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would like to know if all questions are comming from dumps? If anybody know new questions please help me.
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Question 1.
Which method can b found in BOTH the EJBHome and EJBLocalHome interface?
A. getHOmeHandle()
B. getEJBMetaData()
C. remover(Handle handle)
D. remove(Object primaryKey)
Answer: D
Question 11.
Which two are valid types for persistent fields in a.CMO.2.0 entity bean?
(Choose two.)
A. Java primitive
B. entity bean local interfaces
C. classes implementing java.io.Serializable
D. either java.util.Collection or java.util.Set
Answer: A, C
Question 2.
Which two are required to properly implement a CMP entity bean class?
(Choose two.)
A. Declare variable for all persiwsten fields.
B. Provide constructors to initalize the CMP fields.
C. Do not implement the ejbFind<METHOD> methods.
D. Provide implementation code for get and set methods to store and retrieve the persistent
fields.
E. Implement ejbCreaate<METHOD> methods for all home interface create <METHOD>
methods.
Answer: C, E
Question 3.
Which statement about EJ B QL is true?
A. An EJB QL query must contain the ORDER BY clause.
B. An EJB QL query is statically defined in the ejb-jar.xml deployment descriptor.
C. Duplicate values are always removed form EJB QL query results by the container.
D. It is legal to use an input parameter in the FROM clause or the SELECT clause of an EJB
QL query.
Answer: B
Question 4.
What two statements are true about EJB 2.0 container crashes? (Choose two.)
A. Entities will survive.
B. An entity bean’s primary key will survive
C. Massage-driven bean instances will service.
D. Stateful session bean instances will survive
E. Crashes are guaranteed to be transparent to client using entity beans.
Answer: A, B
Question 5.
Which is feature of EJB 2.0?
A. It provides synchronous massage handling through message driven beans.
B. It provides support for both local and remote client views for session beans.
C. It provides support for both local and remote client views for message driven beans.
D. It guarantees that all services represented by an object will have conversational state.
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which if a capability guaranteed by all EJB 2.0 containers?
A. JTA support
B. Server failover
C. Load balancing
D. Servlet support
E. Server clustering
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which accurately describes a characteristic of EJB 2.0?
A. EJB 2.0 is an example of a web-based component model.
B. EJB 2.0 components must be directly accessible via HTTP.
C. EJB 2.0 is an example of a component model for GUI applications.
D. EJB 2.0 applications an link to legacy systems using a J2EE connector.
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which two APlas are provided to the Bean Provider by an EJB 2.0 container? (Choose two.)
A. JTA
B. JMX
C. JSP
D. JDO
E. JAXP
Answer: A, E
Question 9.
Which two are guaranteed to a Bean Provider using an EJB 2.0 container? (Choose two.)
A. access to the JCE API
B. access to JavaMail API
C. access to the JXTA API
D. access to the JAXP API
Answer: B, D
Question 10.
What is the purpose of the file command?
A. The file command is used to transfer files between file systems.
B. The file command attempts to classify the file type based on the file’s content.
C. The file command reports on file size, file ownership, and access permissions.
D. The file command is used to search binary data streams for reference to readable ASCII files.
Answer: B
Question 11.
Which feature is mandatory for an EJB 2.0 complaint container?
A. JMX support
B. JVM co-resident JSPs.
C. Deferred database writes
D. Lazy loading of entity bean data
E. Client principal caller propagation
Answer: E
Question 12.
Which two must a Bean Provider void in an enterprise bean to ensure that the bean is portable to
any complaint EJB 2.0 container? (Choose two.)
(Assume that all reference variables have been correctly and legally initialized.)
A. java.sql.Connection c = aDataSource.getConnection();
B. java.security.Principal p = context.getCallerPrincipal();
C. QueueSesion q = AQueueConnection.createQueueSessin(true, 0);
D. object o = new Object(); object o2 = o.getClass().getClassLoader();
E. java.io.FilelnputStream fs= new java.io.EilenputStream(“MyFile”);
Answer: D, E
Question 13.
What are two programming restriction in the EJB 2.0 specification? (Choose two.)
A. An enterprise bean must not declare static fields as final.
B. An enterprise bean must not attempt to load a native library.
C. An enterprise bean must not attempt to create a new security manager.
D. An enterprise bean must not propagate a RuntimeException to the container.
E. An enterprise bean must not attempt to obtain a javax.naming.InitialContext.
Answer: B, C
Question 14.
Which two actions could adversely effect the portability of an EJB 2.0 bean?
(Choose two.)
A. changing a thread’s priority
B. directly reading or writing a file descriptor
C. using java.net.Socket to be an network client
D. demarcating a transaction in a stateless session bean
E. using bean-managed transactions in a massage-driven bean
Answer: A, B
Question 15.
What is true about using java.net.Socket an java.net.ServerSocket within session bean business methods?
A. Both classes can be used.
B. Neither class can be used.
C. Of the two classes. Only java.net.Soclket can be used.
D. Of the two classes, only java.net.ServerSocket can be used.
Answer: C
Question 16.
Which two must a Bean Provider supply for each enterprise bean in the deployment descriptor?
(Choose two.)
A. security roles
B. the JNDI name of the enterprise bean
C. the enterprise bean type: session, entity, or massage-driven
D. the value of the transaction attributes for the home and component interface methods.
E. The fully-qualified name of the class that implements the enterprise bean’s business methods.
Answer: C, E
Question 17.
Given:
4. <method-permission>
5. <role-name>employee>/role-name>
6. <method>
7. <ejb-name>EmployeeService>/ejb-nmame>
8. </method>
9. </method-permission>
Which EJB role is responsible for supplying this information?
A. Deployer
B. Bean Provider
C. Container Provider
D. System Administrator
E. Application Assembler
Answer: E
Question 18.
Who must ensure that a bean’s environment entries are set to meaningful values?
A. Deployer
B. Bean Provider
C. EJB Server Provider
D. System Administrator
E. Application Assembler
F. EJB Container Provider
Answer: A
Question 19.
Which two statements are true about an ejb-jar file? (Choose two.)
A. it must contain a WAR file.
B. The client does not need access to it.
C. It does not need to contain a deployment descriptor.
D. It must not contain application assembly information.
E. It must contain the bean class file by either inclusion or reference.
F. It must contain all classes generated by the container for this bean, by either inclusion or
reference.
Answer: B, E
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Question 57.
Which routing protocol is defined by the OSI protocol suite at the network layer?
A. End System-to End System
B. Routing Information Protocol
C. Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
D. Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System
E. End system to intermediate system
Answer: D
Explanation:
Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS) Protocol is an intradomain Open System Interconnection (OSI) dynamic routing protocol specified in International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 10589. The protocol is designed to operate in OSI Connectionless Network Service (CLNS). Data is carried using the protocol specified in ISO 8473.
OSI CLNS is a network layer service similar to bare IP service. A CLNS entity communicates over Connectionless Network Protocol (CLNP) with its peer CLNS entity.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/CK365/CK381/technologies_white_paper09186a00800a3e6f.shtml
Question 58.
Which two benefits are associated with classless routing protocols? (Choose two)
A. Support for VLSM.
B. Support for FLSM.
C. Summarization of discontinuous subnets.
D. Auto-summarization across network boundaries.
E. The ip classless command improves convergence.
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
A. Classless routing protocols support VLSM, and that, in turn, leads to more efficient allocation of subnet asks to meet different host requirements on different subnetworks, resulting in better utilization of host addresses.
C. Because subnets routes are propagated throughout the routing domain, summarization is often required to keep the routing tables at a manageable size.
Reference:
Building Scalable Cisco Networks (Ciscopress) page 19 + 20
Question 59.
Given the following partial configuration for Router A:
interface serial0
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
encapsulation frame-relay
ip ospf network point-to-multipoint
router ospf7
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0255 area 0
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two)
A. DB/BDR elections do not take place.
B. The router is restricted to a hub and spoke topology.
C. The area 0 NBMA cloud is configured as more than one subnet.
D. Neighbor statements are required.
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
When configuring OSPF in a point-to-multipoint environment, DR/BDR elections do not take place. Neighbor statements must be statically defined due to the NBMA architecture. The point-to-multipoint environment removes the assumption that there is a full mesh and communication between neighbors is done via unicast.
Chapter: 1
Question 60.
What is the proper command to display the Level-2 routing table in Integrated IS-IS?
A. show isis database
B. show clns traffic
C. show ip route
D. show clns route
E. traceroute
Answer: D
Explanation:
On page 245 of the Cisco Press CCNP Flash Cards, the correct command to view the L2 routing table is SHOW CLNS ROUTE.
Question 61.
Why should subinterfaces be configured in an OSPF NBMA topology?
A. To converse IP addressing space.
B. To avoid split-horizon issues with the routing protocol.
C. Because logical interfaces are more reliable than physical interfaces.
D. Subinterfaces remain up when the physical interface changes to a down state.
Answer: B
Explanation:
When configuring routers in a NBMA topology, subinterfaces are typically used. A physical interface can be split into multiple logical interfaces, called subinterfaces, with each subinterface being defined as point-to-multipoint interface. Subinterfaces originally were created to better handle issues caused by spilt horizon over NBMA and distance vector-based routing protocols.
Reference:
Building Scalable Cisco Networks (Ciscopress) page 120
Question 62
You are a technician at ITCertKeys. Your newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee wants to know why it is necessary to redistribute or advertise IGP routes into BGP.
What would your reply be?
A. so BGP can propagate this information to other IGP neighbors
B. so BGP can propagate this information to other IBGP neighbors
C. so BGP can propagate this information to other OSPF neighbors
D. so BGP can propagate this information to other EBGP neighbors
Answer: D
Explanation:
When BGP is used between autonomous systems (AS), the protocol is referred to as External
BGP (EBGP).
Note:
Customer networks usually employ an Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) such as RIP or OSPF for the exchange of routing information within their networks
Reference:
Border Gateway Protocol
http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/cisintwk/ito_doc/bgp.htm
Question 63.
Exhibit:
ip router isis
Your trainee is configuring a router. He wants to configure Integrated IS-IS to route IP. He knows that he must use the command listed in the exhibit.
In which mode should he use this command?
A. Line configuration mode
B. Router configuration mode
C. Global configuration mode
D. Interface configuration mode
Answer: D
Explanation:
To configure an IS-IS routing process for IP on an interface, use the ip router isis interface configuration command.
Note:
To enable IS-IS, perform the following tasks starting in global configuration mode:
Step 1: router isis
Enable IS-IS routing and specify an IS-IS process for IP, which places you in router configuration mode.
Step 2: net network-entity-title
Configure NETs for the routing process; you can specify a name for a NET as well as an address.
Step 3: interface type number
Enter interface configuration mode.
Step 4: ip router isis [tag]
Specify the interfaces that should be actively routing IS-IS.
Reference:
Cisco, Configuring Integrated IS-IS
Incorrect Answers
A, B; C: The ip router isis cannot be used in either line, router or Global configuration mode.
Question 64.
You want to retrieve the Level-2 routing table in Integrated IS-IS.
Which IOS command should you use?
A. show isis route
B. show clns route
C. show isis database
D. show clns neighbors
Answer: B
Explanation:
The show clns route command is used to display all of the destinations to which this router knows how to route packets. The output includes the IS-IS Level 2 routing table as well as static and ISO-IGRP learned prefix routes.
Reference:
Cisco, ISO CLNS Commands
Incorrect Answers
A: The show isis routes command is used to display the IS-IS Level 1 forwarding table for IS-IS learned routes.
C: The show isis database command is used to display the IS-IS link state database.
D: The show clns neighbors command displays both CK and IS neighbors.
Question 65.
Your trainee is curious why Integrated IS-IS Level-3 area routing is not supported by Cisco routers. What should you tell her?
A. The System ID on a Cisco router is limited to 6 bytes.
B. The NET on a Cisco router is restricted to a maximum of 8 bytes.
C. The lack of Domain portion of the NSAP only accommodates for 2 levels of routing hierarchy.
D. Cisco routers cannot route CLNS data that use the ISO/IEC 10589 standard of NSAP
addressing.
E. Since the NSAP service identifier (N-SEL) must always be set to 00, no other service types are
available.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Integrated IS-IS is a version of the OSI IS-IS routing protocol that uses a single routing algorithm to support more network layer protocols than just CLNP. Integrated IS-IS sometimes is called Dual IS-IS, named after a version designed for IP and CLNP networks. Only one IS-IS process is allowed whether you run it in integrated mode, ISO CLNS only, or IP only.
Question 66.
What representation is used in IS-IS to identify LAN interfaces?
A. broadcast
B. point-to-point
C. pseudo-node
D. non-broadcast
E. point-to-multipoint
Answer: A
Explanation:
The types of networks that IS-IS defines include Point-to-point networks and Broadcast networks.
Reference:
Cisco, Introduction to Intermediate, System-to-Intermediate System Protocol
http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/cc/pd/iosw/prodlit/insys_wp.htm
Incorrect Answers
B: Point-to-point networks, such as serial lines, connect a single pair of routers.
C: A Designated Intermediate System (DIS) creates a pseudonode (a virtual node), and all the routers on a LAN, including the DIS, form an adjacency with the pseudonode instead of forming n*(n-1) order adjacencies with each other in a full mesh. DIS are not used by default however.
D: Non-broadcast is not used by IS-IS.
E: Point-to-multipoint is not used by IS-IS.
Question 67.
IS-IS routers can be classified into different types.
Which two IS-IS router types provide intra-area routing services? (Choose two)
A. L1 IS
B. L1 CK
C. L2 IS
D. L2 CK
E. L1/L2 IS
F. None of the above
Answer: A, E
Explanation:
L1 IS and L1/L2 IS routers provide intra-area routing services.
Reference:
RFC2966
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Question 1.
Which of the following is a responsibility of the Operations Role Cluster?
A. detecting intrusions and protecting against viruses
B. managing business-to-business trading interfaces
C. managing IT-procurement and purchasing functions
D. prioritizing service improvement requests and identifying gaps for future functionality
Answer: B
Question 2.
In what way does Capacity Management contribute to improving IT Service Management?
A. By identifying the major technology components, infrastructure, people and processes that
underpin the end-to-end delivery of service
B. By preventing interruptions to IT services as well as recovering services after an interruption
occurs
C. By planning and monitoring the job scheduling process according to the requirements in the
Operational Level Agreements (OLAs)
D. By planning the implementation of business requirements for IT Services so they are in place
when the business needs them
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which Service Management Function (SMF) needs to ensure that efficient incident detection and recovery tools and processes are in place to handle any service outages that do occur?
A. Availability Management
B. Release Management
C. Service Desk
D. System Administration
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which Role Cluster has a portfolio of business-aligned IT services as a quality goal?
A. Operations
B. Partner
C. Service
D. Support
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which Service Management Function deals with the day-to-day activities and tasks related to maintaining and adjusting the IT security infrastructure?
A. Availability Management
B. Security Administration
C. Security Management
D. System Administration
Answer: B
Question 6.
What is the relationship between releases and changes?
A. A change includes both changed hardware and software components and components that
were not changed. A release only includes changed hardware and software components.
B. Changes are incorporated into the IT environment by releases.
C. Releases and changes are incorporated into the IT environment independently of each other.
D. Releases are incorporated into the IT environment by changes.
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which of the following is a key requirement for planning service solutions?
A. a managed IT environment
B. a milestone-driven implementation process
C. take the perspective of end-to-end services
D. understanding of the business and the operational requirements
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which of the following describes the concept of Service Management Functions (SMFs)?
A. a model for measuring the performance of the process
B. a model for organizing IT staff
C. organizational units that support IT operations
D. processes, procedures and policies to deliver and support IT service solutions
Answer: D
Question 9.
What is a goal of Security Administration?
A. accessibility
B. confidentiality
C. connectivity
D. interconnectivity
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which steps in the MOF Risk Management Process follow each other immediately?
A. Analyzing and Prioritizing Risks - Planning and Scheduling Risk Actions
B. Analyzing and Prioritizing Risks - Tracking and Reporting Risks
C. Identifying Risks in Operations - Planning and Scheduling Risk Actions
D. Identifying Risks in Operations - Tracking and Reporting Risks
Answer: A
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Question 1. What is important to implement when providing a non-disruptive IP telephony solution (VoIP)? A. Fabric Shortest Path First (FSPF) B. Packet caching (Pcache) C. Quality of Service (QoS) D. VLAN routing (vlanR) Answer: C Question 2. What is the benefit of using server virtualization technology, such as VMware, in the x86 server environment? A. to maximize the utilization of x86 server resources B. to enable clustering without single-point-of-failure C. to enable failover-failback between x86 processors D. to maximize I/O performance by sharing with multiple servers Answer: D Question 3. Which advantage does fiber optic cable offer over copper cabling? A. lower reliance on hubs and switches B. longer distances C. easier implementation D. lower cost Answer: B Question 4. An engineering drawing firm is planning to upgrade their tape backup systems, but they are constrained by their investment in older tapes. They need systems that will preserve their old data by reading backward two generations. Which tape technology provides read compatibility for two prior generations? Select TWO. A. SDLT B. AIT C. LTO D. DLT E. SLR Answer: C, D Question 5. Which application functionality benefits most from a 64-bit architecture over a 32-bit architecture? A. Clustered DNS Server B. Clustered Print Spooling C. High Performance Computing D. Clustered AutoStore Capturing Answer: C Question 6. Which web-based software solution enables a corporate customer to track PC (business desktop, notebooks and workstations) assets, alerts, diagnostics and SoftPaq distribution across an enterprise environment? A. Altiris Deployment Server B. HP OpenView Helpdesk software C. HP Essentials software D. HP Client Manager tool Answer: D Question 7. Which legacy server platforms have high potential to migrate to the Intel Itanium server platform? Select TWO. A. HP 9000 servers B. HP AlphaServers C. HP ProLiant 300 family servers D. HP ProLiant 900 family servers Answer: A, B Question 8. Which backup method provides the lowest TCO? A. shared SCSI backup B. local SCSI backup C. data replication backup D. automated centralized backup Answer: A Question 9. Which HP 9000 server supports a maximum of two hard partitions? A. rp4440-4 B. rp4440-8 C. rp7420-6 D. rp8420-32 Answer: C Question 10. Which networking security option can be used to authenticate wireless LAN (802.11b/g/a) access? A. VLAN B. DMZ C. RADIUS D. BOOTP Answer: C
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Question 1.
LSC validation is failing on a new SCCP IP phone that you have just added to the Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 cluster. No other IP phones are experiencing any problems with LSC validation.
What can you do to help pinpoint the problem?
A. Check for security alarms
B. Verify that the authentication string is correct in the Cisco Unified CallManager device
configuration screen
C. View the SDI trace output
D. Use the Security configuration menu on the IP phone to verify that an LSC has been
downloaded to the IP phone
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which three capabilities can't be configured if the default dial peer is matched? (Choose three.)
A. Set preference to 1
B. Invoke a Tcl application
C. Enable dtmf-relay
D. Set codec to G.711
E. Disable DID
F. Disable VAD
Answer: B, C, F
Question 3.
When using trace output to troubleshooting a Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 problem, how can you collect and view the trace files?
A. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and
then use the embedded RTMT tool to view the trace files
B. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and
download the RTMT plug-in from the CallManager Administration page to view the trace output
C. Download the RTMT plug-in from the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page to view
the preconfigured trace files
D. Configure the proper alarms and traces on the Cisco Unified CallManager Administration page
and view the output with the RTMT plug-in
Answer: B
Question 4.
You are troubleshooting why a user can't make calls to the PSTN. You are reviewing trace files and you found where the user's IP phone initiates the call but you never see the call go out the gateway.
What is the next step in troubleshooting this issue?
A. Look in the SDL trace file to see if there is a signal to another Cisco Unified CallManager node
with the same time-stamp
B. Look in the MGCP trace file to determine which MGCP gateway the call was sent to
C. Look in the IP Voice Media Streaming APP trace file to see if an MTP was invoked
D. Look in the SDL trace file to see if there is a signal to anther Cisco Unified CallManager node
with the same TCP handle
Answer: A
Question 5.
Exhibit:
Your work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Please study the exhibit carefully.
Voice bearer traffic is mapped to which queue in FastEthernet0/2?
A. Queue 2
B. Queue 3
C. Queue 1
D. Queue 4
Answer: A
Question 6.
Exhibit:
Your work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Please study the exhibit carefully. You have received a trouble ticket stating that calls to international numbers are failing. To place an international call, users dial the access code, "9," followed by "011", the country code and the destination number. After entering the debug isdn 1931 command on the MGCP gateway, you have the user attempt the call again.
Base on the debug output, what is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The TON in incorrect
B. The circuit is not configured correctly or has a physical layer issue
C. Cisco Unified CallManaager is not stripping the access code before sending the call to the
gateway
D. The gateway dial peer needs to prefix "011" to the called number so the PSTN knows this is
an internation call
E. The user's CSS does not permit international calls
Answer: A
Question 7.
You have developed a dial plan for Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 solution. All the route patterns, partitions, calling search spaces and translation rules have been configured. Before starting up the system you wish to test the dial plan for errors.
Which Cisco Unified CallManager tool will simplify this testing?
A. Route Plan Report
B. Dial Plan Installer
C. Dialed Number Analyzer
D. RTMT Traces and Alarms
Answer: C
Question 8.
You have just obtained a list of the following options:
all patterns
unassigned DN
Call Park
Conference
Directory Number
Translation Pattern
Call pickup group
Route pattern
Message waiting
Voice mail
Attendant console
What have you selected in order to produce this list?
A. Route Plan > External Route Plan Wizard
B. Control Center > Feature Services
C. Route Plan > Route Plan Report
D. Dialed Number Analyzer
Answer: C
Question 9.
You have configured the Enable Keep Alive check under Trace Filter settings.
How does this change the trace output?
A. It adds the IP address of the endpoint in hex
B. It maps the unique TCP handle for the endpoint to the MAC address of the endpoint in the
trace output
C. It adds the SCCP messages and all fields sent as part of that message
D. It adds TCP socket numbers between the endpoint and Cisco Unified CallManager for the
session
Answer: B
Question 10.
When using trace output to troubleshooting a Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 problem, how can you collect and view the trace files?
A. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and
download the RTMT plug-in from the CallManager Administration page to view the trace output
B. Configure the proper alarms and traces on the Cisco Unified CallManager Administration page
and view the output with the RTMT plug-in
C. Download the RTMT plug-in from the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page to view
the preconfigured trace files
D. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and
then use the embedded RTMT tool to view the trace files
Answer: A
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