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Braindumps for "50-677" Exam

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Braindumps for "642-504" Exam

Securing Networks with Cisco Routers and Switches Exam

 Question 1.
Which two are technologies that secure the control plane of the Cisco router? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco IOS Flexible Packet Matching
B. URPF
C. routing protocol authentication
D. CPPr
E. BPDU protection
F. role-based access control

Answer: C, D

Question 2.
HOTSPOT
This item contains three questions that you must answer. In order to answer the question, you need to examine the SDM screens by clicking on the SDM button to the left. View the question by clicking on the Questions button to the left. Then, choose the correct answer from among the options. 
Note: Not all SDM screen functions are implemented in this simulation. If a certain method to access the desired SDM is not available, please try to use an alternate method to access the required SDM screen to answer the question. 
 
 
 
 

Hotspot question. Click on the correct location or locations in the exhibit.

Answer:
 
 

Question 3.
What are the two category types associated with 5.x signature use in Cisco IOS IPS? (Choose two.)

A. basic
B. advanced
C. 128MB.sdf
D. 256MB.sdf
E. attack-drop
F. built-in

Answer: A, B

Question 4.
Refer to the exhibit.
 

Which optional AAA or RADIUS configuration command is used to support 802.1X guest VLAN functionality?

A. aaa authentication dot1x default group radius
B. aaa authorization network default group radius
C. aaa accounting dotlx default start-stop group radius
D. aaa accounting system default start-stop group radius
E. radius-server host 10.1.1.1 auth-port 1812 acct-port 1813

Answer: B

Question 5.
Which is an advantage of implementing the Cisco IOS Firewall feature? 

A. provides self-contained end-user authentication capabilities
B. integrates multiprotocol routing with security policy enforcement
C. acts primarily as a dedicated firewall device
D. is easily deployed and managed by the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager
E. provides data leakage protection capabilities

Answer: B

Question 6.
Which three statements correctly describe the GET VPN policy management? (Choose three.)

A. A central policy is defined at the ACS (AAA) server.
B. A local policy is defined on each group member.
C. A global policy is defined on the key server, and it is distributed to the group members.
D. The key server and group member policy must match.
E. The group member appends the global policy to its local policy.

Answer: B, C, E

Question 7.
HOTSPOT
This Item contains three questions that you must answer. You can view the question by clicking on the Questions button to the left. In order to answer the question, you need to examine the SDM screens by clicking on the SDM button to the left. View the question by clicking on the Questions button to the left. Then, choose the correct answer from among the options.
Note: Not all the SDM screen functions are implemented in this simulation. If a certain method to access the desired SDM screen is not available, please try to use an alternate method to access the required SDM screen to answer the question.
 
 
 

Hotspot question. Click on the correct location or locations in the exhibit.

Answer:
 

Question 8.
DRAG DROP
Drop
Match the Cisco IOS IPS SEAP feature on the left to its description on the right. Not all the features on the left are used.
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
 

Answer:
 

Question 9.
The CPU and Memory Threshold Notifications of the Network Foundation Protection feature protect which router plane?

A. control plane
B. management plane
C. data plane
D. network plane

Answer: B

Question 10.
DRAG DROP
Drop
Match the Network Foundation Protection (NFP) feature on the left to where it is applied on the right.
 
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.

Answer:
 



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Braindumps for "642-832" Exam

Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Switched Networks (TSHOOT)

 Question 1.
Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Select two)

A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one 
    profile for the wireless client adapter.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and 
    used at a time.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client 
    adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable 
    encryption.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be 
    used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.

Answer: B, C

Explanation:
You can configure your Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Client Adapter through the Cisco ADU or a third-party tool, such as the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager. Because third-party tools may not provide all the functionality available in ADU, Cisco recommends that you use ADU. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter as well as Aironet Desktop Utility establish the association between the client adapter and Access Point, allows to authenticate wireless client, allows to configure encryption by setting static WEP, WPA/WPA2 passphrase.
Section 3: Perform routine IOS device maintenance (0 Questions)
Section 4: Isolate sub-optimal internetwork operation at the correctly defined OSI Model layer (2
Questions)

Question 2.
At which layer of the OSI model does the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) operate at?

A. Layer 5
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 2
E. Layer 1

Answer: D

Explanation:
Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 (L2) protocol designed to run on bridges and switches. The specification for STP is called 802.1d. The main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not run into a loop situation when you have redundant paths in your network. Loops are deadly to a network.

Question 3.
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. 

Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing?

A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that 
    indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved 
    value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address  
    into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved  
    value that indicates a multicast application.

Answer: C, D

Explanation:
The point of this question is the form of multicast MAC address, and the conversion between the multicast MAC address and IP address. The multicast MAC address is 6 bytes(48 bits), the first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E, the last 3 bytes(24 bits) of the multicast MAC address =0 + 23 bit(the last 23 bit of the IP address). "0x01-00-5E" is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application. So option B and D are correct.

Question 4.
EIGRP is being used as the routing protocol on the company network. While troubleshooting some network connectivity issues, you notice a large number of EIGRP SIA (Stuck in Active) messages. 

What causes these SIA routes? (Select two)

A. The neighboring router stops receiving ACK packets from this router.
B. The neighboring router starts receiving route updates from this router.
C. The neighboring router is too busy to answer the query (generally caused by high CPU  
    utilization).
D. The neighboring router is having memory problems and cannot allocate the memory to 
    Process the query or build the reply packet.

Answer: C, D

Explanation:
SIA routes are due to the fact that reply packets are not received. This could be caused by a router which is unable to send reply packets. The router could have reached the limit of its capacity, or it could be malfunctioning.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Missing replies, not missing ACKs, cause SIA.
B: Routes updates do not cause SIA.Notes: If a router does not receive a reply to all outstanding queries within 3 minutes, the route goes to the stuck in active (SIA) state. The router then resets the neighbors that fail to reply by going active on all routes known through that neighbor, and it readvertises all routes to that neighbor. 

Reference: Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing
Protocolhttp://www.cisco.com/warp/public/103/eigrp3.html

Question 5.
Part of the routing table of router R1 is displayed below:
S 62.99.153.0/24 [1/0] via 209.177.64.130
172.209.12.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D EX 172.209.1
[170/2590720] via 209.179.2.114, 06:47:28, Serial0/0/0.1239
62.113.17.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
D EX 99.3.215.0/24
[170/27316] via 209.180.96.45, 09:52:10, FastEthernet11/0/0
[170/27316] via 209.180.96.44, 09:52:10, FastEthernet11/0/0
25.248.17.0/24
[90/1512111] via 209.179.66.25, 10:33:13, Serial0/0/0.1400001
[90/1512111] via 209.179.66.41, 10:33:13, Serial0/0/0.1402001
62.113.1.0/24 is variably subnetted, 12 subnets, 2 masks
D 62.113.1.227/32
[90/2611727] via 209.180.96.45, 10:33:13, FastEthernet1/0/0
[90/2611727] via 209.180.96.44, 10:33:13, FastEthernet1/0/0
S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 209.180.96.14

From analyzing the above command output, what is the administrative distance of the external EIGRP routes?

A. 24
B. 32
C. 90
D. 170
E. 27316
F. None of the other alternatives apply

Answer: D

Explanation:
By default an external EIGRP route has a value of 170. By examining the exhibit we see that this default value of the external EIGRP routes (see D-EX in exhibit) indeed is set to 170. The first value within the brackets display the AD, so with a value of [170/27316] the AD is 170 and the metric of the route is 27316.

Incorrect Answers:
A: This is the subnet mask used for some of the routes in the table.
B: This is the subnet mask used for some of the routes in the table.
C: This is the AD of the internal EIGRP routes, which is the default
E: This is the EIGRP metric of the external EIGRP routes.Reference: What Is Administrative
Distance?http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/105/admin_distance.html

Question 6.
The network is shown below, along with the relevant router configurations:
 
R1# show run
interface Loopback0
ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0
!
interface Ethernet0
ip address 172.29.1.1 255.255.255.0
media-type 10BaseT
!
!
router eigrp 999
redistribute connected
network 172.29.0.0
auto-summary
no eigrp log-neighbor-changes
!
ip classless
no ip http server
R2# show run
interface Ethernet0
ip address 172.29.1.2 255.255.255.0
media-type 10BaseT
!
interface Ethernet1
ip address 172.19.2.2 255.255.255.0
media-type 10BaseT
!
router eigrp 999
network 172.19.0.0
network 172.29.0.0
!
ip classless
no ip http server
R3# show run
interface Ethernet1/0
ip address 172.19.2.3 255.255.255.0
!
router eigrp 999
network 172.19.0.0
auto-summary
no eigrp log-neighbor-changes
!
ip classless
ip http server

With the topology found in the graphic, what will the R1 loopback 0 be in the R3 routing table?

A. It will show up in the routing table as D 10.0.0/8.
B. It will show up in the routing table as D EX 10.0.0.0/8.
C. It will show up in the routing table as D 10.0.0./24.
D. It will not show up in R3 routing table because there is no network command on R1.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Because router R1 is configured with route redistribution, it will redistribute the connected loopback network into EIGRP. Because redistributed routes will show up as external EIGRP routes in the routing table, choice B is correct. Although the loopback interface is using a /24 subnet mask, EIGRP summarizes at network boundaries by default so the network will appear as the class A network of 10.0.0.0/8 in the routing table of the other routers.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The route will be external, since it was redistributed into EIGRP.
C: It will be external because of redistribution, and it will also be summarized since that is the default behavior of EIGRP.
D: Although it was not configured under the EIGRP network command, it would be redistributed because it is a connected route.

Question 7.
The EIGRP network is displayed in the following topology diagram:
 

You work as a network technician. Study the exhibits carefully. If the command "variance 3" was added to the EIGRP configuration of R5, which path or paths would be chosen to route traffic from R5 to network X?

A. R5-R2-R1
B. R5-R2-R1 and R5-R3-R1.
C. R5-R3-R1 and R5-R4-R1.
D. R5-R2-R1,R5-R3-R1, and R5-R4-R1.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Every routing protocol supports equal cost path load balancing. In addition, Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) and EIGRP also support unequal cost path load balancing. Use the variance n command in order to instruct the router to include routes with a metric of less than n times the minimum metric route for that destination. The variable n can take a value between 1 and 128. The default is 1, which means equal cost load balancing. Traffic is also distributed among the links with unequal costs, proportionately, with respect to the metric. In this question the variance 3 command is used . In this instance, R5 can get to Net X using the path R5-R3 = metric of 10, and R3-R1 = 10 as well with the FD between R5 - R1 being 10 + 10 = 20. Therefore, we can load balance on any route that had an FD of 3x the successor, or 3x20, which is 60 Important Note: If a path does not meet the feasibility condition, the path is not used in load balancing. This is why chose D is wrong as this path has an Advertised Distance of 25 which is greater than the successors FD. The link below refers to an example that is nearly identical to the example in this question, except theirs used a variance of 2 and this question used a variance of 3.

Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a008009437d.shtml

Question 8.
The following command was issued on Router 2:
 
Given the above output shown above, which statement is true?

A. 192.168.1.0 is a redistributed route into EIGRP.
B. 192.168.1.0 is a summarized route.
C. 192.168.1.0 is a static route.
D. 192.168.1.0 is equal path load balancing with 172.16.1.0.
E. None of the other alternatives apply

Answer: A

Explanation:
When EIGRP learns the routing information from the different routing protocol it uses D EX symbol to indicate that this routing information has learned from other routing protocol.

Question 9.
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true?
 

A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
C. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
E. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.

Answer: A, F

Explanation:
Metrics are the mathematics used to select a route. The higher the metric associated with a route, the less desirable it is. For EIGRP, the Bellman-Ford algorithm uses the following equation and creates the overall 24-bit metric assigned to a route:
* metric = [(K1 × bandwidth) + [( K2 × bandwidth) ÷ (256 - load)] + (K3 × delay)] × [K5 ÷ (reliability + K4)]
The elements in this equation are as follows:
* By default, K1 = K3 = 1, K2 = K4 = K5 = 0. Therefore, by default, the metric formula reduces to: metric = (1 × bandwidth) + (1 × delay)
metric = bandwidth + delay
K Values should be same to become the EIGRP neighbors.

Question 10.
Study the exhibit below carefully:
 

If the configuration shown below is added to Router1, which three route entries will EIGRP advertise to neighboring routers? (Select three)
router eigrp 10
network 10.0.0.0
eigrp stub

A. 192.168.20.0/24
B. 10.1.2.0/24
C. 10.1.1.0/24
D. 10.1.3.0/24
E. 10.0.0.0/8

Answer: C, D, E

Explanation:
The Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) Stub Routing feature improves network stability, reduces resource utilization, and simplifies stub router configuration. Stub routing is commonly used in a hub and spoke network topology. In a hub and spoke network, one or more end (stub) networks are connected to a remote router (the spoke) that is connected to one or more distribution routers (the hub). The remote router is adjacent only to one or more distribution routers. The only route for IP traffic to follow into the remote router is through a distribution router. This type of configuration is commonly used in WAN topologies where the distribution router is directly connected to a WAN. The distribution router can be connected to many more remote routers. 

Often, the distribution router will be connected to 100 or more remote routers. In a hub and spoke topology, the remote router must forward all nonlocal traffic to a distribution router, so it becomes unnecessary for the remote router to hold a complete routing table. Generally, the distribution router need not send anything more than a default route to the remote router. When using the EIGRP Stub Routing feature, you need to configure the distribution and remote routers to use EIGRP, and to configure only the remote router as a stub. Only specified routes are propagated from the remote (stub) router. The router responds to queries for summaries, connected routes, redistributed static routes, external routes, and internal routes with the message "inaccessible." A router that is configured as a stub will send a special peer information packet to all neighboring routers to report its status as a stub router. Any neighbor that receives a packet informing it of the stub status will not query the stub router for any routes, and a router that has a stub peer will not query that peer. The stub router will depend on the distribution router to send the proper updates to all peers.



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Braindumps for "JN0-531" Exam

Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-FWV)

 Question 1.
You have configured the following on your device.
set address trust MyPC 10.1.1.5/32
set address untrust CorpNet 10.10.0.0/16
set policy from trust to untrust MyPC CorpNet any permit
set int tunnel.1 zone untrust
set int tunnel.1 ip unnumbered int bgroup1
set ike gateway GW address 1.1.1.1 outgoing-interface e0/1 preshare Secret sec-level standard
set vpn VPN gateway GW sec-level standard

The VPN is not working properly. What is the problem?

A. The policy needs to have the action tunnel.
B. The VPN needs to be bound to the tunnel interface.
C. The tunnel interface needs to be associated with the interface in the untrust zone.
D. The tunnel interface needs to be placed in the trust zone.

Answer: B

Question 2.
To which three ScreenOS components can a policy-based routing policy be bound? (Choose three.)

A. zone
B. virtual system
C. policy
D. interface
E. virtual router

Answer: A, D, E

Question 3.
Exhibit:
 

You work as an administrator at ITCertKeys.com. Study the exhibit carefully.

In the exhibit, what are two explanations for the output shown? (Choose two.)

A. The nsp card needs reseating.
B. The routing table requires reconfiguration.
C. Packets will be forwarded using the secondary wing as long as the primary is not ready.
D. The next hop device is failing to respond.

Answer: B, D

Question 4.
How many SNMP communities can be created in a ScreenOS device?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 8

Answer: C

Question 5.
You have taken your backup ScreenOS device out of production for some maintenance. The device is brought back online and rejoins the NSRP cluster. You determine that the two devices are out of sync. 

Which command will sync the devices and on which device should it be run?

A. set nsrp sync global-config save run on the Backup
B. set nsrp sync global-config save run on the Master
C. exec nsrp sync global-config save run on the Backup
D. exec nsrp sync global-config save run on the Master

Answer: C

Question 6.
What do you need to change in your VPN configuration to use certificates for authentication?

A. Replace the preshared key with the certificate name.
B. Use a custom set of Phase2 proposals, all beginning with rsa-.
C. Select PFS in Phase2, then select the certificate to be used.
D. Use a custom set of Phase1 proposals, all beginning with rsa-.

Answer: D

Question 7.
You have configured set nsrp vsd-group master-always-exist on your ScreenOS device.

What does this do?

A. This device will always be master in the NSRP cluster.
B. The vsd-group will always be homed to the master in the NSRP cluster.
C. There will always be a master device in the NSRP cluster.
D. The NSRP protocol will not initialize without a master.

Answer: C

Question 8.
Exhibit:
 
You work as an administrator at ITCertKeys.com. Study the exhibit carefully. In the exhibit, the firewall administrator at the Storefront is complaining that when the communication to the DataCenter1 fails, the preexisting transfers and applications are dropped when the traffic is switched to DataCenter2.

Which statement explains this behavior?

A. VPN monitor is misconfigured in the DataCenter2.
B. SYN checking is enabled in the tunnel.
C. Phase 1 and Phase 2 negotiations to DataCenter2 did not occur on time.
D. The weight value for the DataCenter2 is too high.

Answer: B

Question 9.
Which command allows you to verify active connections when Shared IKE ID is in use?

A. get users active
B. get xauth active
C. get ike xauth users
D. get auth table

Answer: B

Question 10.
Exhibit:
 
You work as an administrator at ITCertKeys.com. Study the exhibit carefully. In the exhibit, your ScreenOS device has a VPN configured using a tunnel interface in the untrust zone. The remote gateway is defined using a FQDN. The tunnel went down and has not reestablished as per the output in the exhibit. Your protected resources reside in the trust zone.

What are two reasons why the tunnel is failing to reestablish? (Choose two.)

A. One of the devices was modified so that the peer ID and local ID no longer match.
B. The Phase 1 preshared key was modified in one of the devices.
C. The policy used by this VPN was deleted.
D. The IP address of the remote peer changed and your DNS table has not updated with the new 
    address.

Answer: B, D


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Braindumps for "HP0-918" Exam

HP Storage Data Protector 6.0 Fundamentals for Windows

 Question 1.
Regarding Disaster Recovery, What information does the Phase 1 start-up file (P1S) contain?

A. Information on how to format and install all disks within a system
B. Information about the logical tape device
C. Information about system registry
D. Information on drivers and software to be loaded

Answer: A

Question 2.
What is the default threshold for medium overwrites for linear tapes?

A. 250
B. 300
C. 350
D. 400

Answer: A

Question 3. 
The file demo.txt in the directory tree d:\demouser was created on January 4, 2003. It was modified on January 10, 2003. A full backup took place on January 5, 2003, followed by incremental backups on January 6,7 and 8. 

When browsing the internal database context, how many sessions will be available?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: D

Question 4.
What is accomplished by invoking the Data Protector Enhanced Automated Disaster Recovery Method?

A. The failed client system is automatically recovered from the latest backup
B. The call Manager replicates the cell database to a standby system
C. The Call Manger creates the file that is to be used by the CD-burner
D. The SRD file for a failed client is updated

Answer: C

Question 5.
A single tape device is used in a SAN and configured for multiple Data Protector clients.

Which option causes it to be recognized as a single device, requiring one drive extension license?

A. Multipath
B. Autopass
C. Direct Backup
D. Indirect backup

Answer: A

Question 6.
What will happen to an extra session that is started over the default or configured number of concurrent backups?

A. The extra session will fail and the backup will be lost
B. The session will be queued and started when others finish
C. All of the backups will start at the same time to avoid backup loss
D. The extra backups will be scheduled to start at a time configured in the global file

Answer: B

Question 7.
What must fist be done on a Windows NT cell manager before upgrading Data Protector to version 5.5?

A. Ensure that a Windows Installation server is installed
B. Ensure the current Data Protector version is at the highest patch level
C. Install the latest Windows NT service pack
D. Upgrade Windows NT to a higher Windows version

Answer: D

Question 8.
To make sure a library is not claimed by another SCSI initiator, which tool can be used?

A. uma
B. devbra
C. omnidlc
D. omnicheck

Answer: B

Question 9.
Which operations and security verifications are used in a Windows domain environment?

A. Secure Shell 2
B. Windows Active Directory
C. Windows Domain Verification
D. Data Protector internal protocol

Answer: D

Question 10.
Which hardware is automatically reconfigured by ASR (Automated System Recovery) if that hardware is replaced with a different type or size as part of the disaster recovery process?

A. Hard Drive
B. Video Card
C. Network Card
D. Host Bus Adapter

Answer: A


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Braindumps for "HP0-286" Exam

HP OpenView

 
Question 1.
How frequently should an LFSCAN be run on a system that is converted out to a relational database?

A. Once a Month
B. Once Every 6 Months
C. Once a Week
D. Never

Answer: D

Question 2.
Where would you find information on how to scale an environment for 450 concurrent users on Oracle using HP-UX?

A. In the knowledge Base in the Basic Server Sizing Worksheet
B. In the document database conversion and RDBMS support
C. On the Web Site in the compatibility matrix
D. In the document Installation Guide for HP-UX

Answer: A

Question 3.
Which field of the link record must match with the input of the field on the form in order to perform a fill action?

A. Target table
B. Source Field
C. Source table
D. Target Field

Answer: B

Question 4.
Where do you globally restrict the maximum number of logins that each user is allowed?

A. Contact record
B. Operator record
C. System Information Definition
D. Sc.ini file

Answer: C

Question 5.
Which method can be used to limit the records returned on a query at the database layer?

A. Stored Query
B. Append Query on a profile
C. Inboxes
D. Mandanten Security

Answer: D

Question 6.
Which two variables are invalid? (Choose two.)

A. $Second Wind
B. $SecondWind
C. $2ndWind
D. $Wind2
E. $Second Wind

Answer: C, E

Question 7.
What are the steps needed to adjust the shared_memory value in the sc.ini file?

A. Modify the parameter in the sc.ini file then save
B. Stop all clients, stop the server, modify the parameter, save, reboot the system, then restart 
    the server
C. Stop all clients, stop the server, modify the parameter, save then restart the server
D. Stop all clients,, modify the parameter in the sc.ini file then save

Answer: C

Question 8.
Which factor affects the key selected for a query in P4?

A. A sort order is specified
B. Record list is enabled
C. The partial.key capability word
D. The query is performed in the background

Answer: A

Question 9.
Which two types of unloads are valid? (Choose two.)

A. Dbdict
B. Binary
C. Formatted text
D. List
E. Ascii

Answer: B, C  

Question 10.
What feature allows you schedule the removal of unwanted data from the system?

A. Scheduled Delete
B. Purge/Archive
C. Data Vault
D. Scheduled Maintenance

Answer: B



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Braindumps for "70-121" Exam

Designing and Providing Microsoft Volume License Solutions to Small and Medium Organizations

 Question 1.
The owner of Import Retailers, Ltd intends purchasing 10 new client computers with Microsoft Windows XP Professional preinstalled for each new showroom. The owner wants to enroll these licenses in Software Assurance and wants to know by when he must enroll these licenses in Software Assurance.

What would you reply?

A. 15 days after purchase.
B. 30 days after purchase.
C. 90 days after purchase.
D. 2 months after purchase.
E. 6 months after purchase.

Answer: C

Question 2.
You need to propose the best software-license acquisition model for Import Retailers, Ltd.

What should you do? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Propose that head office obtain all licenses for all offices and showrooms through an Open 
    Business agreement.
B. Propose that head office obtain all licenses for all offices and showrooms through an Original 
    Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) channel.
C. Propose that the showrooms in Melbourne and Auckland obtain their own hardware.
D. Propose that the showrooms purchase their own hardware with Windows XP Professional 
    preinstalled.
E. Propose that the company enroll new licenses in Software Assurance.

Answer: B, D

Question 3.
Import Retailers, Ltd needs a technology solution that will meet the company's expansion needs.

What should Import Retailers, Ltd do?

A. Install another Windows Server 2003 computer at head office.
B. Install Windows Server 2003 on IR-SR01.
C. Install Terminal Server on IR-SR01.
D. Install Microsoft Office on all client computers and remove Terminal Server access.

Answer: B

Question 4.
Which of the following Terminal Server licensing solutions should Import Retailers, Ltd use?

A. Windows Server license, Windows Server client access licenses (CALs) and Terminal Server 
    client access licenses (CALs).
B. Windows Terminal Server license and Windows XP Professional license.
C. Windows XP Professional license and Terminal Server External Connector.
D. Windows Server client access licenses (CALs) and Terminal Server client access licenses 
    (CALs).
E. Windows Terminal Server External Connector and Windows Terminal Server license.

Answer: A

Question 5.
Which of the following can Import Retailers, Ltd. use to manage its Microsoft software licenses?

A. https://eopen.microsoft.com and a personal tracking system.
B. https://licensing.microsoft.com.
C. https://update.microsoft.com.
D. https://www.microsoft.com/update and https://licensing.microsoft.com.

Answer: A

Explanation: 
https://eopen.microsoft.com can be used for Open Business purchases but a personal tracking system would be required for retail and OEM license purchases

Question 6.
You need to propose the best Terminal Server client access licensing (CAL) solution for Import Retailers, Ltd.

What should you do?

A. Propose that the company obtains a Terminal Server User Client Access License (CAL) for 
    every user that must access Terminal Server.
B. Propose that the company obtains a Terminal Server User Client Access License (CAL) for 
    every user that uses Windows 2000 Professional or Windows XP Professional devices to 
    access Terminal Server.
C. Propose that the company obtains a Terminal Server Device Client Access License (CAL) for 
    every device that is able to access Terminal Server.
D. Propose that the company obtains a Terminal Server Device Client Access License (CAL) for 
    every Windows 2000 Professional or Windows XP Professional devices that is used to access 
    Terminal Server.

Answer: C

Question 7.
You need to propose the best volume licensing solution for Import Retailers, Ltd.

What should you propose?

A. An Open Business agreement and Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) licensing.
B. An Open Business and Open Volume agreement.
C. A Select License agreement.
D. An Open Value Companywide Option agreement.

Answer: A

Question 8.
Which of the following business goals will be met by standardizing the client computers?

A. Reducing the company's costs of software upgrades.
B. Increasing the company's return on investment (ROI).
C. Optimizing the cash flow and business expansion of the company.
D. Minimizing the company's need for dedicated IT personnel.

Answer: D

Question 9.
You need to propose the best solution to upgrade the Microsoft Office licenses that were obtained through Full Package Product (FPP) and Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) channels.

What should you do?

A. Propose that the company obtain version upgrades for the Full Package Product (FPP) 
    licenses through a retail channel.
B. Propose that the company obtain version upgrades for the Full Package Product (FPP) and 
    Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) licenses through a retail channel.
C. Propose that the company obtain a version upgrades for Microsoft Office through the Open 
    Business agreement.
D. Propose that the company obtain new Microsoft Office licenses through the Open Business 
    agreement.

Answer: D

Topic 6, Stanford Finance, Scenario
You work as a Microsoft licensing specialist at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com has a customer named Stanford Finance.
Company Background
Stanford Finance is a small but growing company that specializes in securing loans for small businesses. The company is based in Houston and has 62 employees of which 12 are part-time employees.

Existing Network
The current network has a single Microsoft Small Business Server 4.5 server computer named SF-SR01 and a total of 56 Windows 98 client computers. Microsoft Office 97 Professional is installed on each client computer. Each full-time employee has their own client computer while the part-time employees share 6 client computers between them. A senior employee named Rory Allen serves works in the Human Resources (HR) department. Rory Allen's duties include managing the IT resources of the company. 

Current Licensing Solution
Stanford Finance purchases all its software and software licenses from a local retailer in Houston.
The company has a limited IT budget and has a server refresh cycle of five years. The current server refresh cycle is about to end. 

Business Goals
Stanford Finance intends to establish a branch office in Dallas and will hire an additional 15 employees for the Dallas office. With the imminent establishment of the office, Stanford Finance needs to simplify the management of the company's client computers. With the current server refresh cycle ending, Stanford Finance needs to upgrade hardware and software on SF-SR01. The company also needs to purchase 15 new client computers for the Dallas office. The company has the IT budget to upgrade SF-SR01and purchase the client computers.

Rory Allen has suggested the company standardize all client computers on the latest versions of Microsoft Windows and Microsoft Office. He also suggested the company remain current with the latest client software.



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Braindumps for "1Y0-327" Exam

Citrix Password Manager 4.5: Administration

 Question 1.
Which action can an administrator take to disable data integrity on a central store containing pre-existing data that is signed?

A. Re-sign the data with the signing tool
B. Unsign the data with the Data Integrity node in the console
C. Use the CTXSIGNDATA -u command prompt
D. Use the CTXUNSIGNDATA -u command prompt

Answer: C

Question 2.
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. One of your administrators in an environment with multiple operating systems is considering the implementation of the Hot Desktop feature. 

On which two operating systems can the administrator install Hot Desktop? (Choose two.)

A. Microsoft Windows NT 4.0
B. Microsoft Windows XP Professional (64-bit)
C. Microsoft Windows XP Embedded
D. Microsoft Windows XP Professional (32-bit)

Answer: C, D

Question 3.
Which statement is true regarding the Password Manager Self-Service Registration Wizard?

A. Each time the user starts his or her device, the wizard opens.
B. The wizard provides a demonstration of the product.
C. After a user enters the required enrollment information, the wizard will never appear again.
D. If a user closes the wizard without entering any information, the wizard will appear when the 
    agent software is restarted.

Answer: D

Question 4.
Which step is required after installing the agent software and why?

A. Run the Microsoft installer package with the suppress option so that the graphical identification 
    and authentication (GINA) DLL can be installed.
B. Restart/refresh the device so that the graphical identification and authentication (GINA) DLL 
    can be installed.
C. Restart/refresh the device so that licensing parameters can be applied.
D. Run the Microsoft installer package with the suppress option so that licensing parameters can 
    be applied.
E. Upgrade the central store, because otherwise you can only use previous versions of the agent 
    software to work with the central store.

Answer: B

Question 5.
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. One of your administrators has a .NET application where the Control IDs are not statically defined and each time the application launches, the Control IDs change. 

How should an administrator configure this application in a Password Manager 4.5 environment according to Citrix best practice?

A. Define the application using Send Special Keys instead of Control IDs
B. Enable Advanced Settings >> Use control ordinal numbers
C. Create a special Application Action Extension for the application
D. Enable application auto-detection within a user configuration

Answer: B

Question 6.
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. One of your administrators wants to install and configure the Password Manager Service. The configuration requires a Server Certificate from the company Certificate Authority, which is a server in the same domain as the Password Manager Service server. The Administrator will also have to correctly install the certificate components in order to facilitate SSL communications between the Password Manager Service and its clients. 

What must be installed for the successful completion of the configuration?

A. The Certificate Authority root certificate wherever a client of the Password Manager Service is 
    installed
B. The Certificate Authority root certificate as needed by the Password Manager Service Client
C. A separate user certificate wherever a client of the Password Manager Service is installed
D. The Server Certificate on the Certificate Authority machine

Answer: A

Question 7.
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. One of your administrators created an application definition and wants to test the password change for the application. Everything is working until the administrator selects "Create Your Own Password" in the Password Change Wizard. The administrator types "111" and confirms the password. The application returns a message that the password is not accepted because a minimum of 8 characters, including letters and numbers is required. 

Which two steps can an administrator complete in order to solve this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Verify that the password policy for this application requires 8 characters, including letters and 
    numbers.
B. Verify that a form definition for Failed Password Change was created and that this form 
    requires 8 characters, including letters and numbers.
C. Select choose a system-generated password in the Password Change Wizard when you test 
    the password change function.
D. Verify that the correct password policy was assigned to this application definition within the 
    user configuration.

Answer: A, D

Question 8.
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. One of your administrators in an environment with multiple operating systems is considering the implementation of the Hot Desktop feature. 

On which two operating systems can the administrator install Hot Desktop? (Choose two.)

A. Microsoft Windows NT 4.0
B. Microsoft Windows XP Professional (64-bit)
C. Microsoft Windows XP Professional (32-bit)
D. Microsoft Windows XP Embedded

Answer: C, D

Question 9.
Which user account requires rights and privileges to manage communication among the central store, automatic key recovery, and the Self-Service module?

A. Self-Service
B. Data proxy
C. Automatic key recovery
D. XTE Service

Answer: B

Question 10.
In ITCertKeys.com, 15 laptops are used by the remote workforce for field work. Password Manager is installed and named user licensing is implemented on the laptops. One laptop is currently missing and its named user license is checked out. 

Which statement is true regarding the process for checking in the named user license of the missing laptop?

A. The administrator will need to restart the license server or restart the Citrix Licensing Service.
B. The administrator will need to use the LMCONFIG -r command on the license server and 
    indicate the hostname of the affected laptop.
C. The license will be checked in automatically once it expires.
D. The administrator will need to use the License Return function in the License Management 
    Console and indicate the hostname of the affected laptop.

Answer: C



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Braindumps for "70-526" Exam

TS: Microsoft .NET Framework 2.0 - Windows-Based Client Development

 Question 1.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS002 as developing collateral. You have received instructions to make sure that the PictureBox control's properties cannot be changed with a logo that you have added to the PictureBox in the designer of the form base. Before the time you have added a form to the Microsoft Windows Forms Control Library project and add a PictureBox control to the form. The form is presenting CertKiller.com's logo.

What action should you take?

A. You should set the Locked property to False.
B. You should set the Locked property to True.
C. You should set the Modifiers property to Private.
D. You should set the Modifiers property to Protected.

Answer: C

Explanation: 
When you set the Modifiers property to Private, the value will show that only the base form can modify the control.

Incorrect Answers:
A: You should not set it to False, because the control can be moved and resized.
B: If you set the property to True the control cannot be removed of resized. .
D: If you set the Modifiers property to Protected, the value will show that the base form and any of the form yet to come can modify the control.

Question 2.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS005 as developing collateral. You have just included a DateTimePicker control to a form. You then set the format property to Time. During the cause of the day, you check how the DateTimePicker control is working, and learnt that it does not allow the ITCertKeys.com users to change the selected time.

What should you do to change the control so that it will allow the ITCertKeys.com uses to change the selected time?

A. You should set the ShowUpDown property to True.
B. You should set the ShowSelectBox property to True.
C. You should set the Visible property to False.
D. You should set the Checked property to False.

Answer: A

Explanation: 
The ShowUpDown property is by default set on False. You should set it on True. On False it will show the DateTimePicker must simulate a drop-down control. This setting will allow the users to set the MonthCalender. If it is set to True the users can select the time.

Incorrect Answers:
B: The ShowSelectBox will not resolve the problem. This will show if a CheckBox should be displayed on the DateTimePicker.
C: If you set the Visible property to False, it will hide the DateTimePicker. .
D: You should not set the Checked property to False. If this is set on True, a CheckBox control will be displayed on the DateTimePicker.

Question 3.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS002 as developing collateral. The manager of ITCertKeys.com wants to have a borderless form with the background shown in the exhibit.
 

When the form is view, the manager named Rory Allen does not want the maroon area to be visible. He only wants the blue to be visible when the form is displayed. 

Which of the following code segments should be used?

A. this.TransparencyKey = Color.Maroon;
B. this.BackColor = Color.Maroon;
C. this.TransparencyKey = Color.CornflowerBlue
D. this.BackColor = Color.Transparent;

Answer: A

Explanation: 
The TransparencyKey = Color.Maroon specify the color that the transparent represents the area on the form. With this setting the blue will respond to the mouse.

Incorrect Answers:
B: You should not use the BackColor = Color.Maroon. This will determine the background color of the form.
C: You should not use this code segment. The manager does not wan the blue area to be transparent.
D: You should not use the BackColor = Color.Transparent. The manager does not want the background to be transparent.

Question 4.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You have configured three columns to a form and add a TableLayoutPanel to the form. You want the two side columns to have a fix width of 200 pixels each and anchor the four edges of the form to the control. A ITCertKeys.com manager wants the center column to fill the remaining space, when ever the form is resized. You need to change the ColumnStyle instance that represents the center column? 

How should you set the ColumnStyle instance's Size Type property?

A. Set it to AutoSize and the Width property to 100F.
B. Set it to Absolute and the Width property to 100F.
C. Set it to Percent and the Width property to 100F.
D. Set it to AutoSize and the Width property to 0F.

Answer: C

Explanation: 
This setting will show that the column should fill the remaining space.

Incorrect Answers:
A: This setting will allow the column to be sized enough so that not any of its child controls are clipped. In this setting the middle will not occupy the remaining free space. 
B: If you set it to Absolute, the value of the Width property will show the number of pixels for the column.
D: You need to set the ColumnStyle instance's Size Type property to AutoSize and the Width property to 100F.

Question 5.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You have added a SplitContainer control named ITCertKeysSplitContainer to a form. You then left the control to the default properties. To the right-most container of the SplitContainer control, you need to add a PropertyGrid.

Which of the following code segments should you use?

A. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
    Panel rightPanel = [Panel] ITCertKeysSplitContainer.GetContainerControl[];
    rightPanel.ControlAdd[porpertyGrid];
B. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
    Panel rightPanel = [Panel] ITCertKeysSplitContainer.GetNextControl[propertyGrid, true];
    rightPanel.ControlAdd[porpertyGrid];
C. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
    ITCertKeysSplitContainer.Container.Add[propertyGrid, "RightPanel"];
D. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
    ITCertKeysSplitContainer.Panel2.Control.Add[propertyGrid];

Answer: D

Explanation: 
An area can be divided into two containers, which is separated by a movable bar, if you use the SplitContainer control. When the two Panels are created, the left one is the Panel1 and the right is Panel2. You are adding a panel so it will be on the right. You then need to specify Panel2.

Incorrect Answers:
A, B, C: You should not use the Add method of the SplitContainer.Container to add the PropertyGrid. You also should not pass a PropertyGrid instance to the GetNextControl method to return a Panel instance. This will actually retrieve the next tab-ordered control given the current control. You also should not call the GetContainerControl method to return a Panel instance. This will return the logical container of the SplitContainer control.

Question 6.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You are busy to develop a Microsoft Windows Forms exam delivery application. This is going to be used to access the content of the exam via the Internet. A WebBrowser named testbrowser is added to the control to a form named ITCertKeysForm, which is define as follows:
[PermissionSet[SecurityAction.Demand, Name="FullTrust"]]
[System.Runtime.InteropServices.ComVisible[true]]
public ITCertKeysForm : Form
{
public ITCertKeysForm[]
{
InitializeComponent[];
}
public void Expire[]
{
}
}
The JavaScript-based timer that is used by the Web site for the exam has a function to inform the exam delivery application when the time has expired for the exam, which is the following:
window.external.Expire[];

What should you do to make sure that the Expire method of ITCertKeysForm is called when the JavaScrip function is carry out? 

A. You should set the Document.DomDocument property of the browser instance to the current 
    instance of the ITCertKeysForm class.
B. You should set the ObjectForScripting property of the browser instance to the current instance 
    of the ITCertKeysForm class.
C. You should call the AttachEventHandler of the Document property of the browser instance.
D. You should call the ExecCommand method of the Document property of the browser instance.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
You must set the ObjectForScripting for the browser instance to the current instance of the ITCertKeysForm class.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The property of the Document.DomDocument represents the true DOM object of an HTML document.
C: The AttachEventHandler allows you to attach a HTML Document Object Model event to an event handler.
D: The ExecCommand method allows you to execute commands against DOM documents.

Question 7.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS003 as developing collateral. You have received instructions to make sure that the PictureBox will display dynamically loaded images.

Which property will display a static image if any dynamic image fails to load?

A. BackgroundImage
B. Image
C. ErrorImage
D. InitailImage

Answer: C

Explanation: 
The ErrorImage property specifies the image that should be displayed. This will happened only if the image that you are trying to load dynamically fails.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The BackgroundImage property specifies a background image which is used by the control.
B: The Image property specifies the image you want the PictureBox control to display.
D: The InitailImage specifies the image you want the PictureBox control to display while the other one is loading.

Question 8.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You are developing a Web service for new updates to query automatically, by use of a Microsoft Windows Forms application. You then add a NotifyIcon component named ITCertKeysnotify to the application's main form. Whenever a new update is available you want the following balloon tip to display as seen in the exhibit for 5 seconds.
 

Which segment should you use to write a code to download the updates if the users click the balloon tip?

A. ITCertKeysnotify.BallonTipClick +=delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
ITCertKeysnotify.ShowBallonTip[5000, "New Update Available"; "Click here to download"
, ToolTipIcon.Info];
B. ITCertKeysnotify.ShowBallonTip[5];
   ITCertKeysnotify.BalloonTipIcon = ToolTipIcon.Info;
ITCertKeys.Balloon TipTitle = "New Update Available";
ITCertKeys.BalloonTipText = "Click here to download";
ITCertKeys.Click += delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
C. ITCertKeysnotify.BalloonTipIcon = ToolTipIcon.Info;
   ITCertKeys.Balloon TipTitle = "New Update Available";
ITCertKeys.BalloonTipText = "Click here to download";
ITCertKeys.Click += delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
ITCertKeysnotify.ShowBallonTip[5000];
D. ITCertKeysnotify.ShowBallonTip[5, New Update Available", "Click here to download",
   ToolTipIcon.Info];
ITCertKeys.BalloonTipClick += delegate
{
// Download the updates
}

Answer: A

Explanation: 
You should use an event handler, attach the BalloonTipClicked to the event and call the ShowBalloon Tip method of the NotifyIcon class. When a user clicks a balloon tip, a BalloonTipClicked event is raised.

Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: You should not attach the BalloonTipClicked even to an event handler after you have called the ShowBalloonTip method. Also note that the event is raised when the icon is clicked and not the balloon tip.

Question 9.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You are busy adding a MenuStrip control, which has an instance of a ToolStripMenu item named testjobItem, to a form in a Microsoft Windows Forms application. This item's display text is Job. You have received instructions to add two menu items to the Job menu item. The first item's display text should be Create New Job, and the second one is Run Job.

Which code segment should you use to programmatically add the two menu items?

A. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
jobItem.Container.Add[createNewJobItem];
jobItem.Container.Add[runJobItem];
B. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
jobItem.Owner.Items.Add[createNewJobItem];
jobItem.Owner.Items.Add[runJobItem];
C. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem[] items = new ToolStripMenuItem[]{create NewJobItem,
runJobItem}
jobItem.DropDownItems.AddRange[items];
D. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem[] items = new ToolStripMenuItem[]{create NewJobItem,
runJobItem}
jobItem.Owner.Items.AddRange[items];

Answer: C

Explanation: 
For the jobItem instance you should call the AddRange. The property of the DropDownItems represents a collection of child items of the jobItem instance, which allows you to add the two items to the job menu item.

Incorrect Answers:
A: This property returns an instance of IContainer, which represents a logical container for other components.
B: The Owner property returns the Menu script instance that owns the ToolStripMenuItem instance.
D: This action will add the two new menu at the same level as the Job menu item.

Question 10.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS050 as developing collateral. You were busy with a task to add a ContextMenuStrip control to a form.

What should you do to display a custom control as a menu item of the ContextMenuStrip control?

A. Add a ToolstripContainer control to the form and add the custom control to the Controls 
    collection residing on the toolStripContainer control. You should then add the ContextMeniStrip 
    control to the controls of the ToolStripContainer control.
B. Of ToolStripControlHost, create an instance and specify your custom control instance as a 
    parameter to the conductor. You should then the ToolStripControlHost instance to the Items 
    collection of the ContextMeniStrip control.
C. Add a ToolstripContainer control to the form and add the custom control to the Controls 
    collection residing on the toolStripContainer control. You should then add the 
    ToolstripContainer control to the controls of the ContextMeniStrip controls.
D. Of ToolStripControlHost, create an instance and specify your custom control instance as a 
    parameter to the conductor. You should then the ContextMeniStrip controls to the collection of 
    the ToolStripControlHost instance.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
The ToolStripControlHost class to host a custom control as a menu item in the ContextMeniStrip. You should also the custom control instance as the parameter to the constructor.

Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D: The ToolstripContainer should not be used to reach your goal. Furthermore, you cannot host a ToolstripContainer control as the menu item in a ContextMeniStrip controls.



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