|
Question 1.
The default installation of Data Protector includes an automatic databases purge.
This happens daily at what time?
A. 00:00
B. 12:00
C. 15:00
D. 22:00
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which command starts a backup from the command line?
A. omnib
B. omnibck
C. omnimm
D. omnicellbck
Answer: A
Question 3.
On a Windows system, which command starts the Data Protector GUI?
A. xomni.exe
B. manager.exe
C. omni.exe
D. omnirc.exe
Answer: B
Question 4.
Which license type is usually included with the Data Protector CD?
A. Evaluation 30 days
B. Instant On 60 days
C. Evaluation 120 days
D. Permanent
Answer: B
Question 5.
The object option "Display Statistics" is turned on in the GUI while configuring and running a backup.
What does it show in addition to standard messaging?
A. megabytes per hour for each object
B. object detail retained for a specific date
C. three levels of detail on files and directories
D. the number of files handled during a backup session
Answer: A
Question 6.
To verify the logical device configuration using the GUI; load a tape into the drive, then right-click on the created drive to display the pop-up menu.
From this menu, which option do you select to verify the device operations?
A. eject medium
B. scan medium
C. check media state
D. verify tape
E. confirm mount request
Answer: B
Question 7.
During initial installation, which tool helps predict future Data Protector internal database (IDB) size?
A. capacity forecast report
B. media management report
C. capacity planning spreadsheet
D. database growth calculator
Answer: C
Question 8.
When performing media operations with Data Protector, the process of faulting is used as a further means of protection.
What is the purpose of faulting locations?
A. to provide information about the media condition
B. to provide information about all media currently mounted to tape drives
C. to provide additional information about the media location within a tape library
D. to provide additional information about the off-site location of media exported from a library
Answer: D
Question 9.
What may happen if Data Protector CANNOT find a protected version of the object on which the incremental backup is to be based?
A. The backup will fail.
B. A mount request will be issued.
C. Data Protector will start a full backup.
D. Data Protector will continue with incremental 1.
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which information about SAN devices can Data Protector store internally to enable automatic discovery of changed SCSI addresses and avoid Windows device persistency problems?
A. type
B. name
C. SCSI ID
D. serial number
Answer: D
Question 11.
Show the general installation sequence for Data Protector by arranging the panels in the proper order.
Answer:
Question 12.
What could be reasons for an unexpected mount request? Select TWO.
A. the tape drive is busy
B. the media is not appendable
C. no previous full backup was run
D. the media is physically write protected
E. the media management database is full
Answer: B, D
Question 13.
Which CLI command creates the File Library device?
A. omnifilelib
B. omnifiledev
C. omniupload
D. omnidownload
Answer: C
Question 14.
Which situation would require disaster recovery procedures rather than a standard restore? Select TWO.
A. client database corruption
B. client configuration corruption
C. failure/loss of the client's tape device
D. inconsistency of the Data Protector IDB
E. corruption/loss of the Data Protector IDB
Answer: B, E
Question 15.
When performing a manual configuration using the command line, you can create a new logical device by defining it in a temporary file in the devices directory.
How is the Media Management database updated with this information?
A. automatically when the device schedule is invoked
B. with the omnidownload command
C. with the omniupload command
D. with the omni update command
Answer: C
Question 16.
To use the same device with different media pools, what must be created?
A. a new media agent
B. a media specification
C. backup specification
D. media rotation policies
Answer: C
Question 17.
What does the user right "Clients Configuration" allow?
A. add, delete, and modify assigned groups
B. view, backup, and restore assigned systems
C. create, configure, and delete backups and restores
D. perform installation and updates of assigned systems
Answer: D
Question 18.
When configuring a backup, when does Static Device Allocation occur?
A. when the backup specification is targeted at a specific physical device
B. when each object defined in the backup specification is targeted at a specific logical device
C. when each object defined in the backup specification is targeted at a specific physical device
D. when several objects defined in the backup specification are targeted at several logical
devices
Answer: B
Question 19.
By default, which file is the Data Protector Database recovery file?
A. obdb.dat
B. obrindex.dat
C. obdatafiles.dat
D. obdbrecovery.dat
Answer: B
Question 20.
Which section of the backup specification contains the information about the backup target drives?
A. objects
B. devices
C. media pools
D. backup types
Answer: B
Question 21.
The Data Protector scheduler allows for scheduling of which entity?
A. media agent
B. logical device
C. backup object
D. backup session
E. backup specification
Answer: E
Question 22.
Which Data Protector feature simplifies shared access of several hosts to a physical device?
A. redundant paths
B. multi path devices
C. device locking mechanism
D. multiple device connections
Answer: B
Question 23.
The Data Protector tape format is comprised of which sections?
A. File Mark, Data Blocks, and End of Data
B. Segments, File Mark, and Catalog Information
C. Tape Header, Media Label, and Fast Tape Positioning
D. Tape Header, Data Segments, and Catalog Information
Answer: D
Question 24.
Data Protector provides simplified access to library management consoles.
What does this mean?
A. Library management is simplified and can be done without special knowledge.
B. Access to the library management console interface does not require a login password.
C. The library management console interface can automatically be loaded in a web browser.
D. Management of multiple libraries can be performed from a single shared management
console.
Answer: C
Question 25.
What is included in a Logical Device configuration? Select TWO.
A. device options
B. overwrite protection levels
C. physical device properties
D. media pool characteristics
E. automated media operations
Answer: A, C
|
Question 1.
What are three [3] functions of the Clone Private LUN?
A. Keep track of modified extents of Source LUNs and Clones
B. Stores fracture log for synchronization or reverse synchronization
C. Enable incremental synchronization upon starting an Out-of-Sync Clone LUN
D. Allow continuance of synchronization operation of a Clone upon a failed SP.
E. Store host write data from Source when Clone is fractured from Source LUN
Answer: A, B, D
Question 2.
What are three [3] features that the PowerPath GUI provides to users?
A. Change theCLARiiON SP from active to standby.
B. Change the failover policy of a LUN.
C. Change aCLARiiON path from active to standby.
D. Change a host adapter from standby to active.
Answer: B, C, D
Question 3.
What are three [3] features of VisualSAN?
A. Monitors health of SAN
B. Integration withNavisphere CLI Correct if you mean that Visual SAN runs NaviCLI
C. Performance statistics of LUNS, and RAID groups
D. Track storage utilization of servers on the SAN
E. Visual representation of SAN zones and members
Answer: A, B, E
Question 4.
How are a production LUN and its clone(s) related?
A. Clone Private LUN.
B. Persistent fracture log.
C. Clone Group relationship.
D. Storage Group relationship.
Answer: C
Question 5.
What are three [3] features of VisualSAN?
A. Track storage utilization of servers on the SAN
B. Performance statistics of LUNS, and RAID groups
C. Integration withNavisphere CLI Correct if you mean that Visual SAN runs NaviCLI
D. Monitors health of SAN
E. Visual representation of SAN zones and members
Answer: C, D, E
Question 6.
What is the maximum number of Clone Private LUNs allowed on a CLARiiON CX Series array?
A. 50
B. 1
C. 25
D. 2
E. 100
Answer: D
Question 7.
What is a feature of the Write Intent Log (WIL)?
A. Used to minimize recovery in the event of a failure of the Primary array.
B. Tracks changes on the Primary LUN and synchronizes changes with the Secondary LUN when
reachable.
C. Is a volatile log which tracks changes to the Primary LUN during aFracture
D. Captureswrites to the Secondary LUN and release those changes when the Secondary is
promoted as Primary.
Answer: A
Question 8.
What is the default stripe element size for a five disk RAID 5 CLARiiON LUN?
A. 8 blocks
B. 32 blocks
C. 128 blocks
D. 64 blocks
E. 16 blocks
Answer: C
Question 9.
For which three [3] databases can VisualSRM provide table level detail?
A. SQLserver
B. Sybase
C. mySQL
D. Oracle
E. Informix
Answer: A, B, D
Question 10.
DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
What are the steps, in order, for configuring a Brocade switch for Web management?
Answer:
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.