server.
D. IP Phones will not be able to receive VLAN information.
E. CiscoCallManager will be unable to register IP Phones.
F. The DHCP server will not be able to answer requests from IP Phones.

Answer: B

Question 10.
Which four characteristics would typically be used to define a device pool? (Choose four.)

A. geographic proximity
B. common calling search spaces for auto-registration
C. common device type
D. common use ofcodecs
E. common MOH source
F. common class of service

Answer: A, B, D, E


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