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I require some new questions. please upload quickly, i apear next wednesday.. advance thanks..
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Send me the latest dumps please thanks
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Question 1.
In a high availability scenario, what is the longest expected downtime for a Cisco Agent Desktop failover?
A. 30 seconds
B. 45 seconds
C. 10 seconds
D. 60 seconds
Answer: D
Question 2.
CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor (ITEM) provides what two serviceability capabilities? (Choose two.)
A. Monitoring of Cisco voice elements
B. Diagnostic trace tools to analyze connectivity
C. Problem alerts for operations personnel
D. User Tracking to track IP telephones
E. Tool to collect syslog messages from multiple sources
Answer: A, C
Question 3.
Which configuration enables a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express server to fail over to a secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager server when the primary server fails?
A. Configure LDAP with a secondary profile.
B. Configure a second Cisco Unified Communications Manager telephony user with an alternate
range of CTI ports.
C. Configure the telephony provider with a primary and secondary Cisco Unified
Communications Manager IP address.
D. No special configuration is needed.
Answer: C
Question 4.
What happens if all CTI ports for the configured CTI Port Group are busy when a new call arrives?
A. CallManager will forward the call to the directory number configured for forward-on busy for
this CTI Route Point in CallManager.
B. Caller will receive ringing treatment.
C. An exception is raised, but the call is accepted and processed.
D. Caller will receive network busy treatment.
E. CallManager will forward the caller to the directory number configured in IPCC Express for
overflow.
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which agent will be selected when the Resource Selection Criteria is set to circular routing?
A. the next available agent, based on the last agent selected and the agent order in the
Resources list
B. the agent who has been in the Available state for the longest amount of time
C. the next available agent with the highest priority, as determined by the agent order in the
Resources list
D. the agent assigned to the selected Resource Group and is thus qualified to be selected
Answer: A
Question 6.
Which two Customer Response Solution deployment scenarios are valid for Cisco Unified Communications? (Choose two.)
A. Contact Center Express communication with ICM via a co-resident PG
B. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise CTI-OS toolkit
C. IP IVR integrating with the Enterprise version to function as a queue point and self-service
platform
D. Contact Center Express communicating with ICM via a standalone PG on an expansion server
E. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise Outbound option
Answer: A, C
Question 7.
In CRS Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Unified CM Telephony group?
A. CRS CTI Route Point
B. CTI Ports
C. CRS Call Control Group
D. Communications Manager Call Control Group
Answer: B
Question 8.
How is the default e-mail address in the E-mail Subsystem Configuration page used?
A. It receives all mail sent in the Send E-mail step as a bcc.
B. It is used if no e-mail contact is specified in the Create E-mail step.
C. It becomes the From address in the Send E-Mail step if no address is specified.
D. It automatically receives alarms generated by the Cisco CRS Server.
Answer: C
Question 9.
Where do you enable the CRS engine?
A. Cluster Setup page
B. Server Setup page
C. Publisher Activation page
D. Component Activation page
Answer: D
Question 10.
An organization wants to collect an account number from a customer via IVR prompting. Then, using a keystroke macro, they want to pop the account number into the account number field in the agent's CRM desktop application. The keystroke macro will also initiate the CRM desktop application, executing a database lookup from the CRM Database server to retrieve the customer record.
Assuming the organization wants the lowest cost solution, what product does this organization need for this capability?
A. IPCC Express Premium
B. IP IVR
C. IPCC Express Standard
D. IPCC Express Enhanced
E. IPCC Enterprise
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Which of these is a benefit of an integrated security management system?
A. It provides configuration, monitoring, and troubleshooting capabilities across a wide range of
security products.
B. It leverages existing network management systems such as HP Open View to lower the cost of
implementation.
C. It integrates security management capabilities into the router or switch.
D. It integrates security device management products and collects events on an "as needed"
Basis to reduce management overhead.
E. It provides a single point of contact for all security configuration tasks thereby enhancing the
return on investment.
Answer: A
Question 2.
DRAG DROP
Drop
Answer:
Question 3.
Which service component within the prepare phase recommends the appropriate technology strategy to address a business requirement of the customer?
A. identifying what a customer requires from a proposed solution
B. determining what end-user training a customer requires
C. analyzes the customer's business requirements and recommends the appropriate Cisco
technologies to meet business requirements
D. addressing a customer's physical requirements
Answer: C
Question 4.
What are two important approaches to communicate when identifying a customer's security risks? (Choose two.)
A. Security should be a continuous process.
B. Security solutions should come from multiple vendors to make it easier to coordinate security
events from the point of origin.
C. The designated security expert should report to the IT department, since that is where the
solution will be implemented.
D. Business strategy should directly relate to the security policy and budget.
E. Smaller companies are at less risk than larger enterprises, so their security needs are not as
great.
Answer: A, D
Question 5.
Which of the following best describe the customer benefit of creating a systems acceptance test plan in the design phase?
A. reduce operating costs and limit change-related incidents by providing a consistent and
Efficient set of processes
B. improve the return on investment and hasten migration by identifying and planning for
necessary infrastructure changes and resource additions, as well as reduce deployment costs
by analyzing gaps early in the planning process to determine what is needed to support the
system
C. improve its ability to make sound financial decisions by developing a business case based on
Its business requirements and establishing a basis for developing a technology strategy
D. reduce unnecessary disruption, delays, rework, and other problems by establishing test cases
for use in verifying that the system meets operational, functional, and interface requirements
Answer: D
Question 6.
A Cisco Catalyst switch can belong to how many VTP domains?
A. 2
B. 1 to 4,096
C. 1
D. 1 to 1,005
E. no limit
Answer: C
Question 7.
The Cisco ASA Security Appliance can offer the benefit of integrating which three security services into one device? (Choose three.)
A. PIX firewall
B. VPN Concentrator
C. IPS
D. DDoS Anomaly Guard and Detector
E. CSA MC
F. ACS server
Answer: A, B, C
Question 8.
A customer has deployed a wireless core feature set using autonomous access points and now wants to include a satellite building 4,500 feet away from the main campus. The customer also wants to provide wireless access to a courtyard for wireless clients in close proximity to the antenna mounting position.
Which Cisco Aironet product is the most applicable solution?
A. Cisco Aironet 1000 Series
B. Cisco Aironet 1300 Series
C. Cisco Aironet 1100 Series
D. Cisco Aironet 1400 Series
E. Cisco Aironet 1200 Series
Answer: B
Question 9.
What is one benefit of the Cisco anti-X defense strategy?
A. virtual firewall protection
B. malware, virus, and worm mitigation
C. applications security
D. security events correlation for proactive response
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which two of these statements best describe the benefits of Cisco's wireless IDS functionality? (Choose two.)
A. Autonomous APs must be dedicated IDS sensors while lightweight APs can combine client
traffic and RF monitoring.
B. Cisco or CCX compatible client cards can extend the RF IDS service for autonomous APs.
C. 2.4GHz RF management can monitor both 802.11 and non-802.11 RF interference.
D. APs only monitor the RF channels that are servicing the clients.
E. AirDefense for wireless IDS is required by autonomous APs.
Answer: B, C
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Question 1.
Which of the following best describe the customer benefits of change management in the operate phase?
A. reduce unnecessary disruption, delays, rework, and other problems by establishing test cases
for use in verifying that the system meets operational, functional, and interface requirements
B. improve its ability to make sound financial decisions by developing a business case based on
its business requirements and establishing a basis for developing a technology strategy
C. reduce operating costs and limit change. related incidents by providing a consistent and
efficient set of processes
D. improve the return on investment and hasten migration by identifying and planning for
necessary infrastructure changes and resource additions, as well as reduce deployment costs
by analyzing gaps early in the planning process to determine what is needed to support the
system
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which of these is the best definition of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach?
A. It defines the minimum set of services required to successfully deploy and operate a set of
Cisco technologies.
B. It determines how best to price Cisco products.
C. It provides partners with a useful way to leverage Cisco resources.
D. It consists of these phases: plan, deploy, support, and troubleshoot.
Answer: A
Question 3.
What two types of telephony interfaces are used for PSTN connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Digital
B. Optical
C. Analog
D. CDMA
Answer: A, C
Question 4.
Which statement correctly describes the keys witch model of deployment for call processing?
A. All IP Phones are able to answer any incoming PSTN call on any line
B. PSTN calls are routed through a receptionist or automated attendant.
C. All IP Phones in the system have a single unique extension number.
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which definition best describes the implementation service component within the implement phase?
A. providing a step-by-step plan that details the installation and service. commission tasks
required in order to create a controlled. implementation environment that emulates a customer
network
B. assessing the ability of site facilities to accommodate proposed infrastructure changes
C. developing and executing proof-of-concept tests, validating high-level infrastructure design,
and identifying any design enhancements
D. Installing, configuring and integrating systems components based on an implementation plan
developed in earlier phases E. improving a customer's infrastructure security system
Answer: D
Question 6.
A customer with a small enterprise network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. Minimizing costs is one of the customer's highest priorities. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired.
Based on the traffic patterns, which topology would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. full mesh
B. partial mesh
C. point-to-multipoint
D. huB. anD.spoke
Answer: D
Question 7.
How can the proper configuration of Voice Mail be tested at an end user's IP phone?
A. Press the "i" button.
B. Press the "Settings" button.
C. Press the "Services" button.
D. Press the "Messages" button
Answer: D
Question 8.
In what location is it recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. distribution layer
B. core layer
C. access layer
D. network management functional module
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which of these is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, planning, analysis, design, development, implementation, operations and
maintenance
B. project planning, site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing,
and operations
C. Prepare, plan design implement operate, and optimize
D. analysis, design, deployment, testing, implementation, and production I E. presales, project
planning, development, implementation, operations testing, and operations signoff
Answer: C
Question 10.
What port role assignment would you make for the Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System?
A. IP Phone and desktop
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D. Cisco 871W
Answer: B
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Question 1.
LSC validation is failing on a new SCCP IP phone that you have just added to the Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 cluster. No other IP phones are experiencing any problems with LSC validation.
What can you do to help pinpoint the problem?
A. Check for security alarms
B. Verify that the authentication string is correct in the Cisco Unified CallManager device
configuration screen
C. View the SDI trace output
D. Use the Security configuration menu on the IP phone to verify that an LSC has been
downloaded to the IP phone
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which three capabilities can't be configured if the default dial peer is matched? (Choose three.)
A. Set preference to 1
B. Invoke a Tcl application
C. Enable dtmf-relay
D. Set codec to G.711
E. Disable DID
F. Disable VAD
Answer: B, C, F
Question 3.
When using trace output to troubleshooting a Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 problem, how can you collect and view the trace files?
A. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and
then use the embedded RTMT tool to view the trace files
B. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and
download the RTMT plug-in from the CallManager Administration page to view the trace output
C. Download the RTMT plug-in from the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page to view
the preconfigured trace files
D. Configure the proper alarms and traces on the Cisco Unified CallManager Administration page
and view the output with the RTMT plug-in
Answer: B
Question 4.
You are troubleshooting why a user can't make calls to the PSTN. You are reviewing trace files and you found where the user's IP phone initiates the call but you never see the call go out the gateway.
What is the next step in troubleshooting this issue?
A. Look in the SDL trace file to see if there is a signal to another Cisco Unified CallManager node
with the same time-stamp
B. Look in the MGCP trace file to determine which MGCP gateway the call was sent to
C. Look in the IP Voice Media Streaming APP trace file to see if an MTP was invoked
D. Look in the SDL trace file to see if there is a signal to anther Cisco Unified CallManager node
with the same TCP handle
Answer: A
Question 5.
Exhibit:
Your work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Please study the exhibit carefully.
Voice bearer traffic is mapped to which queue in FastEthernet0/2?
A. Queue 2
B. Queue 3
C. Queue 1
D. Queue 4
Answer: A
Question 6.
Exhibit:
Your work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Please study the exhibit carefully. You have received a trouble ticket stating that calls to international numbers are failing. To place an international call, users dial the access code, "9," followed by "011", the country code and the destination number. After entering the debug isdn 1931 command on the MGCP gateway, you have the user attempt the call again.
Base on the debug output, what is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The TON in incorrect
B. The circuit is not configured correctly or has a physical layer issue
C. Cisco Unified CallManaager is not stripping the access code before sending the call to the
gateway
D. The gateway dial peer needs to prefix "011" to the called number so the PSTN knows this is
an internation call
E. The user's CSS does not permit international calls
Answer: A
Question 7.
You have developed a dial plan for Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 solution. All the route patterns, partitions, calling search spaces and translation rules have been configured. Before starting up the system you wish to test the dial plan for errors.
Which Cisco Unified CallManager tool will simplify this testing?
A. Route Plan Report
B. Dial Plan Installer
C. Dialed Number Analyzer
D. RTMT Traces and Alarms
Answer: C
Question 8.
You have just obtained a list of the following options:
all patterns
unassigned DN
Call Park
Conference
Directory Number
Translation Pattern
Call pickup group
Route pattern
Message waiting
Voice mail
Attendant console
What have you selected in order to produce this list?
A. Route Plan > External Route Plan Wizard
B. Control Center > Feature Services
C. Route Plan > Route Plan Report
D. Dialed Number Analyzer
Answer: C
Question 9.
You have configured the Enable Keep Alive check under Trace Filter settings.
How does this change the trace output?
A. It adds the IP address of the endpoint in hex
B. It maps the unique TCP handle for the endpoint to the MAC address of the endpoint in the
trace output
C. It adds the SCCP messages and all fields sent as part of that message
D. It adds TCP socket numbers between the endpoint and Cisco Unified CallManager for the
session
Answer: B
Question 10.
When using trace output to troubleshooting a Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 problem, how can you collect and view the trace files?
A. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and
download the RTMT plug-in from the CallManager Administration page to view the trace output
B. Configure the proper alarms and traces on the Cisco Unified CallManager Administration page
and view the output with the RTMT plug-in
C. Download the RTMT plug-in from the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page to view
the preconfigured trace files
D. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and
then use the embedded RTMT tool to view the trace files
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Exhibit:
The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that the aggregate bandwidth between zones that are controlled by the Portland Gatekeeper and the Seattle Gatekeeper is limited to 100,000 kbps?
A. bandwidth interzone 166667
B. bandwidth remote 166667
C. bandwidth session 166667
D. bandwidth region 166667
E. bandwidth zone 166667
Answer: B
Question 2.
ITCertKeys.com has a single Cisco IPVC 3511 MCU E. At present there are two conferences occurring as follows:
Conference 1:three conference participantstransrating 768 kbps to 384 kbpsenhanced continuous presence
Conference 2:three conference participantstransrating 768 kbps to 384 kbpsmultiple
conference view (3)A third conference is desired with the following requirements:
Conference 3:three conference participants
What will occur when the third conference is attempted?
A. The third conference will succeed as desired.
B. The third conference will succeed, but without the enhanced continuous presence.
C. The third conference will fail because an IPVC 3511 MCU does not have the resources for
three conferences of three people each.
D. The third conference will fail because the EMP module does not have the resources to provide
the number of required services.
Answer: A
Question 3.
Exhibit:
ITCertKeys.com is using Cisco meeting place at its world headquarters; ITCertKeys.com also has a Cisco CallManager cluster. The Cisco CallManager cluster includes a video deployment with both SCCP and H.323 video endpoints. The videoconferencing capability is provided by a Cisco IPVC 3540 Series Videoconferencing System.
Using the topology in the exhibit, what should be the video gateway location?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B
Question 4.
ITCertKeys.com is deploying Cisco VT Advantage to enable executives to participate in video calls with customers and suppliers.
Which two devices can be used to allow these external calls to be placed over a dedicated PRI? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco IPVC 3521
B. Cisco IPVC 3526
C. Cisco IPVC 3540
D. Cisco Multiservice IP-to-IP Gateway
E. Cisc MCM proxy
Answer: B, C
Question 5.
Exhibit:
A network has two gatekeepers that control four zones.
Which command is used to ensure that the aggregate bandwidth between the Seattle and Spokane zones is limited to 100,000 kbps?
A. bandwidth interzone 166667
B. bandwidth remote 166667
C. bandwidth session 166667
D. bandwidth region 166667
E. bandwidth zone 166667
Answer: A
Question 6.
Exhibit:
CAC is being configured for the centralized call-processing video telephony network. Each video terminal is capable of a maximum data rate of 320 kbps, and two video terminals are planned for each site. The requirement is to make two simultaneous video calls between the ITCertKeys main office and each remote ITCertKeys branch office site. The audio codec will be G.711.
In order to ensure quality of service for calls, which action should be taken when configuring Cisco CallManager?
A. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 922
kbps.
B. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 384
kbps.
C. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 768
kbps.
D. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 922 kbps
between the central site and each remote site.
E. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 384 kbps
between the central site and each remote site.
F. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 768 kbps
between the central site and each remote site.
Answer: C
Question 7.
ITCertKeys.com has a requirement for up to 10 simultaneous conferences of four people each, and each conference requires 384-kbps to 128-kbps transrating and H.261 to H.263 video transcoding.
What should this company purchase?
A. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A
B. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP blade
C. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP3 blade
D. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A
E. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP blade
F. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP3 blade
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which three factors must be considered when designing a H.323 videoconferencing dial plan? (Choose three.)
A. the number of sites in the enterprise
B. the number and location of gatekeepers
C. the incoming PSTN call routing method
D. the DNs and location of conferencing MCUs to be deployed
E. the videoconferencing features and applications to be deployed
F. the location of voice gateways
Answer: A, C, D
Question 9.
Exhibit:
The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that no single call in Zone Eugene uses more than 768 kbps?
A. bandwidth interzone 768
B. bandwidth limit 768
C. bandwidth session 768
D. bandwidth call 768
E. bandwidth zone 768
Answer: C
Question 10.
What is traditionally used in a H.323 gatekeeper to pool endpoints into groups?
A. zones
B. clusters
C. calling search spaces
D. toll bypass routing
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Which Cisco Security product is used to perform a Security Posture Assessment of client workstations?
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Cisco Security Agent
C. Cisco Security Posture Assessment Tool
D. Cisco NAS Appliance
E. Cisco ACS
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which three policy types can be assigned to a network user role in the Cisco NAC Appliance architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Allowed IP Address ranges
B. Network Port Scanning Plug-ins
C. VPN and roaming policies
D. Inactivity period
E. Session Duration
F. Minimum Password length
Answer: B, C, E
Question 3.
Which two components should be included in a network design document? (Choose two.)
A. Complete network blueprint
B. Operating Expense
C. Risk Analysis
D. Configuration for each device
E. Detailed part list
Answer: A, E
Question 4.
DRAG DROP
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Your boss, Miss. ITCertKeys, is interested in Cisco Security modules. Match the descriptions with the proper module. Use only options that apply.
Answer:
Question 5.
Which statement is true about the Cisco Security MARS Global Controller?
A. Rules that are created on a Local Controller can be pushed to the Global Controller
B. Most data archiving is done by the Global Controller
C. The Global Controller receives detailed incidents information from the Local Controllers and
correlates the incidents between multiple Local Controllers
D. The Global Controller Centrally Manages of a group of Local Controllers
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which certificates are needed for a device to join a certificate-authenticated network?
A. The Certificates of the device and its peer
B. The Certificates of the certificate authority, the device and the peer
C. The Certificates of the certificate authority and the peer
D. The Certificates of the certificate authority and the device
Answer: D
Question 7.
Which three Cisco Security products help to prevent application misuse and abuse? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco ASA 5500 Series Adaptive Security Appliances
B. Cisco IOS FW and IPS
C. Cisco Traffic Anomaly Detector
D. Cisco Security Agent
E. Cisco Trust Agent
F. NAC Appliance (Cisco Clean Access)
Answer: A, B, D
Question 8.
DRAG DROP
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Your boss, Miss. ITCertKeys, is interested attack methodologies. Match the descriptions with the proper methodology.
Use only options that apply.
Answer:
Question 9.
Which two of these features are integrated security components of the Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance? (Chose two.)
A. VRF-aware firewall
B. Cisco ASA AIP SSM
C. VTI
D. Control Plane Policing
E. Anti-X
F. DMVPN
Answer: B, E
Question 10.
Which of these items is a valid method to verify a network security design?
A. Computer simulation
B. Network audit
C. Sing-off by the operations team
D. Pilot or prototype network
E. Analysis of earlier attacks
Answer: D
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Question 1. The Cisco Wireless Location Appliance can track up to how many devices? A. 1000 B. 2000 C. 2500 D. 1500 Answer: D Question 2. Which of the following functions on the wireless LAN controller is used to determine whether or not a rogue access point is connected to the same Layer 2 network? A. rogue detector B. rogue containment C. RLDP D. RIDP Answer: C Question 3. On a Cisco Aironet 1130 Series autonomous access point, the status indicator is blinking dark blue. What does this indicate? A. The access point is booting. B. A firmware upgrade is in progress. C. The internal radio has failed. D. An access point buffer overflow is occurring. Answer: B Question 4. How many WLANs can a REAP support when actively connected to a wireless controller? A. 8 B. 32 C. 4 D. 16 Answer: D Question 5. On a Cisco Aironet 1230 Series autonomous access point, the Status LED is solid red, and the Ethernet and Radio LEDs are both off. What does this indicate? A. A firmware upgrade is in progress. B. The internal radio has failed. C. An access point buffer overflow is occurring. D. The access point is booting. Answer: A Question 6. A wireless controller can reside in how many mobility groups? A. two B. three C. four D. one Answer: D Question 7. To implement the optional phase zero when using EAP-FAST for authentication, which of the following parameters must be set on the Cisco Secure ACS? A. EAP-FAST master server B. Allow automatic PAC provisioning C. client initial message D. authority ID info Answer: B Question 8. When conducting an Assisted Site Survey, the WLSE does which of the following during the Radio Scan process? A. chooses the least congested channel B. uses the configured channel C. sets all access points to the same channel D. steps through each of the allowed channels Answer: C Question 9. The wireless LAN controller maintains up to how many controller crash files? A. 20 B. 5 C. 15 D. 10 Answer: B Question 10. In a network using Cisco autonomous access points running WDS, what port is used for authentication by the local authentication service on an access point? A. 1813 B. 1645 C. 1646 D. 1812 Answer: D
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Question 1.
Which of the following markers can be set by Committed Access Rate (CAR)? (Choose all that apply.)
A. DSCP bits
B. QoS Group
C. ATM CLP bit
D. Frame Relay DE bit
E. IP precedence bits
Answer: A, B, E
Explanation:
Source: Cisco IP QoS Introduction, Page 64
Question 2.
What makes the DiffServ model more scalable than the IntServ model? (Choose all that apply.)
A. DiffServ makes use of per-aggregate QoS instead of per-flow QoS.
B. DiffServ makes use of hop-by-hop signaling which allows DiffServ to scale to a larger number
of application flows.
C. DiffServ is capable of implementing admission control either locally on the routers or be
offloaded to a central policy server using the COPS protocol.
D. DiffServ routers are not compelled to track the state information for each individual flow.
Answer: A, D
Incorrect:
B. No hop-by-hop signaling uses per-hop behavior
C. This is a feature of both models Sources: Cisco IP QoS Introduction
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/ ITK5 43/ ITK7 66/technologies_white_paper09186a00800a3e2f.shtml
Question 3.
The newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee technician wants to know what the benefits of
using traffic shaping to implement network rate limiting is.What will your reply be?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. Traffic shaping is an effective tool for rate-limiting VoIP traffic.
B. It will not increase packet loss.
C. It will not add to packet transit delays.
D. Traffic shaping can interact with congestion mechanisms embedded in Frame Relay.
E. Traffic shaping can be used on inbound and outbound traffic on a router.
Answer: B, D
Incorrect:
A. Shaping adds variable delay to traffic, possibly causing jitter
C. A shaper typically delays excess traffic using a buffer
E. This is a feature of policing
Explanation:
Source: Cisco IP QoS Traffic Shaping and Policing
Question 4.
Study the Exhibit below carefully:
Router# show interfaces hssi 0/0/0 rate-limit
Hssi0/0/0 45Mbps to R1
Input
matches: all traffic
params: 20000000 bps, 24000 limit, 24000 extended limit
conformed 8 packets, 428 bytes; action: transmit
exceed 0 packets, 0 bytes; action: drop
last packet: 8680ms ago, current burst: 0 bytes
last cleared 00:03:59 ago, conformed 0 bps, exceed 0 bps
Output
matches: all traffic
params: 20000000 bps, 24000 limit, 24000 extended limit
conformed 0 packets, 0 bytes; action: transmit
exceed 0 packets, 0 bytes; action; drop
last packet: 8680ms ago, current burst: 0 bytes
last cleared 00:03:59 ago, conformed 0 bps, exceed 0 bps
According to the exhibit, the router has been configured with Committed Access Rate (CAR) to rate limit traffic.
What data rate has the traffic been limited to?
A. 192 Kbps
B. 2400 Kbps
C. 4,5 Mbps
D. 20 Mbps
E. 40 Mbps
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the configuration example, CAR is applied on the input and output of a customer interface on the provider edge router. Traffic is policed to 256 Kbps on input and output, with some bursting allowed. All exceeding traffic is dropped at the provider edge. The result of the configuration is that traffic to and from the customer is limited to the average rate of approximately 256kbps (256000 in the configuration) with sustained bursts of approximately 32kbps (4kBps or 4000 in the configuration). Initial bursts at line speed can last up to 3 seconds because the token bucket can hold up to 96000 tokens (bytes) which equals 768000 bits (3 x 256000 bits).
Source: Cisco IP QoS Traffic Shaping and Policing, Page 4-91
Question 5:
The newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee technician wants to know which type of software queuing mechanism is Frame Relay Traffic Shaping implemented with on the physical interface.
What will your reply be?
A. Priority Queuing (PQ)
B. Custom Queuing (CQ)
C. FIFO
D. Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ)
E. IP Real Time Transport Protocol (RTP) Priority
Answer: D
Explanation:
Works on any (sub) interface type
Shapes traffic on that (sub)interface basis
Can use any physical interface queuing (FIFO, PQ, CQ or WFQ)
Only uses WFQ as the shaping queue (that is, on the input of the shaper)
In contrast, Frame Relay Traffic Shaping:
Works only on Frame Relay (sub) interfaces
Shapes traffic inside individual FR Virtual Circuits
Only permits WFQ as the physical interface queuing method
Can use any queuing method as the shaping queue (that is, on the input of the shaper)
Source: Cisco IP QoS Traffic Shaping and Policing, Page 4-47
Question 6.
Why is it beneficial to make use of Enhanced LMI (ELMI) on Cisco networks?
A. ELMI is responsible for providing virtual provisioning tools at the edge of the Frame Relay
network.
B. ELMI permits routers to dynamically download QoS information from Cisco switches for use in
traffic shaping or for congestion management purposes.
C. ELMI provides the router the ability to use additional QoS tools including rate limiting with CAR
and the Modular QoS Command Line Interface (MQC).
D. ELMI allows the router to deliver packets at the line rate of the Frame Relay interface,
regardless of the condition of the Frame Relay network.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Source: Cisco IP QoS Traffic Shaping and Policing, Page 4-58
Question 7.
Which of the following statements are true when you compare DSCP and IP Precedence to each other? (Choose all that apply.)
A. DSCP is backwards compatible with IP Precedence.
B. DSCP cannot be easily mapped into QoS because of its expanded classification options.
C. DSCP is more granular the IP Precedence, since more marking combinations are available.
D. DSCP appears stubby when compared IP Precedence, since devices make use of DSCP as
defined in RFC exclusively.
E. DSCP is 6 bits long and IP Precedence is 3 bits long.
F. DSCP is more restrictive than IP Precedence, since devices are only allowed to use DSCP as
defined in RFCs.
Answer: A, C, E
Explanation:
A)DSCP is backward compatible with IP Precedence (Class Selector Code point, RFC 1812) but not with the ToS byte definition from RFC 791 ("DTR" bits) Reference: Introduction to IP QoS (Course) p.45
Question 8.
Which MQC command would you use to perform marking properly?
A. precedence 5
B. ip precedence 5
C. set ip precedence 5
D. set ip mark precedence 5
E. mark ip precedence 5
Answer: C
Explanation:
IP precedence is encoded into the three high-order bits of the ToS field in the IP header. It supports eight classes of which two are reserved and should not be used for user-defined classes (IP precedence 6 and 7). IP precedence 0 is the default value and is usually used for the best-effort class. The set ip precedence command marks packets of a class with the specified precedence value.
Reference:
Introduction to IP QoS (Course) p.9-104
Question 9.
Which of the following statements aptly describes a network well designed for QoS?
A. Packets are classified at each router, based on as many detail as possible, typically using
extended IP ACLs to match the packets for classification.
B. Packets are classified at each router, based on socket address only, typically using extended
IP ACLs to match the packets for classification.
C. Packets are classified and marked, close to the edge of the network. The packets are treated
differently based on this marking at the routers in the middle of the network.
D. Packets are classified based on different parameters, but close to the edge of the network.
The packets are automatically characterized based on flow at the routers.
E. Packets are classified based on socket address, at the router closest to the source of the
traffic. The packets are automatically characterized based on flow at the routers.
Answer: C
Explanation:
To achieve the same level of quality in both directions the packets going to and coming from the customer network must first be classified and marked.
Classification and marking packets going to the customer network is a more difficult task because:
1) Classifying and marking must be performed on all edge routers.
2) Classifying and marking requires the identification of the customer network. Using PBR, CAR, CB-Policing or CB-Marking does not scale because it involves the use of access lists (this is especially difficult if customer networks are dynamically learned via BGP).
Reference:
Introduction to IP QoS (Course) p.2-35
Question 10.
The newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee technician wants to know which bit in the ATM header can be marked by the Class Based Marker to extend IP QoS policy into an ATM network.
What will your reply be?
A. DE
B. PTI
C. FECN
D. CLP
E. BECN
Answer: D
Explanation:
The ATM CLP Setting feature somewhat allows users to extend their IP QoS policies into an ATM network by setting the ATM CLP bit in ATM cells based on the IP Precedence value of the packets being sent. As congestion occurs in the ATM network, cells with the CLP bit set are more likely to be dropped, resulting in improved network performance for high priority traffic and applications. The set atm-clp command marks packets of a class with the ATM CLP bit as a part of an input or output policy.
Source: Cisco IP QoS Modular QoS CLI Service Policy, Page 9-110
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