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Question 1.
Which statement is incorrect?
A. CREATE ROLE sales_clerk;
B. CREATE ROLE sales_clerk NOT IDENTIFIED;
C. CREATE ROLE sales_clerk IDENTIFIED BY bonus;
D. CREATE ROLE sales_clerk IDENTIFIED EXTERNALLY;
E. CREATE ROLE sales_clerk IDENTIFIED INTERNALLY;
Answer: E
Explanation:
IDENTIFIED clause can be used in two ways as
CREATE ROLE role_name
IDENTIFEID BY password ;
OR
CREATE ROLE role_name
IDENTIFEID EXTERNALLY;
BY password clause gives a password that the user must specify to enable the role.
EXTERNALLY indicate that a user must be authorized by an external service before enabling the role.
IDENTIFIED BY clause do not have any INTERNALLY clause.
Incorrect Answers:
A: You can use this command to create role sales_clerk.
B: You can use this command to create role sales_clerk without password.
C: You can use this command to create role sales_clerk with password.
D: You can use this command to create role sales_clerk with password identified by operation system.
Reference:
Oracle 8, DBA Certification Exam Guide, Jason S. Couchman, p. 490-492
Chapter 10: Managing Database Use
Question 2.
What is a default role?
A. A role that requires a password.
B. A role that requires no password.
C. A role automatically enabled when the user logs on.
D. A role automatically assigned when the user is created.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A user may have many roles assigned. A default role is a subset of these roles
that is enabled automatically when a user logs on. By default all roles assigned to user are enabled at logon. Roles are named group of related privileges that are granted to a users or other roles. They are designed to ease the administration of privileges in the database.
Incorrect Answers:
A: A default role may have a password, but it does not require it.
B: A default role may have a password or may not have it.
D: There is no role automatically assigned to the user when it was created, you need to assign roles to user after account creation.
Reference:
Oracle 8, DBA Certification Exam Guide, Jason S. Couchman, p. 492
Chapter 10: Managing Database Use
Question 3.
User A grants the SELECT privilege WITH GRANT OPTION on the table EMP to User B. User B then grants SELECT on A EMP to User C. What will happen if User A revokes User B ’s SELECT privilege?
A. User B will not be able to SELECT, and User C will be unaffected.
B. An error will occur unless User B first revokes SELECT from user C.
C. Nothing, unless the CASCADE CONSTRAINTS option was used.
D. Both User B and User C will no longer have SELECT privilege on EMP.
Answer: D
Explanation:
When a user is granted the object privileges WITH GRANT OPTION on a table and that user further grant the privileges to other user then when a privileges a revoked from the user who have been granted the privileges then the privileges further granted by that user to other are also revoked.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Both user will be affected, B and C.
B: There is no error if user A revokes from user B SELECT privilege, cascade event will happened.
C: You don’t need to use CASCADE CONSTRAINTS to revoke privilege. Only if the user has been given the REFERENCES privileges and used it to create a FOREIGN KEY constraint to another table, then there is some cascading that must take place in order to complete the revocation of the REFERENCES privilege: REVOKE REFERENCES ON EMP FROM B CASCADE CONSTRAINTS. But this question does say nothing about constraints.
Reference:
Oracle 8, DBA Certification Exam Guide, Jason S. Couchman, p. 485-489
Chapter 10: Managing Database Use
Question 4.
How can DBA enable restricted sessions at startup?
A. SQL>STARTUP RESTRICT;
B. SQL>STARTUP DISABLE SESSION;
C. SQL>STARTUP ENABLE RESTRICTED SESSION;
D. SQL>ALTER SYSTEM ENABLE RESTRICTED SESSION;
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer A is correct. STARTUP RESTRICT command enables restricted sessions at startup. Other way to restrict database access is command ALTER SYSTEM ENABLE RESTRICTED SESSION after the database is open.
Incorrect Answers:
B: This command will not enable restricted sessions at startup.
C: This command will not enable restricted sessions at startup.
D: This command will enable restricted session, but only AFTER the database is open, not at startup.
Reference:
Oracle 8, DBA Certification Exam Guide, Jason S. Couchman, p. 287-288
Chapter 6: Basics of the Oracle Database Architecture
Question 5.
Which two dynamic views can be queried when the database is started up in nomount state? (Choose two.)
A. V$SGA
B. V$LOGFILE
C. V$INSTANCE
D. V$CONTROLFILE
E. V$DATAFILE_HEADER
Answer: A & C
Explanation:
When database is in no mount state its instance is already startup so you can Only query the views that related to the instance or memory area. So in no mount state only V$SGA & V$INSTANCE views can be queried.
V$SGA is use to set memory area statistics
V$INSTANCE is use to display the value of parameters in the initialization parameter file.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Because database is not opened we cannot query V$LOGFILE view because it resides in the data dictionary of the database.
D: Because database is not mounted or opened we cannot query V$CONTROLFILE view because it resides in the data dictionary of the database.
E: Because database is not mounted or opened we cannot query V$DATAFILE_HEADER view because it resides in the data dictionary of the database.
Reference:
Oracle 8, DBA Certification Exam Guide, Jason S. Couchman, p. 281-283
Chapter 6: Basics of the Oracle Database Architecture
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Question 1. You are configuring the eri0 network interface using the ifconfig command with the options netmask + and subnet mask 255.255.255.0. # /usr/sbin/ifconfig eri0 netmask + To verify the system is properly set up you issue an ifconfig -a command. You notice that the eri0 network interface has the netmask incorrectly set for 255.255.0.0. Which file do you need to check first? A. /etc/hosts B. /etc/netmasks C. /etc/hostname.eri0 D. /etc/nsswitch.conf Answer: B Question 2. You are installing a StorEdge A3500. You have created 5 LUNS, but after a boot -r can only see one of them in the format output. What should you modify/run to increase the single LUN issue? A. /kernel/drv/rdriver.conf B. /etc/osa/rmparams C. /kernel/drv/sd.conf D. /usr/lib/osa/bin/symconf Answer: C Question 3. You replaced a failed system board on a Sun Fire E20K. The new system board has no memory and needs to be tested. How should you test the new board? A. Add the line ?$GGWKHOLQHno_memory_ok?in the postrc file. B. Use the option -m with hpost command. C. You need memory in a system board to test it. D. Add the line ?$GGWKHOLQHmemory_ok?in the postrc file. Answer: A Question 4. You have completed repairs on a Sun Fire E25K and the next step is to run extended POST to verify the service action. How can you run extended post level 32 on domain A only? A. Enter level 32 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/.postrc file. B. Enter level 32 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/A/.postrc file. C. Enter 2 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/A/.postrc file. D. Enter 2 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/.postrc file. Answer: B Question 5. A customer wants to install four domains on their Sun Fire 6900. What needs to be configured using the setupplatform command on the System Controller? A. COD for all domains B. System controller failover C. ACL's for all domains D. Dual partitioning Answer: D Question 6. You have installed a Sun Enterprise 5500 onto a customer's network. The customer's networking department has told you that you must force the production interface, qfe0, to 100Mbps, Full Duplex. Which two ndd commands will you need to add to your startup script to ensure that your interface is running at the correct settings? (Choose two.) A. ndd -set /dev/qfe autoneg_cap 0 B. ndd -set /dev/qfe adv_100fdx_cap 1 C. ndd -set /dev/qfe link_mode 1 D. ndd -set /dev/qfe 100fdx_cap 1 E. ndd -set /dev/qfe link_speed 1 Answer: A, B Question 7. You install a system to customer specifications and after rebooting you get the following message: NIS server not responding for... retrying The customer tells you that there is a network problem which prevents this machine from reaching the NIS server. You boot the machine into single user mode. What action should you take to allow the system to operate until the NIS server is reachable again? A. Edit /etc/nsswitch.conf so that file is first for all entries and reboot into multiuser mode. B. Copy /etc/nsswitch.files to /etc/nsswitch.conf and reboot into multiuser mode. C. Edit /etc/resolv.conf so that the domain entry is commented out and reboot into multiuser mode. D. Rename /etc/rc2.d/S72inetsvc to /etc/rc2.d/DisabledS72inetsvc and reboot into multiuser mode. Answer: B Question 8. You have performed a setkeyswitch on for domain A on a Sun Fire 6800 where the auto-boot? OBP variable is set to false. What command at the OBP should you run to find the status of the POST? A. show-post-results B. showlog-results C. show-log-results D. showlog results E. showpost-results F. showpost results Answer: A Question 9. A customer has been receiving the following message: unix: WARNING: /tmp: File system full, swap space limit exceeded You are asked to create a swapfile to increase swap space. The swap file specifications are: - File name: swap1 - Destination directory: /delta - Length of swap1: 20 Megabytes Which command should you use to create the swap file? A. mkfile 20m /delta/swap1 B. mkfile -a 20m /delta/swap1 C. swap -a 20m /delta/swap1 D. swap 20m /delta/swap1 Answer: A Question 10. A customer has a number of Sun Fire 25Ks and you need to identify which one to work on. You are in the data center but not at the keyboard. Which command should you ask the customer to run to determine the chassis serial number? A. showplatform B. showcsn C. showenvironment D. showserial Answer: A
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Question 1. Which three characteristics of a strategically-thinking help desk? (Choose three) A. Transactional focus B. Reactive focus C. Proactive focus D. Information giving focus E. Integrated focus Answer: B, C, D Question 2. When designing a help desk technology infrastructure, which two components are most commonly included? (Choose two) A. Interactive Voice Response B. Web Server C. Telephony system D. Call logging system Answer: C, D Question 3. An upset, frustrated customer asks to speak to the help desk manager. What is your most appropriate response? (Choose 1) A. It would be easier to resolve this call if you calm down B. I am sorry, but my manager is not available at the moment. May I get her to call you back C. I am sorry, but my supervisor does not handle these situations, I can assist you D. I appreciate your frustration with this, I have experienced this same problem many times Answer: B Question 4. When communicating with ITCertKeys.com, it is best to avoid_______. (Choose two) A. Apologies B. Empathising C. User of slang D. Technical terms Answer: C, D Question 5. You are speaking to ITCertKeys.com who has an incident that requires you to perform further research before you can apply a resolution. You document the situation and the impact. What is the best action to take next? (Choose 1) A. Close the call B. Develop a multi-functional team to address the situation C. Ask your team colleagues to concentrate on this problem with you D. Explain to the customer what will happen next Answer: D Question 6. Which question should you ask to best assess ITCertKeys.com's experience and knowledge level? (Choose 1) A. What is the error code you see? B. Have you ever had this error before? C. What were the circumstances that held to this situation? D. Have you spoken with the systems administrator? Answer: C Question 7. Which are two characteristics of active listeners? (Choose two) A. They demonstrate sympathy B. They use the customer's name C. They avoid using verbal attends D. They listen for, and recognise, emotion words Answer: B, D Question 8. What are the two most important points to remember in order to manage a call successfully? (Choose two) A. Create a problem-solving work-flow B. Use the same terminology as the customer C. Clearly document the situation and the steps taken D. Give the customer something to do Answer: B, C Question 9. Which are two characteristics of active listeners? (Choose two) A. They acknowledge the customer B. They know the process for escalating a problem C. They restate/paraphrase to ensure understanding D. They understand that evidence and reasoning are critical Answer: A, C Question 10. What are two purposes of an on-going (event) survey? (Choose two) A. To evaluate overall satisfaction levels with products B. To measure the quality of a single interaction C. To assess satisfaction levels with all help desk services D. To trend levels of customer satisfaction between annual (periodic) surveys Answer: B, D
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Question 1. Exhibit: Which bridge or bridges in the exhibit will be a Non-Designated Bridge? A. R&D B. HR C. Distribution_1 D. Distribution_2 Answer: A, B Question 2. Which of the following would be used to apply the same policies to a group of BGP neighbors? A. route-reflector group B. Community group C. Confederation group D. Peer group Answer: D Question 3. Exhibit: Which port or ports in the exhibit will be blocked? A. R&D e3 B. R&D e1 C. R&D 20 D. HR e10 E. HR e11 F. HR e20 G. Distribution_2 e10 H. Distribution_2 e1 Answer: C, H Question 4. Exhibit: Which bridge in the exhibit will be a Non-Designated Bridge? A. R&D B. HR C. Distribution_1 D. Distribution_2 Answer: D Question 5 Exhibit: Which port or ports the exhibit will be blocked? A. R&D e3 B. R&D e1 C. HR e10 D. HR e11 E. Distribution_2 e10 F. Distribution_2 e1 Answer: A, D Question 6. Router ITCertKeys A has three iBGP peers: Router ITCertKeys 1 Router ITCertKeys 2 and Router ITCertKeys 3. Routers ITCertKeys 1, ITCertKeys 2, and ITCertKeys 3 are advertising the same destination networks. Router ITCertKeys 1 announces routes with the default local preference. Router ITCertKeys 2 announces the same routes with a local preference of 200. Router ITCertKeys 3 announces the same routes with a local preference of 1. Which path does Router ITCertKeys A take? A. Router ITCertKeys 1 B. Router ITCertKeys 2 C. Router ITCertKeys 3 D. not applicable, because local preference only applies to ebgp peers E. not applicable, because local preference only applies to local router Answer: C Question 7. A change in a route state, from up to down or down to up is called? A. route dampen B. port flap C. route flap D. port dampen Answer: C Question 8. What cli command shows the flap dampening statistics? A. show ip bgp summary B. show ip bgp neighborflap-summary C. show ip bgp neighbor flap-statistics D. show ip bgp neighbor route-flap Answer: C Question 9. What is the BGP4 state called when the router is waiting to start the BGP4 process? A. Admin B. Connect C. Active D. Idle E. Confirm F. Established Answer: D Question 10. Exhibit: What does the * in the status field of network 204.17.220.0/24 indicate? A. This is the best route to use B. This route is currently dampened and is unusable C. Has a history of flapping and is unreachable now D. Has a history of flapping but is currently usable Answer: D
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Question 1.
To access a remote server, configure:
A. Server source-nat
B. Source-nat in the same subnet as the ServerIron Management IP
C. Server source-ip and source-nat in the same sub net as the ServerIron Management IP
D. Server source-ip for the remotes subnet
Answer: C
Question 2.
It the real servers are directly connected to the ServerIron, the ServerIron replaces the:
A. Source IP address with the real servers address
B. Destination IP address with the real servers address
C. Source address with the ServerIrons server source-ip address
D. Source and destination addresses with the ServerIrons server source-ip and the real servers
IP addresses.
Answer: B
Question 3.
What is the default SLB behavior for Server Load Balancing for packets from the ServerIron to the real server?
Choices:
1) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server
a. Destination translates address from the VIP to the real server IP
b. Source translate the clients IP address
2) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server
a. Destination translates address from the VIP to the real server IP
b. Source leaves the clients IP address unchanged
3) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server
a. Destination leave the clients IP address unchanged
b. Source Translate the real server IP address into a VIP address
4) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server
a. Destination Leave the real server IP address unchanged
b. Source leaves the clients IP address unchanged
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
Question 4.
What ServerIron functionality allows a client to connect to the same server to which it previously established an SSL connection? (Select all that apply)
A. sticky
B. SSL session ID switching
C. cookie switching
D. HTTP header hashing
Answer: A, B
Question 5.
The Foundry ServerIron uses predictors to determine how to load balance the traffic flow.
Which of the following is not a valid predictor?
A. Least Connections
B. Round Robin
C. Least port priority
D. Response Time/Least Connections
Answer: C
Question 6.
What best describes the role that the Virtual IP (VIP) Address plays in SLB?
A. The Virtual IP maps multiple logical addresses to one physical port number,
B. The Virtual IP address maps one logical address to multiple physical servers
C. The Virtual IP responds to ARPs with the real servers IP address
D. The Virtual IP maps ARPs with the real servers IP cache table.
Answer: B
Question 7.
What is the well-known name for port 80?
A. HTTP
B. POP3
C. IMAP4
D. FTP
Answer: A
Question 8.
Performing Health Check on remote servers requires a source IP address that is not related to std NAT.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which Foundry SLB predictor uses a percentage distribution?
A. round robin
B. weighted
C. least connections
D. delay
Answer: B
Question 10.
What is the correct Foundry CLI command syntax for Layer 7 health check to a specific URL?
A. ServerIron (config-hc-check1)# port http url "GET/sales.html"
B. ServerIron (config-hc-check1)# url "/sales.html
C. ServerIron (config-hc-check1)# http url "PUT/sales.html
D. ServerIron (config-hc-check1)# L7 healthcheck url "/sales.html"
Answer: A
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Question 1. The declaration of inter-switch ports with the command "admin-pt2pt-mac"is part of the configuration of: (Select all that apply) A. Per VLAN Group Spanning tree (PVGST) or Topology Groups B. 802.1D C. 802.1w D. 802.1s Answer: C, D Question 2. What are OSPF routers that run multiple protocols and serve as gateway to routers outside an area and those operating with different protocols? A. redistribution router B. autonomous system boundary router C. area border router D. autonomous system Answer: B Question 3. Which Foundry CLI command is used to summarize routes advertised from an ASBR into and OSPF autonomous system? A. summary-routes 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0 B. summary-address-info 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0 C. summarize-routes 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0 D. summary-address 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0 Answer: D Question 4. BGP4 contains a peer discovery process. A. True B. False Answer: B Question 5. What do you call a BGP4 Autonomous System that has been subdivided into multiple, stub ASs? A. paths B. cluster C. neighbors D. confederation Answer: D Question 6. IP address 176.100.34.25 255.255.248.0 is a member of which host range? A. 176.100.32.0 -176.100.39.248 B. 176.100.31.1 - 176.100.39.248 C. 176.100.32.0 - 176.100.39.254 D. 176.100.32.1- 176.100.39.254 Answer: D Question 7. Which Foundry CLI Show command can be used to identify the Interface Type of a particular port? A. monitor B. interfaces C. debug D. media Answer: D Question 8. What is the default administrative distance for OSPF? A. 110 B. 255 C. 90 D. 1 Answer: A Question 9. Which 802.1d state will a switches Root Port and Designated Port enter after the 2 nd expiration of the forwarding-delay timer. A. Forwarding B. Blocking C. Learning D. Listening Answer: A Question 10. Switch ITCertKeys 2 (see diagram) is running 802.1w (RSTP), with default settings. It has a crossover cable between ports e38 and e48. Select the combination of port titles that match the ports. A. e38: Backup Port e48: Designated Port B. e38: Root Port e48: Alternate Port C. e38: Designated Port e48: Designated Port D. e38: Alternate Port e48: Root Port E. e38: Designated Port e48: Backup Port. Answer: E Question 11. Which Foundry CLI command can be used to see the IPX networks your router can forward to? A. show ip B. show route C. show ipx route D. show ipx Answer: C
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Question 1.
Which development languages is NOT available for creating applications to run on Interstage App Server V6
A. C/C++
B. Java
C. COBOL
D. .NET
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which of the following answers does NOT describe a function provided by Interstage Security Director?
A. Interstage Security Director uses telephone numbers to perform authentication for accesses
from mobile telephones.
B. Interstage Security Director can perform SSL user authentication to allow or disallow access to
individual URLs.
C. Authentication results are inherited by the application server and so users need to undergo
authentication only once to access applications.
D. Interstage Security Director can protect services from denial of service (DoS) attacks by
concealing Intranet server information (host names, IP addresses, etc.) from the Internet.
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which of the following main functions is NOT provided by Interstage Contentbiz?
A. Authentication
B. Distribution
C. Management
D. Aggregation
Answer: A
Question 4.
Complete the following statement. "Consistency across the Interstage Development Suite is achieved through a focus on ..."
A. Java and open source projects
B. commonly used menu systems and buttons
C. the struts framework
D. Service Oriented Architecture
Answer: A
Question 5.
In what year was Interstage first released?
A. 1996
B. 1998
C. 2000
D. 2002
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which of the following is part of the Interstage feature set?
A. Integration of business processes using latest technologies
B. High degree of openness giving new possibilities
C. Solid performance and reliability combined with unparalleled scalability
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Question 7.
Which of the following features is NOT considered to be a part of the integration of business processes?
A. Provides a rich array of practical components and frameworks
B. Uses business intelligence to achieve real-time utilization of information linked to mission-
critical tasks
C. Enables corporate business processes to be represented visually and replaced dynamically
D. Uses an XML database engine to achieve effective use of widely diverse and unstructured
data
Answer: A
Question 8.
The diagram below shows the structure of the Interstage Product Categories. The numbers in the diagram correspond to the category names given in the answers.
Select the answer in which the number corresponds to the correct category name.
A. 1 - Development
B. 2 - Foundation
C. 3 - Service and Support
D. 4 - Integration
Answer: A
Question 9.
The diagram below shows the structure of the Interstage Product Categories. The numbers in the diagram correspond to the category names given in the answers.
Select the answer in which the number corresponds to the correct category name.
A. 1 - Service & Support
B. 2 - Integration
C. 3 - Development
D. 4 - Foundation
Answer: B
Question 10.
The diagram below shows the structure of the Interstage Product Categories. The numbers in the diagram correspond to the category names given in the answers.
Select the answer in which the number corresponds to the correct category name.
A. 1 - Service and Support
B. 2 - Development
C. 3 - Foundation
D. 4 - Integration
Answer: C
Question 11.
Which of the following functions relates to the gDevelopment Suite h product category?
A. Provides a robust infrastructure for supporting Web applications
B. Brings together business information and processes into a cohesive view of the business
C. A highly productive environment for creating Web applications
D. Provides support for maintaining stable operations
Answer: C
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Question 1.
Which of the following is a responsibility of the Operations Role Cluster?
A. detecting intrusions and protecting against viruses
B. managing business-to-business trading interfaces
C. managing IT-procurement and purchasing functions
D. prioritizing service improvement requests and identifying gaps for future functionality
Answer: B
Question 2.
In what way does Capacity Management contribute to improving IT Service Management?
A. By identifying the major technology components, infrastructure, people and processes that
underpin the end-to-end delivery of service
B. By preventing interruptions to IT services as well as recovering services after an interruption
occurs
C. By planning and monitoring the job scheduling process according to the requirements in the
Operational Level Agreements (OLAs)
D. By planning the implementation of business requirements for IT Services so they are in place
when the business needs them
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which Service Management Function (SMF) needs to ensure that efficient incident detection and recovery tools and processes are in place to handle any service outages that do occur?
A. Availability Management
B. Release Management
C. Service Desk
D. System Administration
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which Role Cluster has a portfolio of business-aligned IT services as a quality goal?
A. Operations
B. Partner
C. Service
D. Support
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which Service Management Function deals with the day-to-day activities and tasks related to maintaining and adjusting the IT security infrastructure?
A. Availability Management
B. Security Administration
C. Security Management
D. System Administration
Answer: B
Question 6.
What is the relationship between releases and changes?
A. A change includes both changed hardware and software components and components that
were not changed. A release only includes changed hardware and software components.
B. Changes are incorporated into the IT environment by releases.
C. Releases and changes are incorporated into the IT environment independently of each other.
D. Releases are incorporated into the IT environment by changes.
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which of the following is a key requirement for planning service solutions?
A. a managed IT environment
B. a milestone-driven implementation process
C. take the perspective of end-to-end services
D. understanding of the business and the operational requirements
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which of the following describes the concept of Service Management Functions (SMFs)?
A. a model for measuring the performance of the process
B. a model for organizing IT staff
C. organizational units that support IT operations
D. processes, procedures and policies to deliver and support IT service solutions
Answer: D
Question 9.
What is a goal of Security Administration?
A. accessibility
B. confidentiality
C. connectivity
D. interconnectivity
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which steps in the MOF Risk Management Process follow each other immediately?
A. Analyzing and Prioritizing Risks - Planning and Scheduling Risk Actions
B. Analyzing and Prioritizing Risks - Tracking and Reporting Risks
C. Identifying Risks in Operations - Planning and Scheduling Risk Actions
D. Identifying Risks in Operations - Tracking and Reporting Risks
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Which statement is FALSE about an EndPoint security Protected Configuration?
A. All resources are protected by at least one pre-logon check
B. Different resources can be protected by different pre-logon checks
C. Resources can be required to pass more than one pre-logon check
D. Within one pre-logon sequence some checks can be used to protect resources and other
checks can restrict access to the logon screen
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which statement is true regarding Portal Access: Access Control Lists?
A. ACL's can be applied to the Master Group and Favorites.
B. ACL's can prevent favorites from being viewable from the Webtop.
C. ACL's require that an Active X component be downloaded and installed automatically when
the user clicks on a favorite.
D. Un-checking "show administrator defined favorites only" on the Master Group settings page
will allow the user to browse to any URL regardless of the configured ACL's.
Answer: A
Question 3.
Based on the pre-logon sequence in the exhibit,
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. If the file c:\logon.txt exists, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be presented
with a logon screen.
B. If the file c:\logon.txt exists, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be logged
into the FirePass controller.
C. If the file c:\logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is running, the client will be
presented with a logon screen.
D. If the file c:\logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be
presented with a logon screen.
E. If the file c:\logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is running, the client will be
logged into the FirePass controller.
F. If the file c:\logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be
logged into the FirePass controller.
Answer: A, C
Question 4.
If a working Active / Standby pair of FirePass Controllers has been configured correctly for Failover, which observation by itself would allow the Admin to tell which FirePass box is is the Active member of the pair?
A. https:///admin/ / Welcome screen says "In Failover Active Mode".
B. https:///admin/ / Welcome screen says "In Failover Active
Mode".
C. https:///admin/ / Current Settings screen option Current Failover
Status set to "Active".
D. https:///admin/ / Current Settings screen option Current
Failover Status set to "Active".
Answer: B
Question 5.
A backup or restore of the FirePass configuration can be accomplished in which way?
A. A backup file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.
B. A backup file may be saved to a local PC using the web configuration Admin console.
C. A backup file may be saved to the local PC using the command line "maintenance" script.
D. A backup file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the web configuration Admin
console.
E. A backup file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the command line "maintenance"
script.
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which statement is true for users in a group when the "Show administrator-defined favorites only" option is enabled?
A. They cannot configure their own user favorites.
B. They only see links setup by the FirePass Admin and can access other sites with sufficient
privileges.
C. They see links setup by the FirePass Admin and links to web servers on the same network as
FirePass.
D. They only see links setup by the FirePass Admin but can access other sites by typing in the
web-site address.
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which two sequences include the "required" steps, in the correct order, for configuring Failover on the FirePass Controller? (Choose two.)
1.restart First (Primary)
2.restart Second (Secondary)
3.enable Failover option on First
4.enable Failover option on Second
5.configure virtual IP Address on First
6. configure virtual IP Address on Second
A. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2, 6
B. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 6
C. 3, 1, 5, 1, 4, 2, 6, 2
D. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 2
E. 5, 1, 3, 1, 6, 2, 4, 2
F. 5, 1, 6, 2, 3, 1, 4, 2
Answer: C, D
Question 8.
Which is a valid way to tell whether the Admin is connected to the Master as opposed to the Slave Node in a cluster of FirePass Controllers?
A. Admin console / Clustering option is absent.
B. Admin console / Clustering option is present.
C. Admin console / Portal Access option is present.
D. Admin console / Network Access option is present.
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which statement is true about the Failover Synchronization process on FirePass?
A. The configuration is synched from Active to Standby automatically.
B. The configuration is synched from Standby to Active automatically.
C. The Synchronization process can be configured using a virtual IP Address.
D. The configuration is synched from Active to Standby manually by an Administrator.
E. The configuration is synched from Standby to Active manually by an Administrator.
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which three types of applications are supported by the Application Access Legacy Host feature on FirePass? (Choose three.)
A. TN3270 access to mainframe
B. TN3270 ssh access to mainframe
C. TN5250 access to IBM AS/400 systems (System i)
D. Java client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
E. full featured ActiveX client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
Answer: A, C, D
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Question 1.
Which three methods can be used for initial access to a BIG-IP system? (Choose three.)
A. serial console access
B. SSH access to the management port
C. SSH access to any of the switch ports
D. HTTP access to the management port
E. HTTP access to any of the switch ports
F. HTTPS access to the management port
G. HTTPS access to any of the switch ports
Answer: A, B, F
Page 1-9 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide
Question 2.
Which three files/data items are included in a BIG-IP backup file? (Choose three.)
A. the BIG-IP license
B. the BIG-IP log files
C. the BIG-IP host name
D. the BIG-IP administrator addresses
Answer: A, C, D
The BIG-IP backup file contains the following:
System-specific configuration files
Product licenses
User account and password information
Domain Name Service (DNS) zone files
Installed SSL Keys and certificates
Page 16-1 BIG-IP Network and System Management Guide
Question 3.
Which two statements are true concerning differences between BIG-IP platforms? (Choose two.)
A. The 1500 host more ports than the 3400
B. All F5 switch ports are tri-speed; 10 100 or 1000 Mbps.
C. All BIG-IP platforms use both an ASIC and CPU(s) to process traffic.
D. The 1500 and 3400 are in a 1U chassis while the 6400 is in a 2U chassis.
E. The 1500,3400 and 6400 have grater SSL capabilities after the initial SSL handshake than the
1000, 2400, and 5100,
Answer: D, E
Not A: The 1500 has 4 ethernet ports + 2 gig fiber and the 3400 has 8 ethernet ports + 2gig fiber.
Page 1-3 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide
Question 4.
Which three methods are available for remote authentication of users allowed to administer a BIG-IP system through the Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)
A. LDAP
B. OCSP
C. Radius
D. VASCO
E. Active Directory
Answer: A, C, E
Page 1-11 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide
Question 5.
What is the default IP address on a BIG-IP's management port?
A. 192.168.1.245/16
B. 192.168.1.245/24
C. 192.168.245.245/16
D. 192.168.245.245/24
Answer: B
Page 1-6 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide
Question 6.
Which two can be a part of a pool's definition? (Choose two.)
A. rule(s)
B. profile(s)
C. monitor(s)
D. persistence type
E. load-balancing method
Answer: C, E
Pool definition can include the following:
1. Name (1-31 characters)
2. Members
3. Load Balancing Method
4. Optional Monitors
5. Priority Group Activation
Page 2-4 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide
Question 7.
A site has six members in a pool. All of the servers have been designed, built, and configured with the same applications. It is known that each client's interactions vary significantly and can affect the performance of the servers.
If traffic should be sent to all members on a regular basis, which load-balancing method is effective if the goal is to maintain a relatively event load across all servers?
A. Priority
B. Observed
C. Round Robin
D. Ration Member
Answer: B
Priority is not a load balancing method. Observed is the best answer, since round robin and ratio load balance without regard to system performance.
Page 2-10 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide
Question 8.
Which statement accurately describes the relation between the two load-balancing modes specified as "member" and "node"?
A. There is no difference; the two terms are referenced for backward compatibility purposes.
B. When the load-balancing choice references "node", priority group activation is unavailable.
C. Load-balancing options referencing "nodes" are available only when the pool members are
defined for the "any" port.
D. When the load-balancing choice references "node', the address' parameters are used to make
the load-balancing choice rather than the member's parameters.
Answer: D
Nodes have only an IP address and may represent multiple pool members while pool members always have an IP address and service port designation.
Page 2-17 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide
Question 9.
A load-balancing virtual server has been associated with a pool with multiple members.
Assuming all other settings are left at their defaults, which statement is always true concerning traffic processed by the virtual server?
A. The client IP address is unchanged whether the traffic is between the BIG-IP and client or the
BIG-IP and server.
B. The server IP address is unchanged whether the traffic is between the BIG-IP and client or the
BIG-IP and server
C. The TCP port used in the client to BIG-Ip connection are the same as the TCP ports in the
BIG-IP to server connection
D. The IP addresses used in the client to big-IP connection are the IP addresses in the BIG-IP to
server connection.
Answer: A
Page 2-1 of BIG-IP Essentials v9 Student Guide
Question 10.
Which two properties can be assigned to a pool? (Choose two.)
A. ratio values
B. priority values
C. health monitors
D. connection limits
E. load-balancing mode
Answer: C, E
Pool definition can include the following:
1. Name (1-31 characters)
2. Members
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