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Braindumps for "50-677" Exam

Foundations of Novell Networking: Netware 6

 Question 1. 
Exhibit:
Rights Assignments
.  Marketing group object has [B,C,D,R,I] object rights to MKTG.CORP.LON.ITCERTKEYS
.  Payroll organizational role object has [B,I] object rights to CORP.LON.ITCERTKEYS
.  ADMIN.LOG.ITCERTKEYS has [S,B,C,D,R,1] object rights to LON.ITCERTKEYS
.  ITCert given explicit rights of [B,C,D,R,I] to MKTG.CORP.LON.ITCERTKEYS 
    
  IRFs
 IRF on CORP.LON.ITCERTKEYS filtering out the [S,C,D,R] rights

The ITCert user object resides in the MKTG.CORP.LON.ITCERTKEYS container. ITCert is a member of the Marketing group object, is an occupant of the Payroll organizational role object, and is security equivalent to Admin.LON.ITCERTKEYS. The assigned rights are shown in the exhibit. 

What object rights does ITCert have to the P1.MKTG.CORP.LON.ITCERTKEYS printer object?

A. None
B. Browse
C. Browse and Inheritable
D. Browse, Delete, and Rename
E. Browse, Create, Delete, Rename, and Inheritable
F. Supervisor, Browse, Create, Delete, Rename, and Inheritable

Answer: D

Question 2. 
You are having printing problems in your NDPS environment. You are getting a message stating the client could not connect to the printer agent. What could be a cause of this error?

A. The printer is out of paper.
B. NDPSM.NLM is not loaded.
C. The spoofing volume is full.
D. An incorrect print driver is being used.
E. The client running on the workstation is a queue-based client.

Answer: B

Reference: 
(13-8)

Question 3. 
To salvage a NetWare file, what file system rights are needed?

A. Read for the file and Create for the directory.
B. File Scan for the file and Write for the directory.
C. Read and File Scan for the file and Create for the directory.
D. Read, File Scan, and Modify for the file and Write for the directory.
E. Read, File Scan, and Write for the file and Create and Write for the directory.

Answer: C

Reference: 
(16-9)

Question 4. 
Which are rules of NSS? (Choose two)

A. There is one logical volume per storage device.
B. There is one logical volume per single storage pool.
C. A partition can be associated with many storage pools.
D. The size of a logical volume cannot exceed the size of a storage pool.
E. The sum of the sizes of each volume in a partition can exceed the partition size.

Answer: D, E

Reference: 
D (14-10) E (14-11 Overbooking)

Question 5. 
You want to change the location field property of all user objects in the IS.DEL.DIGITALAIR container. Click the menu option that allows you to change properties of multiple objects.

 

Answer: Select Container then File Properties of Multiple Objects

Reference: 
(7-17)

Question 6. 
What is a function of the MTA?

A. To monitor disk space.
B. To store email messages.
C. To execute GroupWise client rules.
D. To transfer email messages between post offices and other domains.

Answer: D

Reference: 
(20-5)

Question 7.
The following drive mapping exists on your workstation:
G: = DA1\DATA:USER\APPLICATIONS
Enter the command that will delete this drive mapping.

Answer: MAP DEL G:

Reference: 
(15-33 and TID10027779)

Question 8.
Which statements are true regarding NetWare 6? (Choose three)

A. NetWare 6 uses DOS boot files.
B. Linux can function as a server or client in a NetWare 6 environment.
C. Once a NetWare 6 server has booted, DOS is required for NetWare 6 to run.
D. Windows 2000 Professional can function as a server or client in a NetWare 6 environment.
E. DOS, Windows ME, and Windows NT Workstation can function as clients in a NetWare 6
     environment.

Answer: A, B, E

Reference: 
A (1-10) B (1-11) E (1-11)

Question 9.
The object class definitions within the schema define what?

A. Object placement within the tree.
B. The syntax structure of an attribute
C. The synchronization rules between replicas.
D. The types of objects that can exist in the tree.
E. The types of replicas that can exist in the tree.

Answer: D

Reference: 
(6-13) 

Question 10. 
When adding a large number of users from eDirectory to GroupWise post office with ConsoleOne, it s most efficient to do so from the properties panel of which object type?

A. User
B. Server
C. Domain
D. Container
E. Post office

Answer: E

Reference: 
(22-2)

Question 11. 
When bringing your server up, your disk driver does not load. Which file contains the command that loads the disk driver?

A. SERVER.EXE
B. INETCFG.NLM
C. STARTUP.NCF
D. AUTOEXEC.NCF
E. NWCONFIG.NLM

Answer: C

Reference: 
(3-13)

Question 12. 
You are creating a proposal for a new project. You plan to work on the document during the day at your office workstation and in the evening from your home machine. Which NetWare 6 feature allows you to easily do this while also preventing you from overwriting a new version with an older one?

A. iPrint
B. iFolder
C. eDirectory
D. WebAccess
E. Novell Cluster Services (NCS)
F. Novell Storage Services (NSS)

Answer: B

Reference: 
(1-2, 19-2)

Question 13. 
When configuring the NetWare 6 file system during installation, which tasks can be performed for volumes? (Choose four)

A. Mount volumes
B. Merge volumes
C. Create volumes
D. Delete volumes
E. Increase volume size
F. Decrease volume size

Answer: A, C, D, E

Reference: 
A (2-29) C (2-28) D (2-29) E (2-29)

Question 14.
You are creating a login script and want to include comments that will document what certain parts of the login script are performing. What command do you need to put in front of these comments? (Choose two)

A. #
B. REM
C. WRITE
D. INCLUDE
E. (semi-colon)

Answer: B, E

Reference: 
(9-13)

Question 15. 
When using iPrint, which statement is true regarding the configuration of a DNS record for each server running an NDPS manager?

A. You should configure printers for iPrint prior to configuring a DNS record.
B. iPrint printers must be enabled before the DNS addition can use DNS naming.
C. The first step in setting up iPrint is configuring DNS for each server running an NDPS 
      manager.
D. If the NDPS manager is moved to another server and DNS is not configured, users must 
     reinstall their I Print printers.

Answer: C

Reference:
(12-6)

Question 16. 
Which map command will place the drive in the PATH statement?

A. MAP N .DA1_DATA.ITCERTKEYS:APPS\WP
B. MAP G:=.DA1_DATA.ITCERTKEYS:APPS\WP
C. MAP S16:=.DA1_DATA.ITCERTKEYS:APPS\WP
D. MAP INS G:=.DA1_DATA.ITCERTKEYS:APPS\WP
E. MAP ROOT G:=.DA1_DATA.ITCERTKEYS:APPS\WP

Answer: C

Reference: 
(15-41)

Question 17. 
What does ENS, an NDPS broker service, allow?

A. Queries about print jobs can be sent from a network client.
B. NDPS clients to send jobs to printers that are not NDPS-aware.
C. Public access printers to advertise themselves so administrators and users can find them.
D. Resources to be installed in a central location and then downloaded to clients that need them.
E. Printers to send customizable notifications to users and operators about printer events and 
     print job status.

Answer: E

Reference: 
(11-8)

Question 18. 
You need to rename the KTracy GroupWise mailbox. KTracy resides in the SLC.DIGITALAIR container. The GroupWise post office name is DIGIPO and the GroupWise domain name is DIGIWRLD. Click the object that allows you to rename the KTracy mailbox.

 

Answer: KTracy User Object

Reference: 
(22-27)

Question 19.
You are setting up a GroupWise rule to forward all messages received from your manager. Click the button or option that allows you to specify your manager within the rule.


 

Answer: Define Conditions

Reference: 
(22-9)

Question 20. 
To troubleshoot your IP issues, you don't want to log into the network. Click the tab or button that allows you to specify to log in to the workstation only.

 

Answer: Windows Tab

Reference: 
(4-22)


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Braindumps for "646-563" Exam

Advanced Security for Account Managers Exam

 Question 1.
Which two of these statements describe why Cisco offers the security solution with the lowest operational cost? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco ensures third-party integration.
B. Cisco is able to meet PCI requirements.
C. Cisco solves the broadest suite of threats.
D. Cisco maximizes training costs for the IT group.
E. Cisco has established partnerships with all key players.

Answer: C, E

Question 2.
How does preliminary technical discovery benefit the customer?

A. A technology strategy is presented to the customer.
B. Information regarding an existing customer network is analyzed, which allows an appropriate 
    solution to be developed.
C. The account team analyzes and validates the business requirements.
D. Detailed technical requirements are defined and documented.

Answer: B

Question 3.
Which security management offering helps customers to readily and accurately identify, manage, and mitigate network attacks and to maintain network security compliance?

A. Cisco Security Agent
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco NAC
D. Cisco Network Assistant
E. Cisco Security MARS

Answer: E

Question 4.
What is one way that Cisco Security can decrease customer implementation costs?

A. by using the existing infrastructure
B. through dedicated security appliances
C. through better security management products
D. by reducing the number of people to train

Answer: A

Question 5.
How does the Cisco ASA with the CSC module protect the network? (Choose two.)

A. It blocks incoming e-mail and web threats.
B. It guarantees regulatory compliance.
C. It prevents network intrusion with an IPS.
D. It provides VoIP enhancements.
E. It prevents loss of sensitive information with integrated antivirus protection.

Answer: A, E

Question 6.
How does security technology assessment drive continuous improvements?

A. by recommending remediation measures, such as optimizing device configurations, planning 
    capacity, and resolving quality issues
B. by assessing the current state of the customer operations
C. by assessing the realization of ROI and other benefits of the security system
D. by defining project milestones

Answer: A

Question 7.
Why do end users need to be aware of the security policy?

A. Some security decisions are usually in their hands.
B. They need to be aware of every threat.
C. They should avoid responsibility for their actions.
D. They should understand the probability of every risk.

Answer: A

Question 8.
Which two of these choices describe how the secure network access solution provides value to the customer? (Choose two.)

A. permits a man-in-the-middle attack
B. makes mobility more cost-effective
C. provides an unencrypted solution
D. reduces the amount of equipment
E. allows for secure Internet browsing

Answer: B, D

Question 9.
How does the Cisco SDN relate to compliance?

A. It is point product-based.
B. It uses anomaly detection to secure a device.
C. It addresses a large majority of PCI requirements.
D. It uses IP protocol 50 (ESP) to securely communicate to network devices.

Answer: C

Question 10.
Which Cisco solution provides host protection against security violations by focusing on the behavior of the device?

A. Cisco PIX Firewall
B. NAC Appliance
C. host Analyzer
D. Cisco Security Agent
E. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance

Answer: D


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