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Question 1.
While creating a Cache only DNS server, how many zones are required.
A. !
B. 2
C. 3
D. No zone is required.
Answer: D
Explanation:
After you have created the DNS Server as a cache only server, do not assign any zones for it to serve.
Question 2.
What should be done after a server is upgraded to eDirectory 8.6?
A. Reboot the server.
B. Upgrade Novell Certificate Server.
C. Perform an eDirectory health check.
D. Delete the server object and recreate it.
E. Reinitialize the eDirectory database by entering the SET DSTRACE=*. command at the server
console prompt.
Answer: C
Question 3.
The Novell® TCP/IP stack consists of how many NetWare Loadable Module?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Novell® TCP/IP stack consists of the following five NetWare® Loadable ModuleTM (NLMTM) programs:
BSDSOCK.NLM provides the BSD standards sockets interface.
TCP.NLM provides the transport layer TCP and UDP interfaces.
TCPIP.NLM provides IP, ICMP, IGMP, Routing, and other networking layer protocols.
NETLIB.NLM is a library of the entire stack.
INETCFG.NLM allows you to configure the stack with the help of TCPCFG.NLM. The configuration is stored in SYS:\ETC\TCPIP.CFG and SYS:\ETC\NETINFO.CFG.
Question 127.
Which statements are true regarding Novell Certificate Server and upgrading to eDirectory 8.6? (Choose two)
A. Only one Organizational CA object can exist in an eDirectory tree.
B. An organizational CA gets created on each server upgraded to eDirectory 8.6.
C. Before upgrading to eDirectory 8.6, any Organizational CA object must be deleted.
D. After additional servers are upgraded to eDirectory 8.6, it is recommended to delete and re-
create the Organizational CA object.
E. When upgrading to eDirectory 8.6, Certificate Server gets installed by default if there is no
organizational CA in your tree.
Answer: A, E
Section 9, page 9-3
Question 4.
Which of the following file is use to map hostnames to IP addresses.
A. Hosts files
B. Networks File
C. Protocol File
D. Services File
Answer: A
Explanation:
HOSTS File maps hostnames to IP addresses
NETWORKS File maps network names to network addresses
PROTOCOL File maps protocol names to IP protocol numbers
SERVICES File maps service names to TCP and UDP ports
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Question 1.
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question.
Which of the following are TRUE about the activity diagram?
Exhibit:
A. Alerting management of a conflict and getting building approval can be done simultaneously.
B. Getting departmental approval and getting building approval can be done simultaneously.
C. A CourseSection can be added to the CourseCatalog with just department approval.
D. Getting departmental approval and getting building approval can be done in any order.
Answer: B, D
Question 2.
Which one of the following OOAD artifacts would be MOST useful in helping to plan the content of iterations in a project plan?
A. CRC cards.
B. Collaboration diagrams.
C. Use cases.
D. State diagrams.
Answer: C
Question 3.
An Interaction Diagram should be associated with:
A. a Use Case.
B. a State Transition Diagram.
C. an Activity Diagram.
D. a CRC card.
Answer: A
Question 4.
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question. A Course Section can be added to, deleted from and retrieved from a Course Schedule.
What is the BEST way to model the relationship between a Course Schedule and a Course Section?
Exhibit:
A. CourseSchedule is defined as a subclass of a Collection type and inherits the adding, deleting
and retrieving capabilities for CourseSections.
B. CourseSchedule delegates the management of CourseSections to Student.
C. CourseSchedule delegates the adding, deleting and retrieving of the CourseSections to a
collection it holds.
D. CourseSection has a number attribute by which it can identify the CourseSchedule to which it
belongs.
Answer: C
Question 5.
When considering OOAD artifacts and the resulting software, how far should one be able to trace specific user requirements?
A. Interaction diagrams
B. Use cases
C. Class diagrams
D. Public methods
E. Private methods
Answer: D
Question 6.
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question.
Which of the following is the BEST list of candidate interaction diagrams to directly or indirectly support the use case?
Exhibit:
A. Receive a deposit, Withdraw funds, Buy a stock, Sell a stock, Cancel an order, View a
portfolio, Log on, Log off, View a quote.
B. Manage accounts, Handle deposits and withdrawals, Trade stocks, View a portfolio, Get a
quote, View a quote.
C. Open an account, Close an account, Receive a deposit, Withdraw funds, Buy a stock, Sell a
stock, View a portfolio, Log on, Log off, View a quote.
D. Open an account, Close an account, Receive a deposit by wire, Receive a deposit by check,
Buy a stock, Sell a stock, View a portfolio, Successful log on, Failed log on, Log off, View a
quote.
Answer: A
Question 7.
Refer to the exhibits to answer the question.
Which of the following statements are TRUE with respect to the Event Planning class diagram? A Facility:
Exhibit:
Exhibit:
A. can get to a particular Seat by type of Seat.
B. may find a Seat when accessing by number.
C. may get multiple Seats back when accessing by price.
D. can access Seats by price or by Seat number.
Answer: B, C, D
Question 8.
The following are the requirements for a Report-generation module in an application:
1. When new data is generated, the user-interface should be refreshed automatically to reflect the
latest values
2. Multiple view types are possible
Which of the following Model and View interactions BEST satisfies the above requirements?
A. Combine the view and model layers into a single entity so that the interactions are localized
and notifications are instantaneous.
B. Establish subscribe/notify mechanism between view and model, with the model updating the
view based upon the view type.
C. Establish a subscribe/notify mechanism between the view and model layers so that the views
get notified of the change.
D. Develop intelligence within the model so that it decides which views are to be refreshed based
on the view type.
Answer: C
Question 9.
The developer should be able to trace a class' public operations back to its:
A. public attributes.
B. associations.
C. states.
D. responsibilities.
Answer: D
Question 10.
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question.
Suppose there is a new requirement to keep track of which instructors teach what courses and sections as well as students' evaluations of the instructor. A new Instructor class has just been added.
Which of the following is the BEST approach for handling the information and processing requirements?
Exhibit:
A. Add an association class called TeachingAssignment between CourseSection and Instructor.
Add the new attributes and methods in TeachingAssignment.
B. Add the new attributes and methods in Instructor.
C. Add the new attributes and methods in CourseSection.
D. Add an association relationship between CourseSection and Instructor. Add some new
attributes and methods in CourseSection and some in Instructor.
Answer: A
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Question 1. Which of the following types of software protection will help mitigate any threats coming from worm and Trojans? A. Spam Blocker B. Antivirus C. Anti Spyware D. Anti Adware Answer: B Explanation: Question 2. An end user is having problems printing from an application. The technician attempts to send a test page to printer. Which of the following BEST explains the reason the technician used a test page to trouble shoot the issue? A. It clears the print queue and resets the printer memory. B. It allows the technician to see the quality of the printer output. C. The output of the test page allows the technician to initiate diagnostic routines on the printer. D. It verifies connectivity and eliminates possible application problems. Answer: D Explanation: Question 3. Which of the following protocols is used to retrieve email? A. SFTP B. FTP C. SMTP D. POP3 Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. On Windows 7, which of the following paths allows a user to configure a fingerprint reader? A. Start > Settings > Device Manager > Biometric Devices B. Start > Computer > Devices > Biometric Devices C. Start > Settings > Control Panel > Biometric Devices D. Start > Programs > System Settings > Biometric Devices Answer: C Explanation: Question 5. A computer in a warehouse experiences hardware faults and often requires replacement of power supplies, CPUs and CD ROM drives. Which of the following tools will help prevent the hardware faults? A. Anti-static wrist straps B. Compressed air C. Anti-static wipes D. Operating system rescue disk Answer: B Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following is the MOST effective means for a technician to prevent ESD damage when installing RAM? A. Touching grounded metal before contacting components B. Ensuring the AC plug has a ground post C. Wearing a grounded wristband D. Wearing rubber-soled shoes Answer: C Explanation: Question 7. Which of the following processor types is manufactured by AMD? A. Celeron B. Athlon C. Pentium D. Core 2 Quad Answer: B Explanation: Question 8. A laptop with an external USB hard drive and an external monitor is not booting from the internal hardware drive. Power has been verified and the battery is fully charged. But the laptop appears to be stopping after POST. Which of the following will help troubleshoot the cause of problem? A. Format the external USB hare drive. B. Turn off the external monitor C. Disconnect the external monitor D. Remove and reset the laptop battery Answer: C Explanation: Question 9. A technician has completed upgrading a computer from Windows Vista to Windows 7. According to the system and video drivers need to be upgraded. Which of the following is BEST source for theses drivers? A. The Microsoft Windows 7 website B. The manufacturer’s website C. The windows Hardware Compatibility List D. The drivers that came in the original Windows Vista Installation CD Answer: C Explanation: Question 10. A user made a change to their windows XP system that caused problems. The technician wants to restore the system on previous state. The technician cannot find the previous restore point. Which of the following is problem? A. The technician is not in administrator mode. B. System restore is turned off. C. System 32 folder has been removed. D. System restore is not supported on the OS version. Answer: B Explanation:
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Question 1. Which of these are symptoms of malware on a computer? (Select TWO). A. Hard drive and network activity is higher when the computer is idle B. CD-ROM ejects unexpectedly from the computer C. Web browser accesses unexpected websites D. Prints from the computer have random characters and symbols instead of text E. The monitor has a permanent image burned into the display Answer: A, C Explanation: Question 2. Which of the following commands will map a shared network drive? A. SFC B. NSLOOKUP C. NET USE D. IPCONFIG Answer: C Explanation: Question 3. A technician wants to copy the entire documents and settings folder and subfolders to a new computer. Which of the following commands should the technician use? A. EDIT B. XCOPY C. COPY/A D. MOVE Answer: B Explanation: Question 4. A laptop reports the following RAM configuration. Assuming RAM is the same price per Mb, which of the following would be the least expensrve upgrade to the laptop to give it 12GB of RAM? Memory 3lots 2 DRAM Frequency 661.0 MHz Memory Timings 9-9-9-24 (CL-RCD-RP-RA3) Device Locator Slot 1 Capacity 4096 MBytes Memory Type DDR3 (PC3-10700) Speed 667 MHz (DDR3 1333) Supported Frequencies 457.1 MHz, 533.3 MHz, 609.5 MHz, 685.7 MHz EPP SPD Support No XMP SPD Support No Device Locator Slot 2 Capacity 2048 MBytes Memory Type DDR3 (PC3-10700) Speed 667 MHz (DDR3 1333) Supported Frequencies 457.1 MHz, 533.3 MHz, 609.5 MHz, 685.7 MHz EPP SPD Support No XMP SPD Support No A. Two 6Gb DDR3 PC 10700 RAM modules B. One 10Gb DDR3 PC10700 RAM module C. One 8Gb DDR3 PC12800 RAM module D. One 6Gb DDR3 PC12800 RAM module Answer: C Explanation: Question 5. A SOHO user has just installed a new wireless router on the network. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the user should do to secure the router from unauthorized use? A. Change the default administrator name and password B. Update the firmware in all of the client computers C. Setup MAC filtering to limit the devices that can connect D. Determine the DHCP range and any static exclusions Answer: A Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following is the BEST tool to use to move a user' s documents and file settings, when upgrading the user from a Windows Vista computer to a Windows 7 computer? A. Easy Transfer B. Backup and Restore C. XCOPY D. System Restore Answer: A Explanation: Question 7. User profiles in Windows 7 are stored in which of the following locations? A. C:\UserProfiles B. C:\DocumentsandSettings\UserProfiles C. C:\Documents and Settings D. C:\Users Answer: D Explanation: Question 8. After a video card upgrade nothing is displayed on the LCD screen. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. The new video card has to be first installed using the Services MMC. B. The onboard video of the motherboard is still enabled in the BIOS. C. New video cards require new monitors as their resolutions do not match D. The new video card has to be enabled by a DIP switch on the motherboard. Answer: B Explanation: Question 9. Which of the following multimeter settings should only be used when there is no electrical flow through the part being tested? (Select TWO). A. Ampere B. Continuity C. volt D. Resistance E. Wattage Answer: B, D Explanation: Question 10. Which of the following commands would be used to map a network drive? A. MD B. SFC C. IPCONFIG D. NET Answer: D Explanation:
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Question 1. A business requires its employees to have access to internal documents via the Internet. Which of the following technologies will allow access to those documents and maintain security of the connection? A. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) B. Virtual Private Network (VPN) C. Watermarking D. Checksumming Answer: B Question 2. What key roles are performed by the Project Manager? A. Manage goals, company expectations, staffing and equipment needs, and costs B. Secure funding, write proposals, and manage departmental priorities C. Manage and maintain image quality control and production goals D. Manage and ensure that the imaging process is documented and that costs are contained Answer: A Question 3. A Request For Proposal (RFP) includes a workflow requirement for reassigning work. What feature ensures that work can be or has been reassigned? A. Tracking capability B. Records management C. Scan-to-folder D. Error handling Answer: A Question 4. A customers current document security model provides access to paper documents based upon job definition. Employees change jobs periodically based upon skills and business needs. An electronic system would need to implement: A. role-based security. B. user privilege sets. C. modifiable document classification models. D. user group security. Answer: A Question 5. What items need to be evaluated when choosing a scanner? A. Resolution, compression, and memory B. Workflow, ease of use, and productivity C. Documents, images, and storage medium D. Interface, resolution, and paper handling Answer: D Question 6. A customer is performing incremental backups nightly. At the end of the month they review a list of documents that have reached their end of life and determine if they can be destroyed. Which of the following BEST describes the records storage management process? A. The customer has a formal records storage management process. B. The customer has an informal records management process. C. The customer has a document capture process. D. The customer does not have a records management process. Answer: A Question 7. Which of the following would be the BEST way to obtain customer commitment for a document imaging project? A. A series of white papers on the solution B. Executive briefing with only senior management C. Onsite demonstration with customers documents D. Onsite demonstration with the consultants prepared documents Answer: C Question 8. Currently, corporate headquarters maintains a central document repository with a Records Manager that maintains custody of these confidential documents. There are 18 branch locations connected via intranet with six new additional locations opening within the year. If a branch office needs confidential documents, an e-mail request is sent to the Records Manager who will then fax or overnight the documents to the branch locations. What would be the impact of implementing a web-based solution for end-users? A. It would require extensive training on use and operation. B. End-user productivity would dramatically increase. C. The new system would be slower to receive desired information than the current system. D. Most end-user computers would need to be upgraded to support a web-based solution. Answer: B Question 9. A customer is printing large TIFF images. The method with the LEAST impact on network load is to decompress the image at the: A. printer. B. jukebox. C. client workstation. D. network server. Answer: A Question 10. In order to allow for the encrypted access of documents over the web, the web server should support: A. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP). B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). C. FTP. D. XML. Answer: B
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Question 1. DRAG DROP
Answer:
Question 2.
Why are thresholds defined based on baseline documents?
A. to ensure that QoS parameters are defined appropriately
B. to help identify current network problems and predict future bottlenecks
C. to suppress duplicate alarms and allow for event correlation
D. to reduce polling traffic on the network
E. to verify that interfaces are in the correct state
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 3.
According to ITIL® v3 framework, which type of tools is best suited to ensure management of a predefined workflow stream containing a set of tasks which can be managed around resource availability, timelines, status, and if needed escalation paths?
A. process control engine
B. configuration management system
C. discovery audit
D. business service management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 4.
According to ITIL® v3 framework, which type of warranty assurance provides a customer with a measured confidence that services are supporting defined level of demand and quality?
A. security
B. availability
C. capacity
D. continuity
E. fulfillment
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question 5.
A rollout plan from engineering has been sent to the NOC for deployment. Part of the plan involves a complex software upgrade to a network element. The method of procedure provided by engineering is nearly 100 individual steps long.
Where do you expect to find backout procedures to be specified?
A. after each step that causes a change to the network
B. after every 20 (+/- 5) steps
C. after the midway point
D. after the method of procedure is completed
E. both after the midway point and after the method of procedure is completed
Answer: A
Explanation:
source: http://www.freeopenbook.com/upgrading-repairingnetworks/
ch04lev1sec4.html
Question 6.
You are working in a service provider voice NOC supporting a national VoIP network. The network underwent a capacity expansion that added voice bearer trunks to a newly deployed media gateway. After the new trunks were configured and placed into live service, the service desk began to receive complaints from end customers that their VoIP service is not working for certain calls. The service desk is unable to resolve the problem and due to increasing troubles coming in, they escalate to you.
Assuming that all physical layer option settings are verified to match carrier-provided specifications, which action should you take to isolate the problem before escalating to the PSTN PTT carrier?
A. Verify IP connectivity between the media gateway controller and the media gateway.
B. Fail over the media gateway to its backup.
C. Identify which trunks are not functioning.
D. Verify that SIP versions are compatible between the media gateway controller and the media
gateway
Answer: C
Explanation:
reason: The question is saying that the service is not working for certain calls which means that ip connectivity might be fine and the fail over is also working.. Similarly, if sip version are not compatible there would be a problem with all calls. So trunks problem might be the answer
Question 7.
Which protocol should be configured on networking devices to assist operational staff in event correlation to resolve service issues?
A. NTP
B. TACACS
C. HSRP
D. TFTP
E. RCMD
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 8.
What is the main difference between an SNMP trap and a syslog message?
A. SNMP traps are secure, whereas syslog messages are not.
B. SNMP traps are triggered during network outages, whereas syslog messages are
Informational only.
C. SNMP traps are forwarded to EMS systems, whereas syslog messages are forwarded to any
NMS system.
D. SNMP traps are formally defined in a MIB, whereas syslog body contents are not formally
defined.
E. SNMP traps are user-definable and vary based on vendor, whereas syslog messages are
standards-based
Answer: D
Explanation:
source: https://supportforums.cisco.com/message/3184632
Question 9.
While evaluating a new hardware rollout plan before deployment, which standards should you review to ensure that the hardware met certain environmental design guidelines?
A. NAS
B. COBIT
C. ITIL®
D. NEBS
E. eTOM
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 10.
Which three of the following metrics are used to troubleshoot an incident of poor voice quality in a service provider next-generation network? It can be assumed that adequate bandwidth is available. (Choose three.)
A. UDP jitter
B. latency
C. TCP Connect
D. packet loss
E. round-trip time
Answer: A, B, D
Explanation:
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Question 1. Which router can be used for disk-in-access to the router CLI management purposes and does not usually pass normal network traffic? A. AUX B. Gigabit Ethernet C. Fast Ethernet D. Channelized serial Answer: A Explanation: Question 2. Which two pieces of information does the show ip interface brief command display? (Choose two) A. Encapsulation type B. Interface status C. Layer 2 address D. Layer 3 address E. Keep alive Answer: B, D Explanation: Question 3. The pins and RJ-45 are numbered from 1 through 8. With the material points of the plug facing toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. Which two sets are looped on an RJ-45 T1 loopback plug? (Choose two) A. Pins 1 and 4 B. Pins 1 and 7 C. Pins 2 and 5 D. Pins 2 and 8 E. Pins 1 and 5 F. Pins 2 and 7 Answer: A, C Explanation: Question 4. What are two ways to open Microsoft Notepad on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two) A. Start > Run Enter Notepad and 'Ink OK B. Start > Control Panel > Notepad C. Start > All Programs > Notepad D. Start > All Programs > Accessories > Notepad E. Start > All Programs > Microsoft Office > Notepad Answer: A, D Explanation: Question 5. Which three of the following statements are true? (Choose three.) A. Each IP address has two parts: a network ID and a host ID B. An IP subnet equals a broadcast domain. C. An IPv4 address contains 36 bits D. 172.16.1.18 is a Class A address E. A subnet address is created by borrowing bits from the original host ID Answer: A, B, E Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following is a DTE device? A. router B. CSU/DSU C. cable modem D. DSL modem Answer: A Explanation: Question 7. Which two of the following statements are true about a switch? (Choose two) A. It is a repeater. B. It is a data link layer device. C. It will forward the frame out all ports when it receives a broadcast from a host. D. It reads the destination MAC address to forward traffic out the appropriate port. E. It acts as an amplifier. Answer: B, D Explanation: Question 8. Which of the following best describes the cable that is used to connect a laptop to an Ethernet port on a Cisco router? A. Crossover B. Straight-through C. Fiber D. Rollover Answer: A Explanation: Question 9. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of cable us used on the ATM card? A. Fiber-optic BNC B. Coaxial C. Serial D. Crossover Answer: B Explanation: Question 10. What are two features that are associated with single-mode fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.) A. a single strand of glass fiber B. carries higher bandwidth than multimode fiber C. cost is less than multimode fiber D. operates over less distance than multimode fiber Answer: A, B Explanation:
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Question 1.
What is fading?
A. Another signal source is producing energy on the channel in which you are trying to operate.
B. The desired signal reaches the receiving antenna via multiple paths, each of which has a
different propagation delay and path loss.
C. A time-varying change in the path loss of a link with the time variance governed by the
movement of objects in the environment, including the transmitter and receiver themselves.
D. A function of the frequency and should be provided in the cable specification by the vendor.
E. The minimum signal level for the receiver to be able to acceptably decode the information.
F. The time delay from the reception of the first instance of the signal until the last instance.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 2.
Which limitation applies to the use of the Cisco WLAN Solution Management over Wireless feature?
A. Controllers must be managed using only secure protocols (that is, SSH and HTTPS), not no
secure protocols (that is, HTTP and Telnet).
B. Read-write access is not available; only read-only access is supported.
C. Uploads and downloads from the controller are not allowed.
D. Wireless clients can manage other controllers however not the same controller and AP to
which the client is associated.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 3.
Up to how many Cisco WiSMs are supported in a single mobility group operating under v5.0 code?
A. 5
B. 12
C. 16
D. 24
E. 150
F. 300
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 4.
The existing Cisco Unified Wireless Controller is running v5.0 code for both the controllers and the Cisco WCS. A controller has been configured with an appropriate rogue rule condition to report discovered APs to the Cisco WCS.
What default alarm level is used to display all rogue APs in the Alarm Summary?
A. Critical
B. Flash
C. Major
D. Minor
E. Urgent
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 5.
Cisco Client Management Frame Protection is running on a mobility group with two controllers.
Which two MFP requirements protect the network? (Choose two.)
A. forces clients to authenticate, using a secure EAP method only
B. implements the validation of wireless management frames
C. requires CCXv5
D. requires the use of a nonbroadcast SSID
E. requires CCXv4
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
Question 6.
What is the result when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero?
A. Clients are excluded indefinitely.
B. Clients are never excluded.
C. Client exclusion is disabled.
D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address.
E. Exclusion and inclusion is determined by access list.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 7.
The central office is currently using a combination of 4400 and 2100 series WLAN controllers running v4.2 and a variety of LWAPP-enabled access points servicing both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. The WLAN deployment has been extended to each remote office by implementing a 526 WLAN controller running v4.1 and several 521 access points. Wireless client deployment uses EAP-TLS authentication using a centralized RADIUS server plus 802.11n for performance. After the first remote office deployment, remote office users complain that they are not connecting via 802.11n.
What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The 526 WLAN controller does not support external authentication via RADIUS, prohibiting
authentication.
B. The 521 AP does not support 5 GHz, which prohibits 802.11n.
C. The 521 AP and 526 WLAN controllers do not support AES, which prohibits 802.11n.
D. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with v4.1 and must be upgraded to v4.2.
E. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with either v4.1 or v4.2.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question 8.
How do the features that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco WCS for Windows version?
A. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to
750 wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN
controllers.
B. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for
Linux does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
C. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 9.
Which CLI command shows the controller configuration in a way that is similar to the way that it is displayed on Cisco IOS routers?
A. show config
B. show run config
C. show run-config
D. show running config
E. show running-config
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question 10.
Which two attacks does Management Frame Protection help to mitigate? (Choose two.)
A. Eavesdropping
B. Denial of Service
C. War Driving
D. Man-in-the-Middle
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
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Question 1. Which port is indicated on the right Secondary Codec for the CTS-3210? A. Right Display B. Right Camera C. Center Display D. Left Display Answer: B Explanation: Question 2. Which port do you conned to on the Primary Codec in order to establish an Ethernet connection between your laptop and the Cisco TelePresence 3000 equipment? A. Video port B. Network port C. IP Phone port D. Secondary Camera port Answer: B Explanation: Question 3. Which size and type of tool is required to loosen the screws that allow rotational adjustment of the CTS-3010 cameras? A. #1 Phillips screwdriver B. 5.0 mm Allen wrench C. #3 Phillips screwdriver D. 3.0 mm Allen wrench Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. Which four functions does Cisco TelePresence rely on Cisco Unified Communications Manager for? (Choose four) A. Configurations B. Software upgrades C. Management D. Call processing E. Scheduling meetings F. Microphone calibration Answer: A, C, D, E Explanation: Question 5. Which three of the following components are included on the Cisco TelePresence 3210? (Choose three.) A. One boardroom-style table with a second row B. One boardroom-style table C. One 40" external display D. Nine table microphones E. Four LED light fixtures Answer: A, C, D Explanation: Question 6. DRAG DROP Answer: Explanation: Layer 2 Datalink – ARP Layer 3 – Network – IP Layer4 – Transport – TCP Layer7 – Application - Email Question 7. Which three of the following are benefits of Cisco TelePresence Manager? (Choose three) A. Bulk software upgrades of endpoints B. Calendaring integration and management C. One-Button-to-Push meeting access D. Allow for content sharing E. Concierge services Answer: B, C, D Explanation: Question 8. Which two hardware components are optional for the Cisco TelePresence 1000? (Choose two) A. One Cisco Unified IP Phone 7975G B. One external display C. One high-definition camera D. One Auxiliary Control Unit Answer: A, D Explanation: Question 9. Which port is indicated on the Auxiliary Control Unit for the CTS-1100 and 1300? A. Auxiliary Collaboration Display B. Serial Control for Projector C. Lights D. Serial Control for Dimmer Box Answer: B Explanation: Question 10. DRAG DROP Answer: Explanation: CTS-500 – 1-2 participants in a home/executive office CTS-1100 – 2 participants in multipurpose room CTS-1300 – 6 participants in multipurpose room CTS-3010 – 6 participants in dedicated telepresence room CTS-3210 – up to 10 participants in dedicated telepresence room
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Question 1.
Why is it beneficial for virtual classroom instructions to know approximately how much time each lesson within a virtual classroom session take?
A. Knowing how much time a lesson takes allows the instructor to adjust timelines if the
participants want to go deeper or need more time.
B. Participants will pay better attention because there will be less time to review.
C. The timing of each lesson can help participants understand the relative importance of each
instructional section.
D. The instructor can manage time by stopping discussions demonstrate and comments before
the participants are finished.
E. Making effective timing decisions demonstrates leadership in the virtual classroom.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 2.
Which three preparation tasks help create an effective audio environment for a virtual classroom session? (Choose three)
A. Use only a wireless internet connection.
B. Know how to make your phone.
C. Work in a space that is free of background noise.
D. Hold session in the early morning.
E. Put a “trainingin Progress” sign on your door or desk.
F. Use an unidirectional microphone
Answer: C, E, F
Explanation:
Question 3.
Why is it important for evaluation strategies to be highly specific?
A. Virtual instructors might rationalize or make excuse for unmet learning objectives.
B. Different stakeholders in organization often have competing properties and agendas.
C. Management might reward or punish depending on post session behavior on the job.
D. It is important to be factual about what went well, what needs important, and how it will be
improved.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 4.
Which action is most effective if you want to gauge the ability of the group to use formulas during a virtual classroom session in Microsoft Excel slide?
A. Share your application, using an expense report template; demonstrate how to input formulas
in an Excel spread sheet.
B. Share your application, select a cell and type the first part of formula; ask participants to type
the rest into chat.
C. Call on aparticipantand ask that person to verbally state what the correct formula would be;
given a specific set of criteria
D. Pass control of your desktop to a participant and ask that person to type in the correct formula;
ask the group to continue.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 5.
What is a key consideration for deciding whether you should record a virtual classroom session?
A. Session recordings that are posted to a company intranet may be subject to attribute laws.
B. Participants may demand to know in advance what you plan to do with the recording.
C. Conflicts about confidentially may cause participants to be less interactive.
D. Participants may be distracted by concerns about what their recorded voice like.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 6.
What are two industry best practices for timing of virtual classroom sessions? (Choose two)
A. Spend at least 5 minutes on each slide to allow cognitive load.
B. Sessions should be approximately 60 to 90 minutes in length.
C. Twenty percent of your slides should contain 80 percent of the information in the session.
D. Add 5 minutes to the agenda for every five participants that are attending your session.
E. Ensure that interactivity occurs every 5 minutes on average.
Answer: B
Explanation: Correct answer: AE
Question 7.
Which three questions are the most appropriate to ask if your manager asks you to coordinate and schedule a virtual session that you message will conduct next week on strategic planning? (Choose three)
A. Do you want participants to be able to interact with you and each other, and if so, how?
B. Are your slides ready, and are they optimally designed (for example, following the six by
sixrule)?
C. Will session attendance be mandatory or optional for participants?
D. Approximately how many participants will be attending, and from where?
E. Do the various activities support the learning objectives of the session?
F. How will the learning gains or effectiveness of the session be measured?
G. Is an LMS adequate for the needs of our company, or do we need an LCMS?
Answer: E, F, G
Explanation:
Question 8.
What are two key reasons why you should record and critique your own presentation on to two days before facilitating an important training session? (Choose two)
A. To ensure that your communication is as clear and succinct as possible.
B. To consider two creative ways to adapt the course to an asynchronous format.
C. To become self-aware of any use of slang or colloquialisms if the session is for a global
audience.
D. To determine whether the course needs to be redesigned for a global audience.
E. To show program stakeholders exactly what you will be doing.
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
Question 9.
How does the use of virtual cueing devices (such as using a highlighter tool or partner) support the process of logic and learning?
A. Paves the way for social learning.
B. Helps focus attentionon relevant content areas
C. Promotes discussion and collaboration
D. Engages auditory and less-visual learners
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 10.
What are three appropriate reasons for asking open-ended questions? (Choose three)
A. Initiate discussion
B. Uncover experiences of participants
C. Resolve conflict
D. Stimulate critical thinking
E. Challenge viewpoints
F. Identify dominant participants
Answer: C, D, E
Explanation:
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