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Braindumps for "642-541" Exam

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Braindumps for "EX0-101" Exam

ITIL Foundation v.3

 Question 1.
Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?

A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software

Answer: A

Question 2.
What is a RACI model used for?

A. Defining roles and responsibilities
B. Monitoring services
C. Performance analysis
D. Recording Configuration Items

Answer: A

Question 3.
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management 
    Databases (CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels

Answer: A

Question 4.
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?

A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)

Answer: A

Question 5.
In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?

A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation

Answer: B

Question 6.
Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?

A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill 
    tominimise the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more 
    technical or supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements 
    are low and this helps to minimise salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost 
    effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained

Answer: B

Question 7.
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration
Management Databases (CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels

Answer: B

Question 8.
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?

A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty

Answer: C

Question 9.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?

A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems

Answer: B

Question 10.
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?

A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service 
    Portfolio
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate

Answer: D



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Braindumps for "642-642" Exam

Quality of Service (QOS)

 Question 1. DRAG DROP
Drop
 
Answer:
 

Question 2.
Which of the following configurations requires the use of hierarchical policy maps?

A. the use of nested class-maps with class-based marking
B. the use of a strict priority-class queue within CBWFQ
C. the use of class-based WRED within a CBWFQ class queue
D. the use of CBWFQ inside class-based shaping
E. the use of both the bandwidth and shape statements within a CBWFQ class queue

Answer: D

Explanation:
Class-based weighted fair queuing (CBWFQ) extends the standard WFQ functionality to provide support for user-defined traffic classes. By using CBWFQ, network managers can define traffic classes based on several match criteria, including protocols, access control lists (ACLs), and input interfaces. A FIFO queue is reserved for each class, and traffic belonging to a class is directed to the queue for that class. More than one IP flow, or "conversation", can belong to a class. Once a class has been defined according to its match criteria, the characteristics can be assigned to the class. To characterize a class, assign the bandwidth and maximum packet limit. The bandwidth assigned to a class is the guaranteed bandwidth given to the class during congestion. CBWFQ assigns a weight to each configured class instead of each flow. This weight is proportional to the bandwidth configured for each class. Weight is equal to the interface bandwidth divided by the class bandwidth. Therefore, a class with a higher bandwidth value will have a lower weight.

By default, the total amount of bandwidth allocated for all classes must not exceed 75 percent of the available bandwidth on the interface. The other 25 percent is used for control and routing traffic. The queue limit must also be specified for the class. The specification is the maximum number of packets allowed to accumulate in the queue for the class. Packets belonging to a class are subject to the bandwidth and queue limits that are configured for the class.

Question 3.
In a managed CE scenario, the customer's network is supporting VoIP and bulk file transfers. 

According to the best practices, which QoS mechanisms should be applied on the WAN edge CEPE 56-kbps Frame Relay link on the CE outbound direction?

A. LLQ, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
B. CBWFQ, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
C. WRR, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
D. WRR, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
E. LLQ, CB-WRED, CB-Policing, and CB-TCP and CB-RTP header compressions
F. CBWFQ, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, CB-Policing, and FRTS

Answer: A

Explanation:
1. WRED can be combined with CBWFQ. In this combination CBWFQ provides a guaranteed percentage of the output bandwidth, WRED ensures that TCP traffic is not sent faster than CBWFQ can forward it.
The abbreviated configuration below shows how WRED can be added to a policy-map specifying CBWFQ:
Router(config)# policy-map prioritybw Router(config-pmap)# class class-default fair-queue
Router(config-pmap-c)# class prioritytraffic bandwidth percent 40 random-detect
The random-detect parameter specifies that WRED will be used rather than the default tail-drop action.
2. The LLQ feature brings strict Priority Queuing (PQ) to CBWFQ. Strict PQ allows delay-sensitive data such as voice to be sent before packets in other queues are sent. Without LLQ, CBWFQ provides WFQ based on defined classes with no strict priority queue available for real-time traffic. For CBWFQ, the weight for a packet belonging to a specific class is derived from the bandwidth assigned to the class. Therefore, the bandwidth assigned to the packets of a class determines the order in which packets are sent. All packets are serviced fairly based on weight and no class of packets may be granted strict priority. This scheme poses problems for voice traffic that is largely intolerant of delay, especially variation in delay. For voice traffic, variations in delay introduce irregularities of transmission manifesting as jitter in the heard conversation. LLQ provides strict priority queuing for CBWFQ, reducing jitter in voice conversations.

LLQ enables the use of a single, strict priority queue within CBWFQ at the class level. Any class can be made a priority queue by adding the priority keyword. Within a policy map, one or more classes can be given priority status. When multiple classes within a single policy map are configured as priority classes, all traffic from these classes is sent to the same, single, strict priority queue.

Although it is possible to queue various types of real-time traffic to the strict priority queue, it is strongly recommend that only voice traffic be sent to it because voice traffic is well-behaved, whereas other types of real-time traffic are not. Moreover, voice traffic requires that delay be nonvariable in order to avoid jitter. Real-time traffic such as video could introduce variation in delay, thereby thwarting the steadiness of delay required for successful voice traffic transmission.

When the priority command is specified for a class, it takes a bandwidth argument that gives maximum bandwidth in kbps. This parameter specifies the maximum amount of bandwidth allocated for packets belonging to the class configured. The bandwidth parameter both  guarantees bandwidth to the priority class and restrains the flow of packets from the priority class. In the event of congestion, policing is used to drop packets when the bandwidth is exceeded. Voice traffic queued to the priority queue is UDP-based and therefore not adaptive to the early packet drop characteristic of WRED. Because WRED is ineffective, the WRED random-detect command cannot be used with the priority command. In addition, because policing is used to drop packets and a queue limit is not imposed, the queue-limit command cannot be used with the priority command.

Question 4.
Refer to the partial router configuration. Which two of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
 

A. Regardless of destination IP address, all traffic sent to Mac address 1.2.3 will be subject to 
    policing
B. All traffic from a server with the IP address of 147.23.54.21 will be subject to policing.
C. Any IP packet will be subject to policing.
D. The class-map class1 command will set the qos-group value to 4 for all IP packets.
E. Only those packets which satisfy all of the matches in class1 and class2 will be subject to 
    policing.
F. The configuration is invalid since it refers to a class map within a different class.

Answer: A, B

Explanation:
The class-map command is used to define a traffic class. The purpose of a traffic class is to classify traffic that should be given a particular QoS. A traffic class contains three major elements, a name, a series of match commands, and if more than one match command exists in the traffic class, an instruction on how to evaluate these match commands. The traffic class is named in the class-map command line. For example, if the class-map cisco command is entered while configuring the traffic class in the CLI, the traffic class would be named cisco. 
Switch(config)# class-map cisco Switch(config-cmap)#
match commands are used to specify various criteria for classifying packets. Packets are checked to determine whether they match the criteria specified in the match commands. If a packet matches the specified criteria, that packet is considered a member of the class and is forwarded according to the QoS specifications set in the traffic policy. Packets that fail to meet any of the matching criteria are classified as members of the default traffic class and will be subject to a separate traffic policy

The policy-map command is used to create a traffic policy. The purpose of a traffic policy is to configure the QoS features that should be associated with the traffic that has been classified in a user-specified traffic class. A traffic policy contains three elements: Policy Name Traffic class specified with the class command QoS policies to be applied to each class The policy-map shown below creates a traffic policy named policy1. The policy applies to all traffic classified by the previously defined traffic-class "cisco" and specifies that traffic in this example should be allocated bandwidth of 3000 kbps. Any traffic which does not belong to the class "cisco" forms part of the catch-all class-default class and will be given a default bandwidth of 2000 kbps. Switch(config)# policy-map policy1 Switch(config-pmap)# class cisco Switch(config-pmap-c)#
bandwidth 3000 Switch(config-pmap-c)# exit Switch(config-pmap)# class class-default
Switch(config-pmap-c)# bandwidth 2000 Switch(config-pmap)# exit

Question 5.
In an unmanaged CE router implementation, how does the service provider enforce the SLA?

A. by marking on the CE to PE link and using CBWFQ and CB-WRED on the PE to P link
B. by marking on the CE to PE link and using class-based policing on the PE to P link
C. by using class-based policing on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate
D. by using class-based random discard on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate

Answer: C

Explanation:
In an unmanaged Router Implementation, Service provider can enforce SLA By using class based policy on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate.

Question 6.
When configuring a Cisco Catalyst switch to accommodate an IP phone with an attached PC, it is desired that the trust boundary be set between the IP phone and the switch. 

Which two commands on the switch are recommended to set the trust boundary as described? (Choose two.)

A. mls qos trust device cisco-phone
B. switchport priority extend trust
C. mls qos trust cos
D. no mls qos trust dscp
E. mls qos trust extend [cos value]
F. mls qos cos 5

Answer: A, C

Explanation:
mls qos trust [ cos ] :
B y default, the port is not trusted. All traffic is sent through one egress queue. Use the cos keyword to classify ingress packets with the packet CoS values. The egress queue assigned to the packet is based on the packet CoS value. When this keyword is entered, the traffic is sent through the four QoS queues. Normally, the QoS information from a PC connected to an IP Phone should not be trusted. This is because the PC's applications might try to spoof CoS or Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) settings to gain premium network service. In this case, use the cos keyword so that the CoS bits are overwritten to value by the IP Phone as packets are forwarded to the switch. If CoS values from the PC cannot be trusted, they should be overwritten to a value of 0.

Question 7.
According to the best practices, in a service provider network, which statement is true as related to the QoS policy that should be implemented on the inbound provider (P) to provider (P) router link?

A. In the DiffServ model, all ingress and egress QoS processing are done at the network edge 
    (for example, PE router), so no input or output QoS policy will be needed on the P to P link.
B. Class-based marking should be implemented because it will be needed for the class-based 
    queuing that will be used on the P router output.
C. Traffic policing should be implemented to rate-limit the ingress traffic into the P router.
D. Because traffic should have already been policed and marked on the upstream ingress PE 
    router, no input QoS policy is needed on the P to P link.

Answer: D

Question 8. 
DRAG DROP
Drop
 

Answer:
 

Question 9. HOTSPOT
HOTSPOT
 

 



Answer:
 

Explanation:
 

Question 10.
A Frame Relay interface has been configured for adaptive shaping with a minimum rate of 15 kbps. The current maximum transmit rate is 56 kbps. If three FECNs are received over the next 4 seconds, what will be the maximum transmit rate after the last FECN has been received?

A. 10 kbps
B. 37 kbps
C. 7 kbps
D. 15 kbps
E. 28 kbps
F. 56 kbps

Answer: F

Explanation:
User specified traffic shaping can be performed on a Frame Relay interface or sub-interface with the traffic-shape rate command. The traffic-shape adaptive command can be specified to allow the shape of the traffic to dynamically adjust to congestion experienced by the Frame-Relay provider. This is achieved through the reception of Backward Explicit Congestion Notifications (BECN) from the Frame Relay switch. When a Frame Relay switch becomes congested it sends BECNs in the direction the traffic is coming from and it generates Forward Explicit Congestion Notifications (FECN) in the direction the traffic is flowing to. If the traffic-shape fecn-adapt command is configured at both ends of the link, the far end will reflect FECNs as BECNs. BECNs notify the sender to decrease the transmission rate. If the traffic is one-way only, such as multicast traffic, there is no reverse traffic with BECNs to notify the sender to slow down. Therefore, when a DTE device receives a FECN, it first determines if it is sending any data in return. If it is sending return data, this data will get marked with a BECN on its way to the other DTE device. However, if the DTE device is not sending any data, the DTE device can send a Q.922 TEST RESPONSE message with the BECN bit set.


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Braindumps for "BCP-410" Exam

Maintaining a BlackBerry Enterprise Server in a Microsoft Exchange Environment

 Question 1.
 

What are three functions of the BlackBerry Policy Service? (Choose three.)

A. Sends a set of rules that configures BlackBerry device security features
B. Polls for applications that are installed on the BlackBerry device
C. Compresses and encrypts data to and from the BlackBerry device
D. Sends service books that configure BlackBerry device functionality
E. Synchronizes any custom security settings on the BlackBerry device

Answer: A, B, D

Question 2.
A system administrator wants to wirelessly deploy a third-party application to multiple BlackBerry devices while providing the BlackBerry device users with the ability to remove the software at a later time. 

What must the disposition of the assigned application control policy be set to, in order to accomplish this? (Choose one.)

A. Required
B. Optional
C. Disallowed
D. Prompt
E. Available

Answer: B

Question 3.
When setting up a software configuration, the Configuration Status field shows Unknown Configuration for a specific BlackBerry device user account. 

Which statement is true? (Choose one.)

A. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server has not polled the BlackBerry Configuration Database for 
    which applications need to be installed/removed on the BlackBerry device.
B. The user has not yet been assigned to a software configuration.
C. The delivery method within the software configuration for this application has not yet been set.
D. The Disallow Third-Party Downloads IT policy has been set to True.
E. The Applications directory needs to be indexed so the software configuration status can be 
    updated to reflect the current applications that need to be installed or removed.

Answer: A

Question 4.
A company utilizing a segmented network, installs the BlackBerry Attachment Server on its own server in a separate segment from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server. With which component would the BlackBerry Attachment Server be unable to communicate if it was installed in a different segment of the network? (Choose one.)

A. Microsoft Exchange Server
B. Microsoft SQL Server
C. BlackBerry Messaging Agent
D. BlackBerry Dispatcher
E. BlackBerry Controller

Answer: C

Question 5.
A new BlackBerry device user is unable to perform a wireless enterprise activation because there is insufficient network coverage. The user has the BlackBerry Desktop Manager installed. When attempting to perform a wired enterprise activation, the enterprise activation is unable to initialize. 

Which three actions ensure the enterprise activation initializes? (Choose three.)

A. Switch to a new USB port on the computer.
B. Create a new MAPI profile on computer.
C. Enable port 4101 on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
D. Delete and undelete the Desktop [SYNC] service book on the BlackBerry device.
E. Uninstall and reinstall the BlackBerry Desktop Manager software on the computer.

Answer: A, B, C

Question 6.
A company utilizing a segmented network structure recently installed the BlackBerry Collaboration Service, configured it to use the TLS protocol for Microsoft Windows Messenger on its own server, and placed it in a network segment from the Microsoft Live Communications Server. 

Which port must be open on the internal firewall to allow TLS traffic? (Choose one.)

A. 5061
B. 5060
C. 443
D. 8443
E. 1533

Answer: A

Question 7.
A PIN message is sent from the BlackBerry device and a letter D is displayed above the checkmark beside the message in the message list. 

What does this indicate about the status of the message? (Choose one.)

A. It is delayed.
B. It is denied.
C. It is delivered.
D. It is deleted.
E. It is dropped.

Answer: C

Question 8.
A company needs to reduce the load on the Microsoft SQL Server hosting the BlackBerryConfiguration Database. Which component can be configured to reduce the number of queries made by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to the database? (Choose one.)

A. Microsoft SQL Query Analyzer
B. BlackBerry Manager
C. Database Notification System
D. Database Replication System
E. Microsoft SQL Server Agent

Answer: C

Question 9.
What option can be disabled to restrict Microsoft Excel attachments only for the BlackBerry Attachment Service? (Choose one.)

A. The attachment type using the BlackBerry Server Configuration utility
B. The attachment type using an IT policy setting in the BlackBerry Manager
C. Attachment viewing through the BlackBerry device user properties on the BlackBerry Manager
D. The attachment type using the BlackBerry Resource Kit
E. The BlackBerry Attachment Service through Microsoft Windows services

Answer: A

Question 10.
Which type of database replication is supported in the BlackBerry Enterprise Solution? (Choose one.)

A. Transactional
B. Analytical processing
C. Merge
D. Snapshot
E. Architectural

Answer: A


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Braindumps for "N10-004" Exam

Network+ (2009)

 Question 1.
Which of the following LAN connection technologies has a full duplex speed of 200Mbps and uses a CAT5e cable?

A. 1000Base-X
B. 100Base-FX
C. 1000Base-TX
D. 100Base-T

Answer: D

Question 2.
A technician must enable which of the following services to prevent broadcast storms?

A. DHCP
B. Port mirroring
C. Spanning tree
D. Bonding

Answer: C

Question 3.
One end of a CAT5 cable is punched down following the 568B standard. 

The other end should be terminated using which standard to make a straight-through cable?

A. 568B
B. RJ-45
C. 568A
D. RJ-11

Answer: A

Question 4.
Which of the following IPv4 address pairs would be able to share files on a network using a hub?

A. 10.192.2.220/16 and 10.254.2.222/16
B. 10.254.2.220/16 and 10.254.2.222/24
C. 10.192.2.220/16 and 10.254.2.222/16
D. 10.254.2.220/16 and 10.254.2.222/16

Answer: D

Question 5.
Which of the following networks has the LEAST likelihood of collisions?

A. Ring
B. Mesh
C. Star
D. Bus

Answer: A

Question 6.
A technician is configuring a router for a SOHO network. The technician has changed the IP address scheme on the router and disabled DHCP service before the wireless was configured. After the router updates the information, the PC can no longer connect to the router. 

Which of the following would be the BEST solution to reestablish the connection while maintaining the routers current configuration state?

A. Restart the PC so it obtains a new IP address from the router.
B. Restart the router so that the PC obtains a new IP address.
C. Assign a static IP address on the PC that matches the router.
D. Use APIPA to connect the PC to the router.

Answer: C

Question 7.
Which of the following is the number of bits used for IPv6?

A. 128
B. 32
C. 64
D. 256

Answer: A

Question 8.
Which of the following network components would be used to create VLANs?

A. Routers
B. Gateways
C. Switches
D. Bridges

Answer: C

Question 9.
Which of the following protocols is the MOST susceptible to a packet sniffer?

A. SFTP
B. SSH
C. HTTPS
D. SNMPv2

Answer: D

Question 10.
Which of the following WAN technologies uses fiber as a transmission medium?

A. T1
B. ADSL
C. E1
D. SONET

Answer: D


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Braindumps for "PK0-002" Exam

It Project+

 Question 1.
During the planning and implementation phases, there is often a need to conduct trade-offs between several approaches to the project execution.
The trade-offs are made between_______ .

A. Scope, issues, and risks.
B. Risk, schedule, and quality.
C. Cost, schedule, and quality.
D. Overhead, direct cost, and expenses.
E. Design, engineering, and implementation.

Answer: C

Question 2.
What is the core function of a project manager?

A. Project integration
B. Client interface
C. Systems design
D. Quality assurance
E. Facilitating meetings

Answer: A

Question 3.
Which two methods are valid for developing project task duration estimates? (Choose two)

A. Historical data
B. Expert judgement
C. Value engineering
D. Stochastic estimating
E. Bottoms-up estimating

Answer: A, B

Question 4.
Which component is used to estimate resource requirements, activity durations, and costs?

A. Project plan
B. Implementation plan
C. Business requirements
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Answer: D

Question 5.
DRAG DROP
Exhibit:
 

Task A is dependent on the completion of Task B. Task C is dependent on the starting of
Task B.
Place the tasks in the order in which they will start.

Answer:
 

Question 6.
The firm you are working with, ITCertKeys.com, has a number of stakeholders with a wide variety of backgrounds. The stakeholders do not agree on the objectives for the project. 

What is the first thing you should do in order to resolve the differences the stakeholders have with respect to the project objectives?

A. Conduct a series of meetings with all stakeholders.
B. Conduct a brainstorming session with all stakeholders.
C. Prepare and deliver a presentation on objective development to all stakeholders.
D. Conduct interviews with each stakeholder to understand which objectives they feel are critical.

Answer: D

Question 7.
The project is well under way and you notice that the enthusiastic support of an executive stakeholder has diminished. You believe the executive now has doubt about the project.

Which three abilities would best help a project manager resolve this situation? (Choose one)

A. The ability to manage team resources.
B. The ability to identify the areas of doubts.
C. The ability to develop meaningful status reports.
D. The ability to act without creating negative impact.

Answer: B

Question 8.
Your project team has five developers. Developers 1 has a personal issue with the work schedule of Developer 2, and refuses to work overtime unless Developer 2 also works overtime. All team members, except Developer 2 work five days a week, averaging between 45 to 52 hours per week. Developer 2 works four days a week, and averages 48 hours per week. Your project is 70 percent complete, and is three percent behind schedule. Everyone met their task duration goals up to this point, but the project has been slightly delayed by an external vendor. If everyone works together you think you can make up the slippage. You worry that Developer 1's issue will cause the project to be delayed further. The rest of the group is working well together and Developer 2 is not aware of the issue.

What should you do to resolve the issue?

A. Have the two team members get together and work out their issues.
B. Talk with Developer 1 to find out the real issues and help him work on these issues.
C. See if Developer 2 can change this work schedule until the project is back on track.
D. Conduct a team building process with all the team members and recognize each of them for 
    their accomplishments.

Answer: B

Question 9.
You project plan designates several development phases. Some of the phases overlap. Your plan indicates where executive management involvement should occur. Executive management involvement includes the sign-off upon completion of a phase and approval for the start of the next phase. The plan indicates that the executive management meeting should take place in ten days. You are aware that the current phase will not be completed for 20 days. You are three percent ahead of budget in terms of cost, and one percent ahead of budget in terms of time. These figures are in-line with the variance allowance set for the phase by the executive management at the inception of the phase. 

What should you do?

A. Reduce the estimates of work outstanding to minimize the reported overrun in time and cost.
B. Move some of the incomplete tasks into a later phase as there is some slack in the plan that 
    could be utilized.
C. Speak to the executive on the executive management and explain the need to delay the 
    executive management meeting by 10 days.
D. Hold the executive management meeting in the previously appointed date so there is no 
    inconvenience to the executive management members.

Answer: C

Question 10.
The ratio of Budgeted Cost of Work Performed to Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled (BCWP/BCWS) is called______ .

A. Critical Ratio (CR)
B. Cost Variance (CV)
C. Cost Performance Index (CPI)
D. Schedule Performance Index (SPI)

Answer: D

Explanation:
Schedule performance index
The schedule performance index (SPI) is a ratio of the work performed on a task versus the work scheduled. Here is its formula:
SPI = BCWP/BCWSAn SPI of less than 1.0 means you're behind schedule; a value over 1.0 means you're taking less time than you expected.


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CompTIA Security + (2008 Edition) Exam

 Question 1.
Who is responsible for establishing access permissions to network resources in the DAC access control model?

A. The system administrator.
B. The owner of the resource.
C. The system administrator and the owner of the resource.
D. The user requiring access to the resource.

Answer: B

Question 2.
Why do security researchers often use virtual machines?

A. To offer an environment where new network applications can be tested
B. To offer a secure virtual environment to conduct online deployments
C. To offer a virtual collaboration environment to discuss security research
D. To offer an environment where malware can be executed with minimal risk to equipment and 
    software

Answer: D

Question 3.
Which access control system allows the system administrator to establish access permissions to network resources?

A. MAC
B. DAC
C. RBAC
D. None of the above.

Answer: A

Question 4.
You work as a network administrator for your company. Taking personal safety into consideration, what fire suppression substances types can effectively prevent damage to electronic equipment?

A. Halon
B. CO
C. Water
D. Foam

Answer: B

Question 5.
Which of the following access control models uses roles to determine access permissions?

A. MAC
B. DAC
C. RBAC
D. None of the above.

Answer: C

Question 6.
Given: John is a network administrator. He advises the server administrator of his company to implement whitelisting, blacklisting, closing-open relays and strong authentication techniques. Question: 

Which threat is being addressed?

A. Viruses
B. Adware
C. Spam
D. Spyware

Answer: C

Question 7.
Most current encryption schemes are based on

A. digital rights management
B. time stamps
C. randomizing
D. algorithms

Answer: D

Question 8.
Study the following items carefully, which one will permit a user to float a domain registration for a maximum of five days?

A. Spoofing
B. DNS poisoning
C. Domain hijacking
D. Kiting

Answer: D

Question 9.
Which of the following types of cryptography is typically used to provide an integrity check?

A. Public key
B. Asymmetric
C. Symmetric
D. Hash

Answer: D

Question 10.
The Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a set of hardware, software, people, policies, and procedures needed to create, manage, store, distribute, and revoke digital certificates. 

The public key infrastructure is based on which encryption schemes?

A. Symmetric
B. Quantum
C. Asymmetric
D. Elliptical curve

Answer: C


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Braindumps for "ED0-001" Exam

Ericsson MSC/BSC Competence Exam

 Question 1.
Which of the following commands is used to add a device to the route?

A. EXDRI
B. EXDAI
C. EXDRP
D. EXDRE

Answer: A

Question 2.
Which of the following is the correct command sequence for a CP Fault?

A. REPRI,REMRI,RECPI
B. REPCI,REMCI,RECCI
C. RECCI,REPCI,REMCI
D. GSTEI,NTTEI,TCTDI

Answer: B

Question 3.
Which of the following commands is used to make a copy of backup file RELFSW1 to the oldest file in the SFR group?

A. SYTUC
B. SYNIC
C. SYSFT
D. SYFSC

Answer: C

Question 4.
A rolling database of active and previous hardware alarms can be viewed using ______ ?

A. ATR
B. ALB
C. ALV
D. ASM

Answer: B

Question 5.
Which file is used for automatic data dumps and automatic system reloads?

A. RELFSW0
B. RELFSW1
C. .RELFSW2
D. RELFSW100

Answer: A

Question 6.
What MOs can be tested with a command-ordered equipment test?

A. TG,TRXC,TX,RX and TS
B. CF,IS,TF,TRXC,TX,RX and TS
C. TG,CF,IS,TF,TRXC,RX,TX and TS
D. TG,TS,RX and TX

Answer: B

Question 7.
Which of the following commands is used to define a channel group for a cell?

A. RLDEI
B. RLDGI
C. RLDEC
D. RLDSI

Answer: B

Question 8.
Which of the following commands is used to print the process control in service performance log data?

A. PRINTPROCESS
B. ALIST
C. ISPPRINT
D. ALOGLIST

Answer: C

Question 9.
Which of the following pairs of commands is used to replace the software version for the Managed Objects?

A. RXEST and RXPLI
B. RXMOI and RXMSC
C. RXMSC and RXPLE
D. RXMSC and RXPLI

Answer: D

Question 10.
Software Error Information can be retrieved by command_____ ?

A. PTRIP
B. SYRIP
C. SYDIP
D. SYRSP

Answer: B


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Braindumps for "ED0-002" Exam

Ericsson bts competence exam

 Question 1.
The abbreviation "VSWR" stands for ___.

A. Variable Signal Wave Radio
B. Voltage Strength Wire Ratio
C. Very Strong Wave Radio
D. Voltage Standing Wave Ratio

Answer: D

Question 2.
What is the proper resistance of an ESD wrist strap?

A. 1 ohm(O)
B. 1 Mega ohm (MO)
C. 10 O
D. 1 MO

Answer: B

Question 3.
In OMT, what view shows the RUs installed in the GSM cabinet?

A. System View
B. Radio view
C. MO View
D. Cabinet View

Answer: D

Question 4.
What could a flashing green LED indicate in an MPU?

A. Fault is localized
B. Wait, activity in progress
C. Battery Power depleted
D. None of the above

Answer: B

Question 5.
What common LED indicators are in the CDU, PSU, BFU, and dTRU?

A. RBS Fault
B. Operational
C. Fault
D. B and C

Answer: D

Question 6.
How many T1s can one DXU-21 support?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: D

Question 7.
An ESD wrist strap must always be used when handling or installing_____.

A. a DXU
B. printed circuit boards
C. TRU/dTRU
D. All of the above

Answer: D

Question 8.
Bends to RF cables (coaxial) should be a minimum often (10) times the cable diameter.

A. RLSTC:CELL=12002B, STATE=HALTED;
B. RLSTC:SITE=12002,STATE=HALTED;
C. RLSTP:CELL=12002B, HALTED,
D. RLSTP:CELL=12002B, STATE=HALTED;

Answer: A

Question 9.
The abbreviation "COD" stands for_____

A. Command Document
B. Command Description
C. Command On Demand
D. None of the above

Answer: B

Question 10.
In OMT, the System View shows:

A. BSC, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, ISP, and ESB
B. BTS, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, IDB, and ESI
C. BSC, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, IDB, and ETS
D. BSC, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, IDB, and ESB

Answer: D

Question 11.
If VSWR supervision is disabled in the IDB, an alarm is sent to the BSC if the level reaches_____

A. 1.8
B. 2.2
C. 2.8
D. The alarm is not sent to the BSC


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Braindumps for "1Y0-A09" Exam

Implementing Citrix XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0

 Question 1.
An administrator created a template of a Microsoft Windows XP SP3 virtual machine (VM) and now needs to modify it. 

How can the administrator modify the template?

A. Export the template from the XenServer host, import it to another system, power it on and 
    Make the changes
B. Power on the VM template, make the changes and save the template
C. Create a new VM based on the original template, make the changes to the new VM and turn 
    the new VM into the new template
D. Put the XenServer host in Maintenance mode, make the changes to the VM template and then 
    exit Maintenance Mode

Answer: C

Question 2.
Which step requires an administrator to enable maintenance mode on a XenServer host?

A. Creating Fibre Channel storage repositories
B. Enabling high availability
C. Creating NIC bonds
D. Enabling storage multipathing

Answer: D

Question 3.
Which storage repository type allows an administrator to create a new storage repository that does not erase any existing data on the specified storage target?

A. EQUAL
B. NFS
C. EXT
D. NetApp

Answer: B

Question 4.
What must an administrator configure on the pool master to allow migration of virtual machines (VMs) between servers in the pool?

A. Shared Storage
B. NIC bond
C. High availability
D. Management Interface

Answer: A

Question 5.
Which is a valid MAC address?

A. 6A:70:A0:5E:D0
B. 255.255.255.255
C. 6A:70:A0:5E:D0:04
D. 127.0.0.1

Answer: C

Question 6.
DRAG DROP
An administrator needs to connect a network to an external VLAN using the command line interface (CLI). Click the Task button to place the steps necessary to connect a network to an external VLAN using the CLI in the correct order. Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item.
 

Answer:
 

Question 7.
DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to place the steps in the correct order for an administrator to configure multipathing using XenCenter. Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item. 

What is the correct order of steps for the configuration of multipathing using XenCenter?
 

Answer:
 

Question 8.
Which two XenServer CLI commands are valid? (Choose two.)

A. Pool-ha-enable
B. Pool-backup
C. Pool-recover-slaves
D. Pool-create-pool

Answer: A, C

Question 9.
An administrator recently created an ISO library for a XenServer environment. The administrator now wants to make the ISO library available to all XenServer hosts. 

What must the administrator do before the ISO library can be attached using XenCenter?

A. Copy the ISO library to the control domain
B. Build a directory to copy the ISO library into
C. Make an exploded network repository using FTP
D. Create an external NFS or CIFS share directory

Answer: D

Question 10.
An organization has a single installation of XenServer Enterprise Edition 4.0. The administrator plans to upgrade the host to version 5.0. 

Which upgrade path should the administrator take?

A. Upgrade XenCenter to 5.0 and use the Updates Manager
B. Upgrade directly from version 4.0 to version 5.0
C. Upgrade to version 4.1 and then upgrade to version 5.0
D. Upgrade the XenServer using Emergency Mode

Answer: C


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