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.Datum Corporation Fabrikam, Inc Alpine Ski Stores(included in 10.1)
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Question 1.
An application has the following requirements:
The number of users is likely to grow rapidly.
There is a large number of users across multiple locations.
The application is dynamic and requires updates to be propagated quickly and easily.
There are a wide variety of client machines utilizing different hardware and software platforms.
Which of the following technologies satisfies the above requirements?
A. SAS/AF application
B. Java applet
C. Java application
D. Server-side Java application
Answer: D
Question 2.
Assume the necessary import statements have been defined.
The relevant portion of the servlet code is shown below:
20 PrintWriter out=response.getWriter();
21 Calendar c = Calendar.getInstance();
22 if (c.get(Calendar.DAY_OF_MONTH)==1)
23 {
24 String message="First Day of Month";
25 }
26 out.println(message);
When the servlet is compiled, the following error message is generated:
Line #26 cannot resolve symbol (variable message)
Which of the following describes why an error was generated at line 26?
A. The PrintWriter class does not support the println() message.
B. The println() method requires additional parameters.
C. The message does not contain a value since it is not the first day of the month.
D. The message is used outside the scope to which it was defined.
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which of the following adds a third-party jar file to the classpath of a single web application within a servlet container without modifying the classpath of other web applications?
A. adding the jar file to the extensions directory of the Java Runtime Environment
B. adding the classpath element to the WEB-INF/web.xml file for the web application
C. adding the classpath in the web application's index.jsp file
D. adding the jar file to the WEB-INF/lib directory of the web application
Answer: D
Question 4.
The following JSP is created:
An alert window needs to be opened when no value is specifed for the first name and the push button is specified.
Which of the following needs to be included on the form open tag to generate the alert window?
A. onsubmit="verify(firstName)"
B. onenter="verify(firstName)"
C. onenter="verify(_fName)"
D. onsubmit="verify(_fName)"
Answer: A
Question 5.
Assume the necessary import statements have been defined.
The relevant portion of servlet code is shown below:
17 public void doPost(javax.servlet.http.HttpServletRequest request,
18 javax.servlet.http.HttpServletResponse response)
19 throws javax.servlet.ServletException,java.io.IOException
20 {
21 // Note: Add User DO_POST code here
22 Rocf rocf = new Rocf();
23 session.setAttribute("rocf", rocf);
24 Connection connection1 = new Connection();
25 connection1.setHost("localhost");
26 session.setAttribute("connection1", connection1);
27 RequestDispatcher dispatcher =
28 getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher("/index.jsp");
29 dispatcher.forward(request, response);
30 }
When the servlet is compiled the following error messages are generated:
FILE: C:\ADS\webapps\test\WEB-INF\classes\beginServlet.java,
Line #23 cannot resolve symbol (variable session)
FILE: C:\ADS\webapps\test\WEB-INF\classes\beginServlet.java,
Line #26 cannot resolve symbol (variable session)
BUILD FAILED
Which of the following, if added between lines 21 and 22 of the servlet code, corrects the error?
A. HttpSession session = getServletContext().getSession();
B. HttpSession session = new HttpSession();
C. HttpSession session = application.getSession();
D. HttpSession session = request.getSession();
Answer: D
Question 6.
An MDTable Custom Tag and an MDSegmentedBar Custom Tag referencing the same model are used in the same JSP to display the same MDDB.
Which of the following approaches enables both components to maintain the same drill hierarchies when the user navigates in either component?
A. Set the associatedGraph attribute of the MDTable to the id of MDSegmentedBar component.
B. Create an MDCommandProcessor Custom Tag and set it as the commandProcessor attribute
on both the MDTable and MDSegmentedBar Custom Tags.
C. No action is required since the default behavior of referencing the same model is to maintain
the same drill hierarchies.
D. Set the associatedTable attribute of the MDSegmentedBar to the id of MDTable component.
Answer: B
Question 7.
The following is the desired output text of a JSP:
Hello World
Which of the following produces this output?
A.
<% String text=new String("Hello World");%>
B.
<%= Hello World;%>
C.
<%! String text="Hello World";%>
<%=text%>
D.
<%! String text=new String("Hello World");%>
<% System.out.println(text);%>
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which of the following statements is true regarding declarative security?
A. The security model does not apply when a servlet uses the RequestDispatcher to invoke the
static resource or servlet using a forward or an include.
B. Declarative security refers to the means of expressing an application's security structure in a
form that is internal to the application.
C. The deployment descriptor should not be used when using declarative security for a web
application.
D. Declarative security is based on the isUserInRole() method on the HttpServletRequest to
authenticate users.
Answer: A
Question 9.
A SAS program named printProcedure contains a macro variable named numObs.
A JSP file includes:
a form with a choice box control named number that contains numeric values that are used to specify the number of observations printed in the report a Submit Custom Tag that submits the SAS program named printProcedure.
Which of the following JSP code segments retrieves the value selected in the choice box and assigns it to the macro variable?
I.
%let numObs=<%=request.getParameter("number")%>;
%include 'c:\printProcedure.sas';
II. <% String selObs=request.getParameter("number"); %>
%let numObs=<%=selObs%>;
%include 'c:\printProcedure.sas';
III. <% String selObs=request.getParameter("number"); %>
%let numObs=selObs;
%include 'c:\printProcedure.sas';
IV. <% String selObs=request.getParameter("number"); %>
%let numObs=&selObs;
%include 'c:\printProcedure.sas';
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. III only
D. III and IV only
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which of the following attributes is used on a Form Custom Tag to specify the destination of the form data when submitted?
A. target
B. method
C. submit
D. action
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Which four statements describe the role of Back-to-Back Orders? (Choose Four.)
A. Links sales orders and purchase orders
B. Flow of reservation supply from requisition to PO to inventory
C. Auto Creates requisitions
D. Supplier ships directly to customer
E. Pegs supply to demand
Answer: A, B, C, E
Question 2.
Which two statements are true about freight and special charges modifiers? (Choose two.)
A. All freight and special charges are passed to receivables for invoicing
B. Using freight and special charges modifiers, you can apply different freight
C. Freight and special charges can't be manually overridden
D. Only shipping execution can capture freight costs and apply charges
Answer: A, B
Question 3.
James wants to add a new recipient to the Approvals list for seeded Negotiation Flow with Approvals.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The seeded workflow list of approvers can't be modified
B. He should open the seeded workflow and add the new name there
C. He can't modify the seeded list, so he should create a new workflow
D. He should select Setup>Transaction Types, query the appropriate Transaction Type and the
click the Approvals button. Finally, he should add the recipient to the list of Approves for the
appropriate list name
E. He should select Setup> Transaction Types> Approvals and add the recipient to the list of
Approves for the appropriate list name
Answer: D, E
Question 4.
Which two statements are true about one-step shipping? (Choose two.)
A. One-step shipping must be used with quick ship shipping transactions
B. One-step shipping is the process of ensuring lot controls are shipped appropriately
C. Ship confirm rules must be set up in order to use one-step shipping
D. One-step shipping is the process of picking, optionally packing and ship confirming delivery
lines in one step
Answer: C, D
Question 5.
Certpaper.com is a retail company and all its customer orders that are shipped have a pre defined freight charge for each line item on the order. The company wants to apply the freight charge to the sales order automatically to increase the order amount.
What should ABC do?
A. They can't do this; freight charges can be applied only during the ship confirm process
B. A Freight and Special Charges modifier can't be defined to apply the freight charge at the time
of the sales order
C. Automatic Freight and Special Charges modifier to apply at each sales order line
D. Define the surcharge list type of modifier to automatically apply the freight charge at the time of
the sales order
E. Manual Freight and Special Charges modifiers to apply at each sales order line
Answer: C
Question 6.
What is true about the Ship From Stock fulfillment model?
A. Every order line should create a WIP job of equivalent quantity
B. Every order must be reserved
C. Stock is not shipped from the factory to the warehouse until receipt of the order
D. Every order can be pick released almost immediately after booking
Answer: D
Question 7.
Certpaper.com. runs on the PTO fulfillment model. All the rule-based business rules for configuration the model are incorporated using OracleConfigurator, which makes it intuitive for sales representatives to configure the PTO model.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. After selecting all the options, PTO Model needs to be processed to get the configured part
B. Routing needs to be defined for the PTO model
C. Ship confirm the option items, not the PTO model and option class
D. Process the configured item to generate the work order
E. Based on the setup, either ship model complete or individual options
Answer: C, E
Question 8.
Which three statements are true about freight carriers? (Choose three.)
A. Inter-organization transfer uses an associated General Ledger account to specify the freight
cost
B. Freight carriers are used for shipments to and from customer, supplier and internal
organizations
C. Freight carriers are specific to the inventory organization
D. You can't associate the General Ledger account with each freight to collect associated costs
E. Freight carriers are used only for customer shipments
Answer: A, B, C
Question 9.
Mary wants to perform the Pick Release process for delivery lines that have been booked.
Which three options are valid approaches for her to use? (Choose three.)
A. Run the Auto Allocate process
B. Execute online from the release sales order window
C. Run a concurrent program from the release sales order window
D. Use the standard Report submission process
E. Run the Pick Slip Grouping process
Answer: B, C, D
Question 10.
A user has been tasked with ensuring that Credit Checking is done at the time of Sales Order Booking for ABC Corp. Though she believes she set up everything correctly, no credit checks seem to be occurring.
Which three elements should be check? (Choose three.)
A. Is Credit Checking enabled for the payment terms applied to ABC Corp?
B. Is the Credit check box selected in the standard customer setup for ABC Corp?
C. Is credit check selected at booking on the Order Transaction Type setup used for ABC Corps
orders?
D. Is the credit check hold check box selected in the profile class accounts window for ABC
Corp?
E. Is credit check selected at shipping on the order transaction type setup used for ABC Corps
orders?
Answer: A, B, C
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Question 1.
When a supplier site is defined as a purchasing site, on which four documents would it be available, in the supplier List of values? (Choose Four.)
A. Quotation
B. Request for Quotation
C. Payment
D. Invoice
E. Requisition
F. Purchase order
Answer: A, B, E, F
Question 2.
If the PO: Allow Buyer override in AutoCreate Find profile option is set to No, what would happen if the buyer, Pat Stock, uses the AutoCreate form?
A. Pat would be able to view requisitions assigned to other buyers but not view unassigned
requisitions
B. Pat would not be able to view requisitions assigned to other buyers, but would be able to view
unassigned requisitions
C. Pay would be able to view all requisitions in the AutoCreate form, but would be prevented from
placing requisitions on aPO if they reference another buyer
D. Pat would be able to view requisitions assigned to other buyers and unassigned requisitions
E. Pat would not be able to view requisitions assigned to other buyers or unassigned requisitions
Answer: E
Question 3.
Which four are the setup steps for an approval hierarchy? ( Choose Four.)
A. Have a supervisor entered in the employee record
B. Assign a job to the employee
C. Enter a buyer
D. Create an employee
E. Tie the employee to the login name
Answer: A, B, D, E
Question 4.
In which four Oracle Applications can a supplier once defined, be used? (Choose Four.)
A. Property Manager
B. Payables
C. General Ledger
D. Order Management
E. Purchasing
F. Assets
Answer: A, B, E, F
Question 5.
Which two should be completed before purchasing is closed for a period? ( Choose two.)
A. Approve all purchasing requisitions for the current period
B. Open the new purchasing period
C. Complete all inventory and expense receipts for the current period
D. Complete and approve all the purchase orders for the current period
E. Pay all invoices for the current period including those that have not been received
F. Resolve all unordered receipts
Answer: C, F
Question 6.
Which accounts can you set in Receiving Options?
A. Clearing Account
B. Receiving Inventory Account and Clearing Account
C. Receiving Inventory Account
D. Receiving Inventory Account and Purchase Price Variance Account
E. Purchase Price Variance Account
Answer: B
Question 7.
O n a requisition created in the professional forms environment (not iProcurement), which four sources can influence the Need by Date for each line? ( Choose Four.)
A. iProcurement Preference: Need by Date Offset
B. Item Lead Time (Min/Max Planning)
C. Profile:PO: Default Need-by Time
D. Preferences
E. Sales Order Need By Date (Drop Shipments)
Answer: B, C, D, E
Question 8.
Your Client finds that some suppliers often under-ship certain low value items. For example, if they create a purchase order for 1000 paper clips, they would often receive only 995 paper clips. Because the quantity outstanding is small, the supplier would simply never ship the remaining five paper clips. Your client wants to make sure that these purchase orders do not remain open if at least 99% of the quantity ordered has been received and invoiced.
Which Item attribute settings are needed to meet this requirement?
A. Receipt close tolerance = 1 and invoice close tolerance = 1
B. Receipt close tolerance = 99 and invoice close tolerance = 1
C. Receipt close tolerance = 1 and invoice close tolerance = 99
D. Receipt close tolerance = 99 and invoice close tolerance = 99
E. Receipt close tolerance = 1 and invoice close tolerance can be set to any value
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which three profile options are required for the setup of sourcing rules? (Choose three.)
A. PO: Allow auto-generate sourcing Rules
B. MRP: Sourcing Rule Category Set
C. PO: Automatic Document Sourcing
D. MRP: Default Sourcing Assignment Set
Answer: A, B, D
Question 10.
Client wants to bypass the ASL and default sourcing information from a quotation or blanket agreement.
Which profile option would have to be enabled?
A. PO: DefaultPO Promise Date from Need By Date
B. PO: Override Approved Supplier List Status
C. MRP: Default Sourcing Assignment Set
D. PO: Allow Autocreation of Oracle Sourcing Documents
E. PO: Automatic Document Sourcing
Answer: E
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Question 1.
Certpaper.com prepared a manual invoice in Receivables for the sale of an inventory item. While performing an analysis in general ledger, Certpaper.com notices that the accounting for the sale in correct and show a debit to the Accounts Receivable account and a credit to the Sales account. However, there is no entry coming from inventory, to show the decrease in the Inventory account and the increase to Cost of Goods Sold.
Which option best explains the missing entry?
A. The Ship Confirm process has not been run from Order Management
B. The final Post to General Ledger process has not been run from Receivables
C. During the entry of the manual invoice, the Accounts Receivable clerk did not click the
Complete button
D. Oracle receivables does not relieve inventory. You must use Order Management if you are
invoicing an item that needs to relieve inventory
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which four statements are true abut imported invoice lines? (Choose four.)
A. You use the interface Lines from to view invoice lines that failed AutoInvoice validation
B. You use the Transactions form to view invoice lines that passed AutoInvoice validation
C. You use the interface Errors form to view invoice lines that passed AutoInvoice validation
D. You use the interface lines form to view invoice lines that passed AutoInvoice validation
E. The RA_INTERFACE_LINES_ALL table contains invoices that failed AutoInvoie validation
F. The RA_CUSTOMER_TRANSACTION_ALL table contains invoices that failed AutoInvoice
validation
Answer: A, B, C, E
Question 3.
Certpaper.com is implementing the Oracle Accounts receivable (AR). Certpaper.com needs a solution that provides the option of transferring a high volume of customer receipts from the bank into the Oracle AR system. In its legacy system, receipts are handled by two separate people and it wants to keep the jobs this way. Rosemary is responsible for entering the receipts and uploading them to the AR system and reporting the total collections for the day. Ben is responsible for posting and applying the receipts after performing due diligence in identifying and classifying receipts that do not have any customer information or receipts that do not have details such as specific invoice numbers against which the receipt is to be applied or receipts which have been received as an ad-hoc payment from a particular customer.
Ben does not want Certpaper.coms account balance to be affected immediately when the receipts are transferred and uploaded to the receivables system. Before the receipts are posted and applied to each individual customers accounts, he needs to check whether the receipts have been assigned with the appropriate invoice number for accurate application and whether the rest of the receipt information is correct. It is only after performing this checking process that he finally posts the receipts through a mass update in the present legacy system.
What is the most appropriate receipt creation method to implement in Oracle Receivables?
A. Cash Receipts
B. Manual Receipts
C. Automatic Receipts
D. Quick Cash Receipts
E. Miscellaneous Receipts
Answer: D
Question 4.
Cash Management maintains a Reconciled or Unreconciled status for each bank statement line. This status is displayed in Cash Management windows and reports. However, this status does not indicate the status of the system transaction. In addition to the status of the bank statement line. Cash Management also displays the status of the system transaction, which is assigned by source application.
Which four statues are in the list of Receipt Status from Receivables? (Choose four.)
A. Reversed
B. Voided
C. Confirmed
D. Reconciled
E. Approved
F. Cleared
Answer: A, C, E, F
Question 5.
Certpaper Enterprises, a customer, has informed you that it will pay for invoices of both its affiliates, Certpaper Services and Certpaper Supplies. Both these affiliates are also customers. You are told that only Certpaper Services is allowed to pay for invoices of Certpaper Enterprises. Certpaper Supplies is not.
Which option defines the Party Paying Relationship that will work?
A. Define Pay Below Paying Relationships for Certpaper Enterprises, Certpaper Services and
Certpaper Supplies with Certpaper Enterprises being the parent
B. Define Pay Within Paying Relationships for Certpaper Enterprises and Certpaper Services and
Pay Below Paying Relationships for Certpaper Enterprises and Certpaper Supplies
C. Define a Relationship types of Pay within and Pay below. Use pay within for Certpaper
Enterprises and Certpaper services and Pay below for Certpaper Enterprises and Certpaper
Supplies
D. Define Relationship Type A for Pay within and Type B for Pay below. Use Relationship Type A
for Certpaper Enterprises and Certpaper Services and Relationship Type B for Certpaper
Enterprises and Certpaper Supplies
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which four parameters are used by AutoInvoice to derive the General Ledger (GL) date for a transaction? (Choose four.)
A. Due date
B. Ship Date
C. Accounting Rule
D. Sales Order Date
E. Default date parameter in the AutoInvoice submission form
F. The latest accounting rule start date if the invoice uses Bill in Advance as the invoicing rule
G. The earliest accounting rule start date if the invoice uses Bill in Arrears as the invoicing rule
Answer: B, C, D, E
Question 7.
Certpaper.com is implementing Oracle Accounts Receivable interface with an external non Oracle legacy billion system. The client wants Oracle Accounts receivable to generate accounting entries, instead of sending accounting data through the interface.
Which setup items are NOT used by Oracle Accounts Receivable to generate General Ledger (GL) code combinations? (Choose two.)
A. Customer Site
B. AutoAccounting
C. Transaction Type
D. Accounting Rules
E. Transaction Source
F. Standard Memo Line
Answer: D, E
Question 8.
Certpaper.com has some customers that have gone through mergers and acquisitions. These customers have requested that their accounts be kept separate, but in some cases they will pay each other's invoices. You are able to confirm that
A will pay for B's invoice but not the other way round (B will not pay for A's Invoice)
D will pay for invoices of C and E, whereas only E will pay for D's invoices. A is not related to C,D and E. The system option of Allow Payament of Unrelated Transaction is deselected.
Which three customer account relationships would work for applying payment to an invoice? (Choose three.)
A. Nonreciprocal relationship between C and E
B. Reciprocal relationship between A and B
C. Nonreciprocal relationship between D and C
D. Reciprocal relationship between C and E
E. Nonreciprocal relationship between A and D
F. Nonreciprocal relationship between A and B
G. Nonreciprocal relationship between D and E
H. Reciprocal relationship between D and E
Answer: C, F, H
Question 9.
Certpaper.com enables you to customize the content and format of bills viewed by customers.
Which four actions can you perform? (Choose Four.)
A. Use Applications Desktop Integrator (ADI) to publish bills
B. Design the layout and content of a bill
C. Incorporate attachments on online bills
D. Display information on bills that is not stored in Oracle Receivables
E. Assign bill formats to specific customers or to user-defined customer categories
Answer: B, C, D, E
Question 10.
Which statement is true about entering invoices in batches?
A. A salesperson can be entered at the batch level
B. A maximum of 999 invoices can be included in a batch
C. A batch can contain invoices with different currencies
D. The batch source must be the same for all invoices in the batch
E. The payment terms must be the same for all invoices in the batch
F. Invoices can be entered in batches but must be printed individually
Answer: C
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Question 1.
Identify two descriptive flexfield components whose values are used to determine contexts. (Choose two.)
A. the Context field
B. global segments
C. the Reference field
D. context-sensitive segments
Answer: A, C
Question 2.
ABC Corp. is running on 11 i Oracle Applications and wants to ensure that supply records of one supplier are not visible to another supplier.
Which action will meet the requirement?
A. by securing attributes for each supplier
B. by excluding attributes for individual suppliers
C. by assigning the same attribute value for VENDOR_CONTACT_ID
D. by assigning a separate attribute value for INTERNAL_CONTACT_ID
Answer: A
Question 3.
Identify two correct statements regarding Function Security. (Choose two.)
A. defines access controls through roles
B. is built on the Role Based Access Control layer
C. is the base layer of Access Control in Oracle Applications
D. restricts user access to individual menus and menu options
E. restricts user access to data within menus and menu options
Answer: C, D
Question 4.
Identify three features of Data Groups. (Choose three.)
A. Multiple data groups can be assigned to a Menu.
B. Multiple data groups can be assigned to a Responsibility.
C. A data group identifies the Oracle username that a form connects to when a Responsibility is
selected.
D. Data groups can be used to support multiple installations of an Oracle Applications product
That supports multiple sets of books.
E. Concurrent managers use a data group to identify the application that owns a report or
concurrent program.
Answer: C, D, E
Question 5.
Which two statements are true regarding ownership of shared entities? (Choose two.)
A. Customers is owned by Oracle Human Resources whereas Locations is owned by Oracle
Receivables.
B. Items is owned by Oracle Purchasing whereas Locations is owned by Oracle Receivables.
C. Sales Force is owned by Oracle Order Management whereas Employees is owned by Oracle
Human Resources.
D. Set of books is owned by Oracle General Ledger whereas Locations is owned by Oracle
Human Resources.
E. Suppliers is owned by Oracle Purchasing whereas Units of Measure is owned by Oracle
Inventory.
Answer: D, E
Question 6.
Which two options would you use to restrict the functionality provided by a responsibility? (Choose two.)
A. creating an appropriate role
B. creating an appropriate group
C. constructing a new menu hierarchy
D. defining rules to exclude specific functions
Answer: C, D
Question 7.
A value set has the validation type set to "Independent." When a user enters a partial segment value, the list of values then retrieves all available values. Identify the List Type attribute.
A. poplist
B. list ofvalues
C. long listofvalues
D. poplist and list ofvalues
Answer: C
Question 8.
As a system administrator for ABC Corp. you are required to notify the sales manager as soon as a customer's shipment gets processed.
How might you do this?
A. through an Event Alert
B. through a Periodic Alert
C. by configuring the Workflow Engine
D. by configuring the Application server
Answer: A
Question 9.
Identify three features of Oracle Workflow builder. (Choose three.)
A. monitors workflows
B. runs on Linux platform
C. saves workflow definition as a flat file
D. defines and customizes workflow definitions
E. has Navigator tree and Process diagram as its components
Answer: C, D, E
Question 10.
XYZ Corp. is in the business of manufacturing cosmetics. It obtains and pays for raw materials.
Which business flow in Oracle E-Business Suite would map to the above activities of obtaining and paying for raw materials?
A. Order to Cash
B. Procure to Pay
C. Forecast to Plan
D. Demand to Build
E. Contract to Renewal
Answer: B
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Question 1.
The OCL dot operator may NOT traverse which classifier property?
A. operations
B. association ends
C. queries
D. attributes
Answer: A
Question 2.
What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports?
A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
C. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
D. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
E. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the
request.
Answer: B
Question 3.
In the exhibit, what is NOT true of ReclassifyObjectAction?
A. It has an output pin providing exactly one object.
B. It refers to any number of old classifiers.
C. It refers to any number of new classifiers.
D. It has an input pin taking exactly one object.
E. The default value for replacing all old classifiers is false.
Answer: A
Question 4.
How can UML be extended? (Choose two)
A. using Interface Definition Library (IDL)
B. using the Object Constraint Language (OCL)
C. using XML Metadata Interchange (XMI)
D. using profiles
E. reusing part of the UML infrastructure library and augmenting it with metaclasses and
relationships
Answer: D, E
Question 5.
Which stereotype CANNOT be used to elaborate the semantic intent of an Artifact instance?
A. <>
B. <>
C. <
Braindumps: Dumps for UM0-200 Exam Brain Dump
Braindumps for "UM0-200" Exam
OMG-Certified UML Professional Intermediate Exam
Question 1.
For what does an interaction operator define semantics?
A. a particular interaction fragment
B. a particular interaction
C. a particular message
D. a particular combined fragment
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which relationships would make the model in the exhibit ill-formed?
A. SpecialOrder and Order are related to each other via an association.
B. SpecialOrder is a subtype of Order.
C. Order is a subtype of SpecialOrder.
D. SpecialOrder and Order are related to each other via a dependency.
Answer: C
Question 3.
What situation results from performing a CreateObjectAction on an abstract class?
A. arbitrary object of one of its subclasses being created
B. undefined behavior
C. object of the specified class being created
D. error log entry being created
E. exception being raised
Answer: B
Question 4.
When either a message m or a message q is to be sent-but not both-what kind of operator for combined fragment would be used?
A. opt
B. par
C. alt
D. break
E. var
Answer: C
Question 5.
Triggers on two different transitions originating from two states at different levels of the same state are simultaneously enabled (as shown in the exhibit).
What does this mean?
A. The state machine is not well-formed.
B. The less deeply nested transition takes precedence over those with more depth.
C. More deeply nested transitions take precedence over those with less depth.
D. Both transitions are taken in arbitrary order.
Answer: C
Question 6.
What kinds of arrows connect to central buffers?
A. control flows
B. unidirectional associations
C. object flows
D. state transitions
E. message passing
F. dependencies
Answer: C
Question 7.
What does a loop node consist of?
A. clauses
B. partitions
C. parameters
D. bodyPart nodes
E. behaviors
F. guards
Answer: D
Question 8.
What is a combined fragment?
A. more than one interaction combined in an interaction overview diagram
B. an interaction occurrence covering more than one lifeline
C. the combination of decomposed lifelines
D. a construct with interaction operands and an interaction operator
Answer: D
Question 9.
Assume that !p means sending message p and ?p receiving it. In the exhibit, what is true about Mneg?
A. Neither p nor q should be sent between a and b.
B. is an invalid trace according to Mneg.
C. p and q should not be sent concurrently from a to b.
D. is an invalid trace according to Mneg.
Answer: D
Question 10.
What is NOT true of a CreateObjectAction?
A. classifier must be abstract
B. classifier cannot be abstract
C. classifier cannot be an association class
D. output pin has multiplicity [1..1]
E. type of the output pin is the classifier.
F. output pin has multiplicity [1..*]
Answer: A, F
Braindumps: Dumps for NR0-017 Exam Brain Dump
Braindumps for "NR0-017" Exam
Teradata Masters Update V2R5
Question 1.
Which two attributes are copied for a CREATE TABLE from a subquery to the table being created? (Choose two.)
A. data types
B. FALLBACK option
C. column-level attributes
D. primary index
E. CHECK constraints
Answer: A, C
Question 2.
Which three features are associated with join indexes? (Choose three.)
A. a pre-aggregation of a single base table
B. the pre-join of multiple tables using INNER JOIN
C. the pre-join of multiple tables using FULL OUTER JOIN
D. a replicated subset of a single base table
Answer: A, B, D
Question 3.
You want to generate three mutually exclusive sample sets from a customer table.
SELECT customer_id, age, income, SAMPLEID
FROM customer_table
Which clause needs to be added to complete the task?
A. SAMPLE .6, .25, .10, .05 ;
B. SAMPLE .6, .25, .10, .05 WITH REPLACEMENT ;
C. SAMPLE .6, .25, .10 ;
D. SAMPLE .6, .25, .10 WITH REPLACEMENT ;
Answer: C
Question 4.
Consider the table t1 created as follows:
CREATE TABLE t1 (
a integer,
d date,
v varchar(100))
PRIMARY INDEX (a)
PARTITION BY RANGE_N(d BETWEEN
DATE '2001-01-01' AND DATE '2005-12-31'
EACH INTERVAL '7' DAY); and the query:
SELECT v FROM t1 WHERE d = DATE '2004-03-16';
Which plan does the Optimizer use to find qualifying rows?
A. full table scan on a single AMP
B. single partition scan on every AMP
C. value lookup on every AMP
D. hash lookup on each AMP
E. single partition scan on a single AMP
Answer: B
Question 5.
If neither RANGE_N nor CASE_N are used to define the number of partitions, how many partitions will the Optimizer assume?
A. 255
B. 0
C. 32767
D. 1
E. 65535
Answer: E
Question 6.
Which two statements are true concerning parameters within a stored procedure? (Choose two.)
A. Parameters and their attributes are always stored in the Data Dictionary.
B. Parameters can be used to build a dynamic SQL statement.
C. Parameters can be altered using the FORMAT clause.
D. Parameters can include status variables such as ACTIVITY_COUNT.
Answer: A, B
Question 7.
Which two tools can be used to alter database objects to improve workload performance? (Choose two.)
A. Teradata System Emulation Tool (TSET)
B. Teradata Visual Explain
C. Teradata Statistics Wizard
D. Teradata Index Wizard
Answer: C, D
Question 8.
Which three are attributes of an Active Data Warehouse? (Choose three.)
A. high availability
B. tactical queries
C. complex queries
D. expanding batch windows
Answer: A, B, C
Question 9.
Which join plan makes use of a primary index on each of two tables with matching partitioned primary indexes (PPIs)?
A. rowkey-based merge
B. nested
C. exclusion merge
D. rowhash merge
Answer: A
Question 10.
You are evaluating the possible use of a hash index on a multi-terabyte table.
Which two factors complicate the implementation of a hash index on such a table? (Choose two.)
A. A partitioned primary index (PPI) is defined on the table.
B. A large number of users access the table.
C. Triggers are defined on the table.
D. The maintenance job for the table is MultiLoad.
Answer: C, D
Question 11.
What are two characteristics of the COMPRESS clause? (Choose two.)
A. It can be defined so a specific value is not stored in each row.
B. It compresses repeating 1s and 0s.
C. It can be used on character data types only.
D. It supports multiple values per column.
Answer: A, D
Braindumps: Dumps for MB2-633 Exam Brain Dump
Braindumps for "MB2-633" Exam
Installation and Deployment in Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0
Question 1.
You are a system administrator at ITCertkeys.com. The corporate network of the company consists of an Active Directory domain. All the servers on the network run Windows Server 2003 servers and all client computers run Windows XP. Some servers on the corporate network run Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0 and client computers run Microsoft Dynamics CRM Client for Microsoft Office Outlook with offline access. The CRM client was installed on client computers few months back using Group Policies. You now want to automate the process of patch installation on client computers so that patches are applied automatically. To accomplish this task, you decided to use Microsoft Dynamics CRM Patch Configuration tool. However, you realized that the patch should not be installed on the CEO laptop.
Which of the following options would you choose to ensure that the patch is applied to all the client computers except CEO's laptop?
A. Move the CEO user account to a different Organizational Unit in the Active Directory.
B. Set the tag to false in the patch configuration file.
C. In the tag in the patch configuration file, specify the CEO user account GUID.
D. Apply the patch to all laptops using the configuration file and then uninstall the patch from the
CEO's laptop.
Answer: C
Explanation:
To ensure that the patch is applied to all the client computers except CEO's laptop, you need to specify the CEO user account GUID in the < ConditionsXsl > tag in the patch configuration file.
The < ConditionsXsl > tag specifies restrictions for installing an update. For example, you can restrict updates by organization, user, operating system, Microsoft Office version, or language type.
The following configuration file excerpt restricts the update for a specific user, based on the user's ID.
< ConditionsXsl >
< xsl:transform version="1.0"
xmlns:xsl ="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> IsMandatory ]]>
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